Passmed - Neuro Flashcards

1
Q

Bell’s Palsy features

A

lower motor neuron facial nerve palsy → forehead affected
(in contrast, an upper motor neuron lesion ‘spares’ the upper face)

post-auricular pain (may precede paralysis)
altered taste
dry eyes
hyperacusis

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2
Q

Bell’s palsy management?

A

Oral prednisolone
Eye care (lubricant)

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3
Q

a simple first-step in the management of patients with raised ICP

A

Head elevation to 30º

(IV mannitol may be used as an osmotic diuretic)

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4
Q

Dilated, fixed pupil CN

A

III

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5
Q

‘down and out’ eye with a fixed (non-reactive to light), dilated pupil

A

typical presentation of oculomotor nerve palsy.

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6
Q

inability to abduct the left eye and worsening double vision when looking to the left are consistent with

A

left 6th nerve palsy

innervates the lateral rectus muscle, which is responsible for abduction of the eye. When this nerve is affected, it results in medial deviation of the eye (esotropia) at rest and difficulty or inability to abduct the affected eye

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7
Q

Wernicke’s encephalopathy features? CAN OPEN

A

Confusion
Ataxia
Nystagmus
Ophthamoplegia
PEripheral
Neuropathy

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8
Q

Middle-aged, personality changes, involuntary movements →

A

?Huntington’s disease

Autosomal dominant
Features typical develop after 35 years of age
chorea
personality changes (e.g. irritability, apathy, depression) and intellectual impairment
dystonia
saccadic eye movements

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9
Q

Huntington’s disease fewtures

A

Features typical develop after 35 years of age
chorea
personality changes (e.g. irritability, apathy, depression) and intellectual impairment
dystonia
saccadic eye movements

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10
Q

Acoustic neuromas are best visualized by

A

MRI of the cerebellopontine angle

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11
Q

Contralateral homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing and visual agnosia

A

posterior cerebral artery

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12
Q

ongoing vertigo, tinnitus and hearing loss, absent corneal reflex

A

Acoustic neuroma

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13
Q

first line radiological investigation for suspected stroke?

A

Non-contrast CT head scan

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14
Q

Distal sensory loss, tingling + absent ankle jerks/extensor plantars + gait abnormalities/Romberg’s positive →

A

subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord

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15
Q

Confusion, ataxia, nystagmus/ophthalmoplegia→ give

A

Pabrinex (IV B/C vitamins)

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16
Q

A maximum of ? doses of IV benzodiazepines can be administered during convulsive status epilepticus

A

Two

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17
Q

If a patient is on warfarin/a DOAC/ or has a bleeding disorder and they are suspected of having a TIA, they should be

A

admitted immediately for imaging to exclude a haemorrhage

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18
Q

Defective downward gaze and vertical diplopia

eye deviates supero-laterally

A

CN IV

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19
Q

MS acute relapse management?

A

high dose steroids can be used in the management of acute relapse

E.g. oral/IV methylprednisolone

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20
Q

Tongue deviated towards side of lesiom

A

CN XII lesion

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21
Q

Nystagmus?

A

CN VIII lesion

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22
Q

loss of facial sensation
loss of corneal reflex
paralysis of mastication muscles
deviation of jaw towards the side of lesion

A

CN V lesion

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23
Q

dilated, fixed pupil
ptosis
a ‘down and out’ eye

A

CN III lesion

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24
Q

flaccid paralysis of upper + lower face
loss of taste (anterior 2/3rds of the tongue)
loss of corneal reflex
hyperacusis

A

CN VII lesion

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25
Q

migraine prophylaxis (woman of childbearing age) and essential tremor treatment?

A

Propranolol

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26
Q

acute migraine treatment

A

Triptan + NSAID or triptan + paracetamol

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27
Q

loss of taste (posterior 1/3rd of the tongue)
loss of gag reflex
hypersensitive carotid sinus reflex

A

CN IX lesion

28
Q

weakness turning head to contralateral side

A

CN XI lesion

29
Q

loss of sight

A

CN II lesion

30
Q

combination of vertigo, hearing loss, tinnitus and an absent corneal reflex

A

Vestibular schwannoma

31
Q

x scan is the first line radiological investigation for suspected stroke

A

Non-contrast CT head

32
Q

Acetazolamide is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor that is used to treat

A

idiopathic intracranial hypertension

33
Q

Superior homonymous quadrantanopias are caused by lesions of

A

the inferior optic radiations in the temporal lobe

34
Q

What can cause hyperacusis

A

facial nerve palsy
hyperacusis is an increased sensitivity to sound.

35
Q

Jacksonian movement (clonic movements travelling proximally) indicates

A

frontal lobe epilepsy

36
Q

Weber’s syndrome is

A

a form of midbrain stroke characterised by the an ipsilateral CN III palsy and contralateral hemiparesis

37
Q

Restless leg syndrome - management includes

A

dopamine agonists such as ropinirole

38
Q

Urinary incontinence + gait abnormality + dementia =

A

normal pressure hydrocephalus

39
Q

The Cushing reflex is a physiological nervous system response to increased intracranial pressure (ICP) that results in

A

hypertension and bradycardia

40
Q

Fourth nerve palsy -

A

when looking straight ahead, the affected eye appears to deviate upwards and is rotated outwards

41
Q

Progressive peripheral polyneuropathy with hyporeflexia suggests

A

Guillain-Barre syndrome

42
Q

Distal sensory loss, tingling + absent ankle jerks/extensor plantars + gait abnormalities/Romberg’s positive →

A

subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord

due to vitamin B12 deficiency resulting in impairment of the dorsal columns, lateral corticospinal tracts and spinocerebellar tracts

43
Q

The classical history of vestibular schwannoma includes a combination of

A

vertigo, hearing loss, tinnitus and an absent corneal reflex

44
Q

Vision worse going down stairs?

A

Think 4th nerve palsy

45
Q

Lip smacking + post-ictal dysphasia are localising features of a

A

temporal lobe seizure

46
Q

Urinary incontinence + gait abnormality + dementia =

A

normal pressure hydrocephalus

47
Q

migraine treatment acute vs prophylaxis

A

acute: triptan + NSAID or triptan + paracetamol
prophylaxis: topiramate or propranolol

48
Q

Sudden onset vertigo and vomiting, ipsilateral facial paralysis and deafness -

A

anterior inferior cerebellar artery

49
Q

homonymous quadrantanopias: parietal vs temporal

A

PITS (Parietal-Inferior, Temporal-Superior)

50
Q

Tonic or atonic seizures: females

A

lamotrigine is first-line for

51
Q

Epilepsy medication for males:

A

generalised seizure: sodium valproate
focal seizure: lamotrigine or levetiracetam

52
Q

Third nerve palsy vs Horner’s

A

Ptosis + dilated pupil = third nerve palsy; ptosis + constricted pupil = Horner’s

53
Q

A combination of x AND y is recommend for patients with an acute ischaemic stroke who present within 4.5 hours

A

x - thrombolysis (alteplase)
y - thrombectomy

54
Q

x imaging is the preferred modality in patients with suspected TIA who require brain imaging

A

MRI brain with diffusion-weighted

55
Q

Loss of corneal reflex - think

A

acoustic neuroma

56
Q

Cranial nerves … are affected in vestibular schwannomas

A

V, VII and VIII

57
Q

Lacunar strokes can present with

A

unilateral motor disturbance affecting the face, arm or leg or all 3.
complete one sided sensory loss.
ataxia hemiparesis.

58
Q

x are first-line for spasticity in multiple sclerosis

A

Baclofen and gabapentin

59
Q

Distal sensory loss, tingling + absent ankle jerks/extensor plantars + gait abnormalities/Romberg’s positive →

A

subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord

60
Q

Jacksonian movement (clonic movements travelling proximally) indicates

A

frontal lobe epilepsy

61
Q

x lesion can cause weakness of foot dorsiflexion and foot eversion

A

Common peroneal nerve

62
Q

Confusion, ataxia, nystagmus/ophthalmoplegia→ give x

A

Pabrinex (IV B/C vitamins)

63
Q

x is the preferred modality in patients with suspected TIA who require brain imaging

A

MRI brain with diffusion-weighted imaging

64
Q

x is used for long-term prophylaxis of cluster headaches

65
Q

Absence seizures: x is first-line

A

ethosuximide