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1)373$3@9 > Part 91 General OPS & Flight Rules MOS 2020 > Flashcards

Part 91 General OPS & Flight Rules MOS 2020 Flashcards

1
Q

NVFR Alternate minima

A

Ceiling 1500’

Vis 8000m

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2
Q

VFR alternate minima in Class G

A

Ceiling 1000’

Vis 3000m

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3
Q

IFR alternate minima

A

AD with IAP = as published

AD with IAP but no or provisional TAF = alternate required

AD without IAP = final route LSALT + 500’, vis 8000m

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4
Q

VMC Class G by Day

A

Below 10,000ft = 1000ft vert, 1500m hori + 5000m vis

By day only

At or below higher of 3000ft AMSL or 1000ft AGL = clr of cld, in sight of gnd/water + 5000m vis

Below 700ft AGL = clr cld + 800m vis

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5
Q

Special VFR

A

By day only

Clr of cld
Vis not less than 800m

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6
Q

VFR flight can be conducted:

A

a. in VMC
b. when at/blw 2000ft AGL, can nav visually
c. sub sonic
d. IAW ENR 1.4 speed limits

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7
Q

Visual approach by day IFR requirements

A
  1. Within 30nm of AD
  2. Clear of cloud
  3. In sight of gnd or water
  4. Vis 5000m, or helicopter VMC or AD in sight

Maintaining the abv,
- maintain 500ft abv CTA and min VFR altitude till circling area, or for helicopters
- maintain helicopter VMC till HLS
- track as cleared until within 5nm.

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8
Q

Visual approach requirements by Ngt IFR

A
  • clear of cloud
  • insight of gnd/ water
  • vis 5000m, and
  • maintain 500ft abv CTA steps until
  • within circling area and AD in sight
  • within 3nm and AD insight
  • within 5nm (7nm ILS) on centre line and not below on slope indications of PAPI
  • within 10nm est on ILS (less than full scale azimuth)
  • track as cleared until within circling area and AD in sight
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9
Q

The met forecasts required prior to flight to a dest with IAP are

A

For the route = GAF and Wind/temp forecast valid for entire flight.

For aerodromes (dep, dest and alt) = GAF, or TAF, or TAF3 and valid for eta - 30 / +60

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10
Q

The met forecasts req’d prior to flight to an AD without IAP are

A

Planned destination - TAF or GAF only

Planned alternate - TAF

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11
Q

A VFR flight at night, operating under AWK, must not be conducted unless the forecast indicates …

A

…the flight can be conducted in VMC, at/abv 1000’ abv obstacles within 10nm either side of track.

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12
Q

What is TAF validity for a flight?

A

AD and alt AD TAF valid for planned ETA -30mins / +60mins

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13
Q

Requirements to fly IFR at night to an AD without IAP

A

a. alt fuel carried
b. able to nav to AD and Alt using area nav or radio nav
c. No descent below LSALT until:

1- positive fix within 3nm of AD
2- AD lighting in sight
3- maintain VMC through out descent
4- remain within 3nm at all times blw LSALT

d. PIC aware of all obs within 3nm of AD, and maintains obs clr as specified for circling 300ft

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14
Q

On approach to an AD, descent below LSALT/ MSA is only to occur when..

A

a. c/o visual approach
b. DME/GPS arrival
c. ATC clearance
d. cross over IAF or facility

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15
Q

Visual circling within no-circling areas is prohibited by..

A

.. day less than VMC or at night

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16
Q

What is the basic assumption of a circling approach after initial visual contact?

A

That the rwy environment ( threshold, approach lights or identifiable markings with rwy) are kept in sight when circling at MDA

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17
Q

During visual circling, descent below MDA can occur when the pilot..

A

a. maintains AC within circling area
b. maintains vis along intended flight path not less than specified on chart
c. maintains vis contact with landing rwy environment
d. by day or night while complying with a/b/c, intercept a position on downwind, base or final from which a continuous descent can be made, maintaining normal RoD and OBS clearances, until aligned with landing rwy
e. by day only while complying with a/b/c, maintains visual contact with obs along intended flight path, not less than performance cat, until aligned with landing rwy

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18
Q

Minimum obstacle clearance requirements per category are..

A

Cat A + B = 300’

Cat C + D = 400’

Cat E = 500’

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19
Q

Circling area radii are..

A

Cat A = 1.68nm = 3,111m

Cat B = 2.66nm = 4,926m

Cat C = 4.20nm = 7,778m

Cat D = 5.28nm = 9,779m

Cat E = 6.94nm = 12,853m

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20
Q

Descent below straight-in MDA or below DA can only occur when..

A

a. vis ref can be maintained
b. met conditions equal/exceed published approach minima

c . AC is continuously in a position from which a landing in the touchdown zone can be achieved using normal RoD and manoeuvres

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21
Q

A missed approach must be executed if..

A

a. During final segment, AC is outside navigation tolerances for the aid in use
b. When using GNSS as a substitute aid, a sustained deviation off centreline occurs
c. during app and below MSA, aid becomes suspect or fails
d. You arrive at MAPt and you can’t land (in TDZ using nml rates and manoeuvres)
e. visual reference or visibility is lost whilst circling

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22
Q

Define “visual reference” for rwy and circling approaches.

A

Rwy approach - vis not less than specified

Circling approach - clear of cloud, in sight of ground/water and vis not less than specified

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23
Q

State the missed approach obs clr

A

100ft if missed approach commenced from MAPt or DA at 2.5% gradient (RoC = 2. 5 X 70gs = 175fpm)

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24
Q

Expectations when conducting a missed approach whilst circling.

A

Initiate a climb and turn towards the landing rwy and aerodrome IOT intercept the missed approach track

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25
When does a loss of RAIM or RAIM warning result in a MAP?
Any time after IAF
26
Can you use GPS guidance if a RAIM warning ceases after a missed approach is initiated?
Yes, otherwise use DR to effect missed approach procedure
27
What are the CAT A handling speeds?
Vat = <91 IAF = 90-150 (max 110 for reversals) FAF = 70-100 Circling = 100 Missed approach = 110
28
Describe reversal procedures
45/180 = track outbound for published time, then turn away 45deg for 1 min from start of turn, reverse turn through 180 deg and intercept inbound track 80/260 = track outbound for published time. Turn away 80 deg then turn immediately opposite direction to intercept
29
Define “established”
Less than half scale deflection for the ILS, VOR and GNSS, within +/- 5deg of required NDB bearing, or within +/- 2nm of DME arc.
30
Procedures are based on what bank angle? SID?
25deg or rate one whichever is less SID = 15deg
31
Name the four categories of approach procedures
PA - Precison approach (ILS) APV - App procedure with Vertical guidance NPA with - Non precision app with dist measuring (VOR/DME, LOC/DME, GNSS) NPA without - non precision without dist measuring (NDB and VOR)
32
An aircraft may commence the approach without entering a hold (assuming no height need to be lost) if:
a. Received ATC clearance b. completed: reversal, DME arc, or within 30deg of the app’s first track c. GNSS: within capture region for an initial app waypoint, or receiving ATC vectors Note: can request a ‘direct to’ intermediate fix (IF) provided the subs track change within 45deg
33
The standard holding direction and timing is
Right 1 min (wind adjusted)
34
When does outbound timing commence during a hold?
Abeam the fix or on attaining the outbound heading, whichever comes later
35
Describe a sector 1 entry
Sector 1 - Parallel entry Over fix, fly 15secs (20s if head wind) then turn to parallel track outbound allowing for drift. Time starts over or abeam fix, whichever’s later Continue until time or DME distance Turn in to intercept inbound track
36
Describe sector 2 entry
Sector 2 - Tear drop Over fix, turn onto the holding side to make good a 30deg offset of the inbound track Fly out IAW time specified, up to 1:30mins or DME limit Turn in to intercept inbound track
37
Describe sector 3 entry
Sector 3 - direct entry Turn into the published holding pattern Times start abeam, or on completion of the turn if the abeam post can’t be determined
38
Define the takeoff minima for the B412
Cloud base 500' Vis 800m Vyse = best RoC IAS when OEI = 45kts Vmin IMC = 60kts
39
If you use the IFR takeoff minima to get airborne, you must ensure that the take-off must be conducted
a. IAW published IFR departure or when not avail, that terrain clr is assured b. If OEI in IMC, terrain clr is assured to MDA/LSALT, or If you plan to land back at departure AD, met must be at/abv the app/ldg minima. If a rtn to AD not possible, fuel and performance allow transit to suitable AD
40
State IFR landing minima at AD’s without IAP Day Night
Day - IAW vis app requirements Ngt - VMC from LSALT with 3nm
41
Landing minima for AD’s with NPA’s
By day and night - as specified on plate However - if HIAL installed but U/S, must add 900m to LOC app minima
42
Landing visibility minima for AD’s with PA’s
As published except a. vis 1.5km if HIAL u/s b. min 1.2km vis required unless; 1- Autopilot coupled or FD in use 2- att and hdg failure systems serviceable 3- High intensity rwy edge lighting avail 4 - App lighting beyond 210m is working If landing at controlled AD and lighting failure results in double spaced edge lights - vis required = 1.5 x specified vis
43
State QNH sources and factors
a. Approved source* = -100ft (if shaded) (because charts with shaded backgrounds have minima calculated using forecast QNH.) b. TAF = as published c. Area forecast = +50ft (if shaded) * (ATC,ATIS,AWIS, CASA met) (15mins)
44
Can the B412 use Special Alt minima? When are these not available?
Yes Fitted with dual LOC, G/P and VOR receivers, and dual GNSS. N/A = no METAR/SPECI forecasts or ATC
45
During a PA, the altimeter check indicates an unexplained discrepancy. State actions
If on slope but altimeter reads high, add difference to DA. If on slope but altimeter reads low = good to go Discrepancy bad = Discontinue the ILS, option to continue with LOC approach.
46
SID wind considerations under vectors vs tracks
Vectors = no allowance for wind Tracks = wind allowance to make good
47
Light signals from tower in flight Steady green Steady red Green flashes Red flashes White flashes
Steady green = clr to land Steady red = give way to others, continue circling Green flashes = rtn for landing Red flashes = do not land White flashes = nil sig
48
Light signals from tower on ground Steady green Steady red Green flashes Red flashes White flashes
Steady green = clr to take-off Steady red = stop Green flashes = clr to taxi Red flashes = taxi clr of active landing area White flashes = rtn to base
49
Ground signals to aircraft Dumb bells Cross Double cross
Dumb bells = stick to hard surfaces Cross near wind sock = AD u/s Cross near an area = area marked u/s Double cross = gliding ops in progress
50
Rated coverages of NDB VOR and DME
NDB = ERSA VOR/DME = Below 5000’ = 60nm 5000 - 10000 = 90nm
51
Tracking requirements for visual approach Day Night
Track as cleared until By day, within 5nm By night, IFR within circling area / VFR within 3nm Then join cct as directed
52
Standard circuit direction
Left
53
IFR taxi report
Melb centre RSCU 51 IFR , MEDIVAC, Bell 412 POB 5 Taxiing pt Lincoln for Adelaide Rwy 32
54
When must an IFR flight establish itself on track after departing an AD?
As soon as practicable but within 5nm
55
What weather conditions cause the requirement to provide for an alternate AD
a. Cloud > SCT below alt min b. Vis < alt min c. Vis > alt min but forecast includes a probability of vis < alt min d. Wind > aircraft limits e. TS or Sev turb f. Prob 30 of TS or Sev turb If TAF3, you can ignore any prob 30's within first 3hrs of TAF.
56
Does a 30min buffer have to be applied to a TAF3? What about holding fuel required by reduction in vis or Prob30/40 TS?
Not within first 3hrs for any
57
When is a Alternate aerodrome required when considering Radio Nav aids operating in IFR AWK category? What other option exists by day?
Alt required unless, Dest AD has 1x nav aid with IAP and aircraft equipped to use the nav aid, & pilot qualified By day only, No alt required if a. cloud < SCT below LSALT +500’ and b. Vis not less than 8000m
58
An alternate AD within 1hrs is required when operating under NVFR unless
a. Dest has a nav aid | b. Aircraft fitted with GNSS
59
When is an alternate AD required when considering rwy lighting?
Alternate required unless; Portable + responsible person Electric + Standby power Electric + portable + responsible person PAL + standby power + responsible person
60
An AD with PAL can be nominated as an alternate for non-RPT if aircraft equipped with
a. Dual VHF | b. Single VHF + HF + 30mins holding fuel
61
To avoid alternate lighting planning requirements, holding fuel can be carried for first light plus xx mins
First light plus 10mins
62
CTAF IFR taxi report
Traffic Pt Lincoln RSCU 51 IFR, MEDIVAC, BELL 412 Taxiing Pt Lincoln for adelaide Rwy 15 Pt Lincoln
63
GNSS distance can be used in lieu of DME for IAP if...
1. The substitute DME reference is contained with GPS database 2. The substitute reference is annotated on approach chart
64
What is VMC by night in class G non NVIS op
Blw 10000’ = 5000m vis, 1000’ vert, 1500m lat Blw higher of 3000’ AMSL or 1000’ AGL = 5000m vis, clear of cloud and in sight of gnd/water
65
Dist from threshold in meters to 500ft markings 1000ft 1500ft
150m 300m 500m
66
Altimeter check for IFR and VFR ops?
IFR within 60’ of AD elev using accurate QNH Within 100’ for VFR If error between 60 - 75ft, can fly to the next landing area with accurate QNH to re-check. If fails again = u/s
67
Change of flight rules RT
Downgrading Cancel IFR, request VFR ...., Upgrading Centre RSCU51, request IFR clearance to xxx at xxxx feet
68
When does Navigation Database expire?
1600 UTC on day before expiry. Garmin switches over at 1600UTC Ref - AIP GEN 3.1 - 5 para 4.3
69
What are the navigation tolerances relating to ATC reporting requirements
``` PBN - 1 x RNP value for route being flown LOC based - full scale VOR based - half scale NDB based - +/- 5 deg DME based - +/- 2 nm Visual nav - 1nm off track ```
70
Can you fly with an uncurrent nav database
Yes, but day VFR only Must verify the data using other auth aviation products prior to use Only upto 72hrs after expiry or IAW MEL Part 91 para 14.07 (7)
71
What is the published visibility minima based on?
Visibility measured from MDA or DA to 500ft past approach threshold
72
Integrity monitoring of on board nav systems ANP = actual nav performance RAIM =? FD =? and how many satellites req'd FDE =? and how many satellites req'd
RAIM = Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring a function in GNSS receivers designed to meet TSO 129 / 145 and 196 standards If RAIM detects ANP is estimated to exceed RNP value, alerts crew and ATC must be notified FD = Fault Detection / 5 Sats FDE = Fault Detection and Exclusion / 6 sats
73
What is the required nav performance (RNP) for Enroute? Sid and Stars? And What tracking deviations are permitted?
Enroute = RNP 2 Sid star = RNP 1 (reqs RAIM capable equip) Deviations should be keep to within 1/2 x RNP value, But a Max of 1 x RNP value permitted
74
State the Priveldges of Instrument rating
Authorised to pilot an aircraft under IFR and NVFR
75
Can the B412 be operated under the qualifying multi-engine rotorcraft regs? What Take off minima apply?
It could, but as we don't operate at CAT A weights, limits and procedures, therefore we do not qualify. Take-off minima for other rotor craft regs apply. Cloud ceiling 500ft Visibility 800m
76
What is GNSS obstacle splay?
7nm either side of track
77
What is RNP obstacle splay?
5nm either side of track
78
How do you calculate RoC required for obstacle gradients?
RoC = x.x% x GS 3.3 x 70 = 231fpm 5.7 x 70 = 400fpm* * highest in ADL so use it as default
79
Describe the approach capture regions of an GNSS/ RNP initial approach fixes.
180 deg capture regions for the two initial fixes either side. 70 deg either side of the initial fix for the straight in fix.
80
VFR alternate minima outside of class G
1500ft ceiling 8000m vis
81
What lateral deviations are permitted during RNP1 ops?
App and Departures = RNP1 Upto 1/2 x RNP (0.5 nm) is expected Max 1 x RNP
82
What are the RNP values during an RNP approach?
RNP 1 during from initial and during missed approach RNP 0.3 from final app fix to MDA
83
For VFR flight only, the altimeter must read within how many feet of elev to be serv?
Within 100ft
84
What is an instrument departure contingency procedure?
If you calculate you don't have the OEI performance to conduct a SID, or no SID exists, you can develop a contingency procedure based on your actual performance and chart study to ensure safe terrain and obs clearance.
85
List examples of instrument dep contingency procedures
Use circling area Use published Missed app proc DME arrival in reverse PIC devised plan
86
Visual approach requirements by day or Ngt VFR?
Established within 30nm of AD. - maintain 500ft abv CTA - track as cleared until 5nm by day, and 3nm by Ngt
87
List all the squak codes
1200 VFR class g 2000 IFR class g 3000 IFR/VFR class C/D 7500 unlawful interference 7600 radio failure 7700 emergency
88
VMC criteria NVIS op in class C
Blw 10000' - 5000m vis - Clr of cloud
89
VMC criteria in any airspace class during part 138 NVIS ops
Blw 10000' - 5000vis - Clr of cloud

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