Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Phase 3A > ILAs > Flashcards

ILAs Flashcards

1
Q

What are the common secondary causes of hypertension?

A

ROPED
renal disease, obesity, pregnancy, endocrine, drugs (alcohol, steroids, NSAIDs, oestrogen)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is stage 1 hypertension?

A

clinic reading > 140/90 or at home > 135/85

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is stage 2 hypertension?

A

clinic reading > 160/100 or at home > 150/95

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is stage 3 hypertension?

A

clinic reading > 180/120

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What tests should be done in patients with a new diagnosis of hypertension?

A

Urinalysis, bloods - HbA1c, renal function, lipids, fundus examination, ECG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the management guidelines for hypertension?

A

Step 1: Aged under 55 or type 2 diabetic of any age or family origin, use A. Aged over 55 or Black African use C.
Step 2: A + C. Alternatively, A + D or C + D.
Step 3: A + C + D
Step 4: A + C + D + fourth agent (see below)

(ARBs in patients of african-caribbean origin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Give an example of a potassium sparing diuretic?

A

Spironolactone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is malignant hypertension?

A

Hypertension above 180/120 with retinal haemorrhages or papilloedema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the features of Rheumatoid arthritis?

A

Autoimmune joint inflammation, symmetrical polyarthritis. Joint pain, swelling and stiffness worse in the morning. associated with HLA DR4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What antibodies are usually present in RA?

A

Rheumatoid factor (in 70%)
Anti-CCP antibodies (in 80%)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which joints are usually affected in RA?

A

MCP, PIP, wrist, MTP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What signs are present in advanced RA?

A

Z-thumb, swan-neck deformity, boutonniere deformity, ulnar deviation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What X-ray changes are seen in RA?

A

periarticular osteopenia, bony erosions, soft tissue swelling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How do you treat RA?

A

short term steroids
DMARDs - methotrexate, leflunomide, sulfasalazine
cDMARDs - azathripine, ciclosporin, cyclophosphamide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What joints are commonly affected in OA?

A

hips, knees, DIP, lumbar and cervical spine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What X-ray changes are seen in OA?

A

LOSS
loss of joint space
osteophytes
subarticular sclerosis
Subchondral cysts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the features of osteoarthritis?

A

Joint pain and stiffness, worse at the end of the day. reduced ROM, crepitus, effusions around the joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What signs are associated with osteoarthritis?

A

Heberden’s nodes (DIP), Bouchard’s nodes (PIP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the treatment of OA?

A

Weight loss, exercises, topical NSAIDS then oral NSAIDS (with PPI) then intra-articular steroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the blood pressure target for hypertension?

A

> 80y/o 150/85
<80y/o 140/85
Diabetic with end organ damage - <135/85

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What levels do you use to diagnose diabetes?

A

Fasting BG - > 11mmol/L
Random BG > 7mmol/L
Glucose tolerance > 11.1mmol/L at 2 hrs
HbA1c - 48 mmol/mol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the first line treatment for diabetes?

A

Trial diet and lifestyle for 3 months
Meformin (biguanide)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the second line management of diabetes?

A

Sulphonylureas - glicazide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the risk factors for COPD?

A

smoking, occupational exposure, air pollution, al[ha-1 antitrypsin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What investigations do you do in suspected COPD?
CXR, FBC, PHQ-9 and GAD 7, oxygen sats, ECG, sputum culture if purulent
26
What is the management of COPD?
1. SABA / SAMA 2. LABA or LAMA 3. + ICS 4. LAMA, LABA, ICS, SABA
27
Give an example of a SABA?
salbutamol
28
Give an example of a SAMA?
ipratropium
29
Give an example of a LABA?
salmeterol
30
Give an example of a LAMA?
tiotropium
31
What meds can you give in a COPD exacerbation?
Prednisolone OD for 1-2 weeks increase dose of SABA/SAMA
32
What are the common causes of heart failure?
Myocardial, valvular, pericardial, arrhythmias, high output states (anaemia, hyperthyroid), CKD - volume overload, obesity, alcohol
33
What are the key signs of heart failure?
orthopnoea and nocturnal dysnoea, raised JVP, basal crepitations, gallop rhythm, displaced apex. breathless, oedema, syncope, fatigue
34
What investigations do you do for heart failure?
ECG in everyone, bloods, if history of MI refer to cardio and do echo within 2 weeks, if not history of MI measure BNP
35
What is the management of heart failure?
Loop diuretic - for symptomatic relief ACE-I / BB
36
What needs to be checked after 2 weeks of an ACE-I?
U&Es
37
Why does an ACE-I cause a dry cough?
Bradykinin accumulation
38
What is the first line treatment of a DKA?
IV saline
39
Give an example of a loop diuretic?
Furosemide
40
What are the causes of microcytic anaemia?
TAILS - Thalassaemia, anaemia of chronic disease, iron deficiency, lead poisoning, sideroblastic anaemia
41
What are the causes of megaloblastic macrocytic anaemia?
B12 and folate deficiency
42
What are the causes of normoblastic macrocytic anaemia?
alcohol, hypothyroid, liver disease, drugs (azathioprine)
43
What are the signs and symptoms of iron deficiency anaemia?
Pica (craving non-food substances), hair loss, koilonychia, angular cheilitis, atrophic glossitis
44
What is the ratio for chest compressions to rescue breaths in paediatric resus?
15:2 (30:2 if only one rescuer available)
45
What is the treatment for pyloric stenosis?
Ramstedt pyloromyotomy
46
When does IgA nephropathy usually occur?
days after an infection - presents with nephritic syndrome
47
Under which age should children with a limp be admitted for a paeds review?
3 years
48
If a patient is antibiotic resistant to one bacteria what do you do?
Culture and sensitivity, and give a different class of antibiotics
49
In a baby born to a cocaine addicted mother, what medication should you give?
Phenobarbital
50
Which side does a diaphragmatic hernia usually affect?
the left
51
What are the points in a feverpain score?
Fever in past 24hrs, purulent tonsils, attendance within 3 days, inflammation of tonsils, no cough/coryza
52
What are the red flags that put an unwell kid in the high risk catagory?
pale/blue, won't stay awake, appears ill to healthcare professional, weak cry, grunting, RR>60, chest indrawing, reduced turgor, no response to social cues, neurological signs
53
What are the amber flags that put an unwell kid into the moderate risk catagory?
pallor, wakes with prolonged stimulation, nasal flaring, RR>40, sats <95% on air, tachycardia >140ish, dry mucous membranes, reduced feeding and urine output, joint issues
54
What features of a head injury require an urgent CT head?
focal neurological signs, convulsions, 3+ discrete episodes of vomiting, signs of basal skull fracture (panda eyes, battles signs, CSF leakage), suspicion of non-accidental injury
55
What are the potential side effects of chemotherapy for ALL?
pancytopaenia, tumour lysis syndrome, infection, nausea
56
What biochemical features are associated with tumour lysis syndrome?
hyperkalaemia, hyperuricaemia, hyperphosphataemia, hypocalcaemia
57
What are the red flag developmental milestones?
cant hold an object at 5 months cant sit unsupported at 12 months cant stand or talk at 18 months cant walk at 2 years cant run at 2.5yrs
58
How do you work out maintenance fluids for kids?
100ml/hr/kg for first 10kg 50ml/hr/kg for next 10kg 20ml/hr/kg for the rest (for over 20kg its 1500ml + the rest) - divide by 24 for the rate
59
What are the common chromosome 15 deletions?
paternal deletion = prader-willi maternal deletion = angelman
60
What is the acute management of a cyanotic episode caused by agitation in a child?
Calm child and put in the knees to chest position
61
What abnormalities are detected during the 20 week scan?
edwards, patau, anencephaly, gastroschisis, cleft lip, bilateral renal agenesis
62
What anomalies are detected during the 14 week scan?
Down's syndrome, neural tube defects
63
What are the indications for early referral to fertility specialists?
age > 35, menstrual disorder, previous STI/PID, previous surgery
64
Name 4 causes of polyhydramnios
foetal anaemia (increased cardiac output), macrosomia (big baby - more urine), twin-twin transfusion (one baby will have poly, one has oligo), maternal diabetes
65
What is the karyotype for a complete molar pregnancy?
XX (or rarely XY) - due to an empty egg being fertilised - the sperm dna duplicates
65
What are the karyotypes for incomplete molar pregnancy?
XXX, XYY
66
If someone with an existing diagnosis of diabetes gets pregnant, what meds do they get changed to?
Metformin + insulin (all other oral antidiabetics should be stopped)
67
What vaccine is given to pregnant women from 16 weeks + ?
Flu and pertussis
68
What is the definition of a severe PPH?
> 2000ml of blood loss
69
What is the definition of a moderate PPH?
1000-2000ml blood loss
70
How do you classify PPH into primary and secondary?
primary = <24hrs secondary = >24hrs
71
What is the FIGO staging of endometrial cancer?
1: confined to endometrium 2: extends to cervix but not beyond uterus 3: Pelvis 4: involves bladder/bowel or has mets
72
What is Meig's syndrome?
A complication of ovarian cysts - ovarian fibroma, ascites and pleural effusion
73
What are the physiological changes seen in pregnancy on blood tests?
raised WCC, ESR, D-dimer, ALP Low albumin and platelets
74
What is the first line management of primary dysmenorrhoea?
NSAIDS then COCP
75
What is the management of a breast cyst?
abscess drainage and culture
76
What blood tests do you need to do to detect menopause/premature ovarian insufficiency?
FSH 4 weeks apart
77
What is an endometrioma?
A chocolate cyst - a cyst on the ovary caused by endometriosis
78
What is the treatment of endometriomas?
Laparoscopic ovarian cystectomy
79
What are the features of lichen sclerosis?
itching, discomfort, pain in the genitalia. white patches, scarring, and shrinking
80
What is the treatment for lichen sclerosis?
steroids and emollients
81
What do you give for a paracetamol overdose?
N-acetyl cysteine - parvolex
82
What do you need to monitor in patients on methylphenidate?
BP, appetite, weight and height
83
What is the definition of a staggered overdose?
more than 1 hour apart
84
What is clomipramine?
A tricyclic antidepressant
85
What drugs can you give for OCD?
SSRI Then tricyclic - clomipramine
86
What is preservation?
the repetition of words and ideas
87
What are the anti-cholinergic side effects (TCAs)?
Cant see, cant wee, cant shit, cant spit
88
What type of drug is phenelzine?
MAO-i
89
What is the treatment for acute dystonia?
Benzatropine (anti-cholinergics) or procyclidine
90
What is the CSF appearance of viral meningitis?
clear, lymphocytosis, normal protein, normal glucose
91
What is the second line treatment for migraine prophylaxis?
topiramate
92
Is the facial paralysis in AICA ipsi or contra?
Ipsi
93
What is the treatment for OA?
topic NSAIDs Ibuprofen and omeprazole intra articular steroids
94
What investigation should be done to diagnose BPPV?
Dix Hallpike
95
What is the first line treatment for bacterial vaginosis?
Metronidazole
96
What are the 6 main AIDs defining illnesses?
kaposi's sarcoma, pneuomcystitis jirovecii pneumonia, CMV infection, candidiasis, lymphomas, TB
97
What medication is used to treat pneumocystitis jirovecii pneumonia?
co-trimoxazole
98
Can you give live vaccines in HIV+ patients?
No, but do give years flu and pneumococcal vaccines
99
What medications are used for post-exposure prophylaxis in HIV?
tenofovir + raltegravir for 28 days
100
What medications are used for pre-exposure prophylaxis?
emtricitabine/tenofovir
101
What bacteria causes syphilis?
treponema pallidum
102
What is important to know about antiretroviral drugs?
They should be taken at the same time every day to reduce the risk of viral resistance
103
What is seen on microscopy of a trichomonas infection?
clue cells
104
What is fitz-hugh curtis syndrome?
A complication of PID that causes liver adhesions therefore RUQ pain
105
What is the definition of an opioid use disorder?
A harmful pattern of use over a 12 month period or at least 1 month if use if continuous
106
What is the relative risk reduction?
1-relative risk
107
What are the 5 parts of the centor criteria?
fever > 38, tonsillar exudate, absence of cough, tender anterior cervical lymph nodes, (age <15)
108
What is the treatment for strep throat?
Phenoxymethylpenicillin for 10 days
109
What medications cause an itchy maculopapular rash in EBV?
amoxicillin and cephalosporins
110
Name some ARBs
losartan, candesartan
111
What is the management of scabies?
Permethrin 5% - given to whole family and close contacts
112
What are the typical features of scabies?
intense itching at night, skin rash, grey-white lines, typically affects finger webspaces, wrists, armpits, waist, buttocks, genitals
113
What do you give for an anaphylaxic reaction?
IM adrenaline 500mcg up to 2 doses, IV fluid bolus and get to resus - anaesthetists can give IV adrenaline
114
What is the treatment of community acquired pneumonia?
Co-Amox and clarithromycin
115
What is the curb-65 score for?
community acquired pneumonia
116
What are the 5 parts of the curb-65 criteria?
age 65, urea >7, RR >30, systolic <90 diastolic <60, presence of confusion
117
What is the treatment of hospital acquire pneumonia?
Tazocin
118
What is the first line and gold standard investigation for stable angina?
First - exercise stress test gold - angiography
119
How long must fatigue be present for to have CFS?
3 months
120
What is the main side effect of colchicine?
diarrhoea - which usually precedes pain relief
121
what drugs are used to treat benign prostate hyperplasia?
5-alpha reductase inhibitors - finesteride
122
What drugs are used to treat erectile dysfunction?
phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitors - sildenafil/tadalafil
123
What is the first line treatment for a-fib?
DOAC - apixaban
124
Methotrexate interferes with the absorption of which nutrient?
folic acid
125
What is the management of children with suspected type 1 diabetes?
same day referral to paeds
126

Phase 3A (14 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions