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CASA PNG Air Law (Helicopter) > Part 91 - General Operating and Flight Rules > Flashcards

Part 91 - General Operating and Flight Rules Flashcards

1
Q

Documents to be Carried in the Aircraft

A

Within PNG

  • Current airworthiness certificate
  • Aircraft Flight Manual
  • Technical Log required under 91.619
  • Flight crew member license or copy thereof
  • CA 2173 Weight and Balance
  • CA 2129 Aircraft Radio Station Equipment Approval Level

Outside PNG

  • Certificate of Registration
  • Radio Station License
  • Copy of Air Operator Certificate
  • Type Acceptance Certificate (Compliance with Noise Level and Engine Emissions)

91.110

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2
Q

What is a Daily Flight Record (DVR)

A

Information specific to each flight, to include names of PIC, crew members, registration markings, date, time, purpose of flight, and departure aerodrome

91.110

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3
Q

How long must a Daily Flight Record (DVR) be retained?

A

12 months from date of flight

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4
Q

Who is responsible for ensuring the Daily Flight Record (DVR) is properly recorded?

A

PIC

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5
Q

VFR Minima Class C (at or above 10,000 MSL) outside Control Zone

A

2 km horizontally
1,000 ft vertically

8 km visibility

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6
Q

VFR Minima Class C (at or above 10,000 MSL) within Control Zone

A

2 km horizontally
500 ft vertically

8 km visibility

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7
Q

VFR Minima Class C (below 10,000 MSL) outside Control Zone

A

2 km horizontally
1,000 ft vertically

5 km visibility

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8
Q

VFR Minima Class C (below 10,000 MSL) within Control Zone

A

2 km horizontally
500 ft vertically

5 km viability

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9
Q

VFR Minima Class F (above 3,000 MSL or 1,000 ft AGL, but below 10,000 MSL)

A

2 km horizontally
1,000 ft vertically

5 km visibility

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10
Q

VFR Minima Class F (above 3,000 MSL or 1,000 ft AGL, at or above 10,000 MSL)

A

2 km horizontally
1,000 ft vertically

8 km visibility

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11
Q

VFR Minima Class F (at or below 3,000 MSL or 1,000 ft AGL)

A

Clear of clouds and in sight of surface

5 km visibility

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12
Q

VFR Minima at aerodromes within a control zone

A

Day and Night:

1,500 ft ceiling

5 km visibility

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13
Q

VFR Minima at aerodromes within an aerodrome traffic zone or in uncontrolled airspace

A

Day:

600 ft ceiling
5 km visibility

Night:

1,500 ft ceiling
8 km visibility

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14
Q

Special VFR Weather Minima

A

Less than 600’ ceiling and 1500 m visibility (~1 SM)

A helicopter may operate within controlled airspace under Special VFR, IF

1) it is operated at a speed that will allow adequate opportunity to observe other traffic or obstruction to avoid collisions; and

2) equipped with 2-way radio capable of communicating with ATC; and

3) only during the day; and

4) clear of clouds

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15
Q

Fuel requirements for flight under VFR

A

Enough fuel to fly to first point of intended landing at the planned cruising speed AND fly after that for at least 20 minutes

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16
Q

When is it acceptable for a pilot in command to terminate a flight plan?

A

You may terminate the flight plan by advising an appropriate ATS unit of the completion of the flight:

(i) as soon as practicable after landing; or

(ii) by radio when in the traffic circuit area of the destination aerodrome

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17
Q

When operating at or above FL210 set the altimeter to ___________

A

1013.2 hPa

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18
Q

When operating at or below 20,000 feet, set the altimeter to ___________

A

the appropriate area QNH zone or aerodrome QNH

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19
Q

When ascending above 20,000 feet, set the altimeter to ___________

A

1013.2 hPa

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20
Q

When descending through FL210 set the altimeter to ___________

A

the appropriate area QNH zone or aerodrome QNH

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21
Q

What clearance or instruction is required for “in flight” and “on the ground” for a STEADY GREEN ATC light signal

A

In Flight: Cleared to Land

On the Ground: Cleared to Take-off

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22
Q

What clearance or instruction is required for “in flight” and “on the ground” for a FLASHING GREEN ATC light signal

A

In Flight: Return for Land

On the Ground: Cleared to Taxi

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23
Q

What clearance or instruction is required for “in flight” and “on the ground” for a STEADY RED ATC light signal

A

In Flight: Give way to other aircraft and continue circling

On the Ground: Stop

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24
Q

What clearance or instruction is required for “in flight” and “on the ground” for a FLASHING RED ATC light signal

A

In Flight: Aerodrome unsafe, do not land

On the Ground: Taxi clear of the landing area in use

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25
Q

What clearance or instruction is required for “in flight” and “on the ground” for a FLASHING WHITE ATC light signal

A

In Flight: Land at this aerodrome and proceed to apron

On the Ground: Return to starting point

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26
Q

What clearance or instruction is required for “in flight and “on the ground” for an ALTERNATING RED and GREEN FLASHING ATC light signal

A

In Flight: Danger, be on the alert

On the Ground: Danger, be on the alert

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27
Q

When can the PIC use an abbreviated call sign consisting of the last three letters of the aircraft registration marking

A

After establishing two-way communication with an appropriate ATS unit

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28
Q

The PIC determines that any change of an existing clearance will result in landing with less than the planned final reserve fuel. What must the PIC state when advising ATC of this condition?

A

The PIC must declare MINIMUM FUEL

29
Q

The PIC determines the calculated usable fuel predicated to be available upon landing at the nearest aerodrome is less than the planned final reserve fuel. What must the PIC state when advising ATC of this condition?

A

MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY FUEL

30
Q

What are the requirements for radio communications for aircraft operating under VFR?

A

Pilots in command shall

1) maintain a continuous listening watch on the appropriate frequency; and

2) report the following as soon as possible to an appropriate ATS unit

(i) the time and altitude of passing each designated reporting point, or the reporting points or time specified by ATC

(ii) any other information relating to the safety of flight

31
Q

What reporting points must be communicated by an aircraft under radar control while operating under VFR?

A

Only those reporting points specifically requested by ATC

32
Q

What communication must be relayed as soon as possible to an appropriate ATC unit by an aircraft operating under VFR within controlled airspace

A

1) departure after take-off; and
2) reaching and leaving levels assigned by ATC

33
Q

What actions must a pilot in command take for a radio communications failure while operating under VFR?

A

Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, they must land as soon as practicable at the nearest suitable aerodrome and report arrival by the most expeditious means to the appropriate air traffic service unit

34
Q

If conducting single engine helicopter operations over water, what is the maximum autorotation distance you may operate from shore without an operable flotation device?

A

Must not operate 10 nm beyond autorotational distance from shore unless the helicopter is equipped with an operable flotation device.

136.509

35
Q

Under what conditions may an aircraft be operated without an ELT installed?

A

1) the operation is to ferry the aircraft from the place where the operator takes possession of the aircraft to a place where the ELT is to be installed

2) the aircraft does not carry any passengers

36
Q

Under what conditions may an aircraft be operated with an inoperative ELT?

A

1) the operation is to ferry the aircraft from the place where repairs or replacement cannot be made to a place where repairs or replacement cannot be made

2) the aircraft does not carry any passengers

37
Q

What is the maximum period that an aircraft may be operated with an inoperative ELT?

A

7 days, if the aircraft is equipped with a Survival ELT (ELT(S)) or PLB that is accessible to any person on board the aircraft

38
Q

What are the general maintenance requirements for an operator?

A

1) the aircraft is maintained in an airworthy condition
2) all applicable airworthiness directives are complied with
3) the aircraft is inspected IAW Part 91
4) every defect is rectified before flight (unless permitted to be inoperative)
5) any inoperative instrument or equipment, that is permitted to be inoperative, is repaired, replaced, removed, or inspected at the next inspection
6) maintenance is performed IAW requirements in Part 43
7) aircraft is certified for release to service IAW requirements in Part 43
8) any required carbon monoxide detection system is serviceable

39
Q

What is the timeline for test and inspection of the aircraft radio station?

A

Must be accomplished within the preceding 24 months

40
Q

What is the timeline for test and inspection of the static pressure system, altimeter, and altitude reporting system?

A

Must be accomplished within the preceding 24 months; AND

Following any opening and closing of the static pressure system

41
Q

What is the timeline for test and inspection of the transponder system?

A

Must be accomplished within the preceding 24 months

42
Q

What is the timeline for compass calibration?

A

Must be accomplished within the preceding 24 months

43
Q

What is the timeline for the completion of an aircraft airworthiness review?

A

Must be accomplished within the preceding 365 days

44
Q

What is the timeline for test and inspection of the ELT?

A

Must be accomplished within the preceding 12 months

45
Q

How long must a record of maintenance be retained?

A

Until the maintenance is repeated or superseded by other maintenance of equivalent scope and detail, or a period of at least 5 years after the maintenance is performed, whichever occurs first.

46
Q

What is the timeline for test and inspection of every portable fire extinguisher?

A

Must be accomplished within the preceding 12 months

47
Q

How long must an operator of an aircraft retain the maintenance records?

A

For at least 12 months after the product or component is withdrawn from service

48
Q

How long must a technical log be retained?

A

For at least 12 months after the date of the last entry in the technical log

49
Q

What is the timeline for accomplishing at weight and balance of a powered aircraft with a maximum certified seating capacity of 4 or more seats?

A

Must be accomplished within the preceding 5 years

50
Q

What is the timeline for test and inspection of the First Aid Kit?

A

Must be accomplished within the preceding 12 months to ensure that appropriate quantities of items are included and time expired items are replace; and

After every reported use to ensure that appropriate quantities of items are included

51
Q

Who and what must be accomplished during an operational flight check?

A

WHO: Person must hold a valid pilot license and type rating (if required) for the aircraft; AND must not carry any other person on the aircraft unless that person is required to perform an essential function associated with the flight check

WHAT: A check that the flight characteristics of the aircraft have not appreciably changed as a result of maintenance

WHAT: Record of any defects found during the flight check in the technical log

52
Q

When must supplemental oxygen be used in an unpressurized aircraft for crew and passengers?

A

During any period of more than 30 minutes between 10,000’ and up to and including 14,000’ AMSL OR anytime above 14,000’ AMSL

91.209 (a)(1)

53
Q

When must supplemental oxygen be used in an pressurized aircraft for crew and passengers?

A

During any time the cabin pressure altitude is above 10,000’ ASML

91.209 (b)(1)

54
Q

What are the rules for VFR cruising altitudes?

A

Each pilot-in-command of an aircraft operating within the Port Moresby FIR under VFR in level cruising flight at more than 3,000 feet above the surface shall, unless otherwise authorised by ATC, maintain the following altitude or flight levels when operating at or below 20,000 feet AMSL:

a) on a magnetic track of 000 clockwise to 179, any odd thousand foot altitude AMSL; or

b) on a magnetic track of 180 clockwise to 359, any even thousand foot altitude AMSL.

Each pilot-in-command of an aircraft operating within the Port Moresby FIR under VFR shall not operate at any level above 20,000 feet AMSL unless otherwise authorised by ATC.

91.313 (a)

55
Q

What is required to operate in a restricted or danger area?

A
  • Restricted area entry requires approval
  • Flight within a danger area is permissible without notification, provided the dangerous activity will not affect the safety of flight

91.129 (a)(1) & (b)

56
Q

When is it permissible to carry firearms in an aircraft?

A
  • stowed in a place that is inaccessible
  • firearm is disabled
  • the aircraft is being used solely for the carriage of the person or group of person associated with the firearm
  • the aircraft is carrying livestock and it may be necessary to immobilize the livestock
  • the aircraft is being used for the purpose of shooting or immobilizing animals on the ground; IF
  • unloaded until within the area of intended discharge of the firearm
  • only those persons performing essential function are being carried

91.9

57
Q

When may a firearm be discharged in an aircraft?

A
  • if crew members considers it necessary to immobilze livestock
  • for the purpose of shooting or immobilizing animals on ground; IF
  • discharge does not pose hazard or cause injury or damage
58
Q

What are the operating limitations for the use of a special category aircraft?

A
  • not for carriage of persons, or goods, for hire or reward
  • not to be operated over a congested area
  • must advice all persons carried of significance of a special category aircraft

91.105 (a), (c), (d)

59
Q

When can a pilot in command operate an aircraft below the minimum allowed altitude?

A
  • when there is a bona fide purpose of the flight
  • flight is performed without hazard to persons or property
  • only persons performing an essential function are carried
  • horizontal distances flown from any obstacle, person, vessel, vehicle, or structure is not less than necessary

91.311 (c)

60
Q

What exceptions are allowed for operating at an indicated speed of more than 250 kts below 10,000’ ASML in Class F?

A
  • minimum safe speed of aircraft prescribed in the flight manual is more than 250 Kts
  • the aircraft is being operated at an aviation event (91.703)

91.237 (c)

61
Q

What is the transponder code for an in-flight emergency?

A

7700

91.249 (a)(3), Table 3

62
Q

What is the transponder code for loss of radio communication?

A

7600

91.249 (a)(3), Table 3

63
Q

What is the transponder code for unlawful interference?

A

7500

91.249 (a)(3), Table 3

64
Q

When are position reports required?

A

At least every 30 minutes; or at the times or reporting points requuired by ATS

91.309 (a)

65
Q

When should a pilot in command advise ATS of a change in ETA?

A

When the ETA to the next reporting point will be differ by more than 2 minutes from the ETA previously reported

91.309 (b)

66
Q

No person may act or attempt to act as a crew member of an aircraft within _______ hours of consuming any alcoholic beverage

A

12 hours

91.17 (a)(2)

67
Q

When must a pilot-in-command of an aircraft must require each passenger to occupy a seat or berth and to fasten their safety belt, or restraining belt, or, if equipped, safety harness or safety belt with single diagonal shoulder strap

A
  • during each take-off and landing; and
  • when the aircraft is flying at a height of less than 1000 feet above the surface; and
  • during aerobatic flight
  • at other times when the pilot-in-command considers it necessary for their safety

91.207 (a)

68
Q

What type of radio equipment is required for VFR flight?

A

Level 1 or Level 2 (TSO Certification)

91.513

69
Q

What actions are required to operate in a Mandatory Broadcast Zone (MBZ)?

A

A pilot must:

(1) provide the aircraft call-sign, position and altitude, and the pilot’s intentions for flight within MBZ

(i) at entry to MBZ
(ii) when joining the aerodrome traffic circuit of an aerodrome within MBZ
(iii) before entering a runway for take-off from an aerodrome within MBZ
(iv) at any other time at least at the intervals prescribed for MBZ

(2) maintains a listening watch on the radio frequency assigned to MBZ

(3) activate, if equipped, the aircraft’s landing lights or anti-collision lights

CASA PNG Air Law (Helicopter) (13 decks)

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