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Professional Development > Part 9 > Flashcards

Part 9 Flashcards

1
Q

Celiac trunk artery (derived from, pahtway, empties into)

A

Derived from: abdominal aorta
Travels anteriorally with 3 branches coming off,
Empties into left gastric artery, common hepatic artery, and splenic artery

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2
Q

Splenic artery (derived from, travels to)

A

Derived from: celiac trunk artery
Empties into spleen after giving off branches of dorsal and transverse pancreatic arteries

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3
Q

Hepatic artery (derived from, travels to)

A

Derived from: celiac trunk artery

Empties into liver giving rise to anterior, posteior and superior pancreaticduodenal arteries along the way

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4
Q

Arteries that supply the pancreas (5)

A

Dorsal pancreatic, transverse pancreatic, anterior postioer and superior pancreaticduodenal arteries

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5
Q

Sphincter of Oddi

A

Opening of pancreatic duct into duodenum

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6
Q

Pancreatic delta and F cells

A

Delta - release somatostatin antagonistic to GH and inhibit insulin release
F - Inhibit somatostatin function (indirectly increasing insulin)

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7
Q

FSH and LH function in testes

A

FSH go to sertoli and promote spermatogenesis
LH go to ledyig cells that synthesize testosterone

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8
Q

FSH and LH function in ovaries

A

LH goes to theca cells to promote testosterone secretion (to be converted to estrogen by granulosa cells)
FSH stimulates maturation of granulosa cells

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9
Q

Renal artery derived from, course, empties into

A

Derived from: abdominal aorta
Travel after branching off below superior mesenteric artery
Empties into interlobular arteries

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10
Q

Interlobular arteries, derived from, course, empty into

A

Derived from: renal artery
Travel to form the filtration system of the kidneys, emptying into arcuate arteries

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11
Q

Arcuate arteries derived from and course

A

Derived from: interlobular arteries
Travel in arc shape around the adrenal medulla forming the filtration system of the kidneys

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12
Q

Adventitia, muscularis, and mucosa of ureters characteristics

A

Adventitia - fibrous
Muscularis - peristaltic smooth muscle contraction
Mucosa - transitional epithelium, very susceptible to stretch

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13
Q

ureters, like veins, have….

A

valves

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14
Q

Trigone definition

A

Triangle formed between the ureters and urethra in the bladder

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15
Q

Detrusor muscle definition

A

3 layers of smooth muscle in one of the layers in the urinary bladder

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16
Q

Glomerulus

A

Small capillary bed from afferent arteriole entering kidney from renal artery surrounded by bowman’s capusle, fenestrated capillaries allow for leaking, thick basement podocyte membrane work to keep certain things in the blood and other smaller ions and glucose get filtered into the proximal convoluted tubule

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17
Q

Proximal convoluted tubule

A

Region of nephron that receives filtered blood from glomerulus and ACTIVELY reabsorbs 65% of nutrients, ions, amino acids, glucose, and water back out and back into the blood peritubular capillaries

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18
Q

Peritubular capillaries

A

tiny blood vessels, supplied by the efferent arteriole, that travel alongside nephrons allowing reabsorption and secretion between blood and the inner lumen of the nephron.

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19
Q

SGLT 2 Inhibitor mechanism

A

Because sodium glucose cotransporters account for 90% of glucose reabsorption in kidney, can increase excretion of gluocse via this system thus decreasing blood glucose for diabetic patients (they pee it all out)

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20
Q

3 imiportant SGLT 2 inhibitors to know

A

Dapagliflozin farxiga
Canagliflozin Ivokana
Empagliflozin Jardiance

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21
Q

Descending loop of henle definition

A

Follows proximal convoluted tubule, passively absorbs water due to high osmolarity of medulla (created by ascending limb)

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22
Q

Ascending loop of henle definition

A

Actively pumps Na+, Cl-and K+ out of the loop and into the medulla to make it very salty, impermeable to water

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23
Q

Distal convoluted tubule definition

A

Last region of ion absorption before entering the collecting duct

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24
Q

Renin secretion is controlled by what structure of the kidney? Where is this structure located?

A

Juxtaglomerular apparatus cells in afferent arteriole

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25
Q

Collecting duct

A

Function to receive fluid from distal convoluted tubule, can reabsorb water, empties into renal calyx

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26
Q

Loop diuretics - lasix mech of action

A

Decreases active absorption in ascending loop of henle blocking Na+, cl-m ad K+ co transporters resulting in a loss of potassium and water following

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27
Q

Thiazide diuretics - hydrochlorothiazide mech of action

A

Blocks sodium chloride co transportsers in dital convoluted tubule resulting in increased urination

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28
Q

Aldosterone antagonist - spironolactone mech of action

A

Inhibits aldosterone’s action on receptors in the collecting duct decreasing sodium reabosrption and potassium secretion (increases K+ levels in blood)

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29
Q

3 categories of acute renal failure

A

Prerenal - decrease blood supply to kidneys (think cardiac failure, stenosis)
Intrarenal - within kidneys (think glomerular injury, tubular necrosis)
Postrenal - obstruction of urniary collecting system (think stones)

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30
Q

Skene’s glands definition

A

Paraurethral glands, branched tubular glands adjacent to the distal urethra, homologous to prostate in fluid secretion

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31
Q

Bartholin’s glands definition

A

Vulvovaginal glands that open into a groove between hymen and labia minora

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32
Q

Levator ani muscle function, insertion, innervation

A

Function: Composed of 3 smaller muscles to, alongside the coccygeus muscle, form the pelvic floor and support the pelvic viscera
Insertion: inner surface of lesser pelvis to coccyx and opposite levator ani
Innervation: S3 and S4

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33
Q

Rectouterine pouch/cul de sac/pouch of douglas

A

Piece of deep peritoenum that is bound anteriorally by the fornix of the vagina and posteriorally by the rectum

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34
Q

Transition zone of pap smear

A

Where cells change from simple sqmaous to simple columnar epithelium, often a site for early detection of cervical cancer

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35
Q

3 parts of fallopian tubes

A

1) Infundibulum - reception region of ovary with fibriae attached, most distal
2) ampulla - Long, tortuous portion where fertilization occurs and ectopic implantation
3) isthmus - short segment that enters the uterine part

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36
Q

Suspensory ligament of ovary

A

Attaches tubal end of ovary to lateral wall of pelvis, contains ovarian vessels and nerves

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37
Q

Ligament of the ovary

A

Connects the inferior end of the ovary to the lateral angle of the uterus

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38
Q

Broad ligament of the uterus

A

Sheet like fold of peritoneum covering the uterus like a sheet to keep structures in place

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39
Q

Round ligament of the uterus

A

Travels from uterine horn thru the deep inguinal ring to the labia majora and mons pubis

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40
Q

In cancer of the vulva, lymph drainage may occur to either side of the pelvis. Because of this, what is important?

A

Bilateral node dissection

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41
Q

Uterine artery derived from, course, empties into

A

Derived from: internal iliac artery
Travels deep and medial, giving rise to vaginal artery branch before changing names
Empties into spiral arteries

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42
Q

Spiral arteries derived from and course

A

Derived from: uterine artery
Travels alongside the wall of the uterus, constricting hormonally during menstruation to allow for death of endometrial lining

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43
Q

Ovarian artery derived from and course

A

Derived from: abdominal aorta
Travels from division just below renal arteries into suspensory ligament to supply the ovary

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44
Q

How does the liver allow for living donor transplants?

A

Because it is divided into 8 functionally independent segments each with own vascular in and outflow

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45
Q

Falciform ligament definition

A

Infolding of mesentary that separtes right and left lobes of livers suspending it from the diaphragm and anterior abdominal wall

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46
Q

Round ligament of the liver

A

Fibrous remains of fetal umbilical vein, travels inferiorally from in between the right and left lobes to the umbilicus

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47
Q

Bare area of the liver

A

Superior diaphragmatic triangular portion of the liver containing portacaval anastamoses where infection can spread to the thoracic cavity

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48
Q

Hepatic portal vein derived from, course, emptie sinto

A

Derived from: merging of splenic and superior mesenteric veins
Travels to the liver receiving branches from gastric and cystic veins before bifurcating and entering
Empties into: hepatic veins

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49
Q

Hepatic veins derived from, course, empties into

A

Derived from: hepatic portal vein
Travels throughout the liver to filter and remove toxins
Empties into the inferior vena cava

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50
Q

Splenic vein derived from, cpurse, drains into

A

Derived from: the spleen
Travels toward the liver, receiving blood supply from inferior mesenteric vein
Drains into: hepatic portal vein

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51
Q

Gastric vein derived from, course, empties into

A

Derived from: stomach
Travels toward the liver
Empties into the hepatic portal vein shortly before it bifurcates

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52
Q

Cystic vein deriedfrom, course, empties into

A

Derived from: the gall bladder
Travels toward the liver
Empties into the heppatic portal vein shortly after it bifurcates

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53
Q

Superior mesenteric vein derived from, course, empties into

A

Derived from: The small intestine
Travels toward the liver
Empties into the hepatic portal vein after merging with the splenic vein

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54
Q

Inferior mesenteric vein derived from, course, empties into

A

Derived from: Large intestine
Travels toward the liver
Empties into the splenic vein superiorally

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55
Q

Hepatic portal vein carries ___ of hepatic blood supply, the hepatic artery carries ___

A

75%, 25%

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56
Q

Hepatic artery derived from, course, empties into

A

Derived from: celiac trunk artery
Travels giving off the gastroduodenal artery before supplying the liver

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57
Q

Biliary canuliculi definition

A

Projections off hepatocytes that collect bile excreted by hepatocytes to eventually enter the common hepatic duct

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58
Q

Common hepatic duct

A

Product of bile canaliculi from hepatocytes within the liver converging, exits the inferior base of the liver before merging with the common cystic duct to form the common bile duct

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59
Q

Common cystic duct

A

Derived from the gall bladder, connects to the common hepatic duct to form the common bile duct

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60
Q

Gall bladder

A

Accessory organ used to store and concentrate bile, contracts via smooth muscle layer in response to lipid presence in intestine to promote emulsification, if removed can see difficutly digesting fatty meals

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61
Q

Common bile duct

A

Formed from the combination of the common cystic duct and common hepatic duct, receives branch from pancreatic duct before exiting at the spincter of Oddi in the duodenum

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62
Q

CCK mechanism of action

A
  • Stimulated for release by chyme entering duodenum
  • enters blood stream
  • Induces secretion of pancreatic enzymes
  • Induces gallbladder contracttion
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63
Q

Central vein

A

Drainage structure that eventually combines into the vena cava after receiving blood flow from hepatic sinusoids in a lobule as they are modified by hepatocytes

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64
Q

Pathway of blood flow generally to the liver

A
  • hepatic portal vein and hepatic artery
  • hepatic sinusoids
  • central veins
  • hepatic veins
  • inferior vena cava
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65
Q

Kupffer cells and their 4 key functions

A

Liver macrophages

1) RBC destruction
2) Antibody production aid
3) phagocytosis
4) cause early ETOH induced liver injury

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66
Q

Excess not reasorbed conjugated bilirubin is converted by bacteria into…

A

…urobilinogen (if reabsorbed gives urine yellow color, most exits into colon giving feces brown color)

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67
Q

3 types of jaundice

A

Prehepatic - excessive hemolysis of RBC
Intrahepatic - affect ability of liver to remove or conjugate bilirubin
Posthepatic - obstruction between liver and intestine

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68
Q

Portal hypertension definition

A

Occurs when portal blood cannot flow thru liver increasing pressure in portal vasculature

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69
Q

Hepatorenal syndrome definition

A

Tendency for cirrhosis of the liver to cause compromising of circulation to abdominal vessels, sometimes disrupting renal blood supply leading to renal failure

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70
Q

4 general layers of all the GI tract and characteristics of them

A

1) Mucosa (innermost layer stratified squamous epithelium containing mucosal glands, lamina propria, muscularis mucosae)
2) submucosa (connective tissue housing vascular, lymphatic, and nerve supply)
3) Muscularis externa (inner circular and outer longitudinal layer of smooth muscle with peristaltic like activity)
4) serosa/adventitia (connective tissue, serosa reduces friction as a viceral peritoneum, adventitia anchors organ

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71
Q

Myenteric plexus

A

Nervous system located in the muscularis externa between layers that receives innervation from autonomic nerve fibers (such as vagus?) to activate contractile/peristaltic activity

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72
Q

Mesentary definition

A

Double layered peritoneum that attaches the intestine to the posterior abdominal wall and hold them in place like an apron, as well as provides a path for blood vessels and lymphatics and nerves

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73
Q

Retroperitoneal organs and what they have around them

A

Pancreas, portions of large itnestine, kidneys, do not have mesentary and contain peritoneum on anterior side only (high risk of trauma)

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74
Q

Histology of esophagus

A

Nonkeratnizied stratified squamous epi

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75
Q

Pyloric sphincter definition

A

A physiological sphincter between the exit of the stomach and the entrance into the duodenum

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76
Q

Parietal cells of stomach function

A

Secrete HCl and intrinsic factor into stomach, intrinsic factor rleaes not impacted by PPI’s

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77
Q

Chief cells of stomach function

A

Secrete pepsinogen into stomach

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78
Q

Intrinsic factor

A

Required for B12 absorption in small intestine, secreted by parietal cells into stomach, without it results in macrocytic anemia

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79
Q

Histamine function in stomach

A

Facilitate acid production by parietal cells

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80
Q

3 phases of gastric secretion

A

1) Cephalic - brain receives stimulation to get sttomach ready for food reception
2) gastric - HCl, pepsin, muscularis contractions
3) Intestinal - duodenal enzymes slow emptying of stomach to prevent too much food at once as well as icnrease pH

81
Q

Arteries of the esophagus (3)

A

1) Inferior thyroid artery provides upper esophageal spincter
2) thoracic aorta and bronchial arteries supply thoracic esophagus
3) left gastric artery and left splenic artery supply lower esophageal spincter

82
Q

Veins of the esophagus (3)

A

1) upper 1/3 by inferior thyroid vein
2) middle 1/3 by azygous vein
3) gastric veins into portal system (THIS IS KEY, conection between portal and systemic venous system, can see varices)

83
Q

Ligament of Treitz definition

A

Small hard piece of intestine that wraps around the circumference dividing duodenum from jejunum

84
Q

Gastrin Inhibitory peptide (source and function)

A

Released by the duodenum to decrease stomach motility to slow emptying of the stomach

85
Q

Superior mesenteric artery derived from and course

A

Derived from: abdominal aorta
Travels after branching just inferior to celiac trunk to supply most of small intestine, lower part of duodenum, and cecum

86
Q

Crypts of Lieberkuhn

A

Invaginations of the epithelial mucosa into the lamina propria where they form crypts housing stem cells and immune cells

87
Q

Brunner’s glands definition

A

Submucosal glands found in the duodenum that produce bicarb and inhibit chief and parietal cells, protecting duodenum from acidic content

88
Q

Another name for the myenteric plexus is the….

A

….Auerbach plexus

89
Q

Ileocecal valve definition

A

Transition point from small to large intestine,

90
Q

Large intestine muscularis mucosa layers

A

3 bands going across called tenia coli

91
Q

Epiploics

A

Small pouches of peritoneum filled with fat and siutated along the colon, similar to appendix in structure and serrve unknown function in the body

92
Q

Inferior mesenteric artery derived from and course

A

Derived from: abdominal aorta
Travels from just below the renal arteries anterior to supply the colon and rectum

93
Q

Cremaster muscle

A

Skeletal muscle that elevates the testes or lowers them to optimal temperature

94
Q

Leydig cells

A

Function to respond to LH and produce androgens for the male within the interstitial tissue of the seminiferous tubules

95
Q

Testicular artery

A

Derived from: abdominal aorta

Travels after exiting just below the renal arteries inferiorally to supply the testes

96
Q

Acrosome definition

A

Structure on head of sperm that allows lysis of wall of egg cell allowing sperm to enter

97
Q

Sertoli cells function

A

Functionally respond to FSH and act as support cells for sperm development covering the walls of the seminiferous tubules

98
Q

Blood testis barrier

A

Tight junctions formed by sertoli cells that protect sperm from the external environment

99
Q

Pathway of sperm

A
  • Seminiferous tubules
  • head of epididymis
  • tail of epididymis
  • vas deferens
  • seminal vesicle
  • ejaculatory duct
  • prostatic urethra
  • membranous urethra
  • penile urethra
100
Q

Pampiniform plexus derived from, course, empties into

A

Derived from: testes
Travels superiorally out of the testicles creating countercurrent exchange to keep the testes cool
Empties into: testiculuar vein

101
Q

Seminal vesicle definition

A

Located posterior to bladder and superior to prostate, tubular gland that produces the majority of semen and combines with the vas deferens to form the ejaculatory ducts

102
Q

Ejaculatory duct definition

A

Formed from the combination of the seminal vesicle and the vas deferens, empty into the prostatic urethra where they combine into one structure

103
Q

Prostate gland definition

A

Structure that encircles the prostatic urethra, has ejaculatory ducts empty into it, produces a thin, milky alkaline fluid to support sperm vitality as it travels thru the urethra and out of the penis

104
Q

Corpus cavernosa

A

The 2 bodies of erectile tissue in the male, located on the dorsum of the penis and become engorged with blood when erection occurs

105
Q

Corpus spongiosum

A

A body of non-erectile tissue housing the urethra located on the ventral side of the penis

106
Q

Peripheral nervous system definition

A

Portions of the nervous system not covered by the udra mater, including cranial nerves (except CNII) and spinal nerves

107
Q

Somatic nervous system definition

A

Voluntary portion of PNS that interacts with skeletal muscles (efferent) and sense organs (afferent)

108
Q

Autonomic nervous system definition

A

Involuntary portion of PNS that interacts with smooth/cardiac muscle, organs, and glands, and can sometimes be overridden, includes sympathetic, enteric, and parasympathetic fibers

109
Q

Frontal lobe function

A

Most anterior protruding portion of brain, allows for higher mental functioning, planning and decision making, learning new info

110
Q

Parietal lobe function

A

Most superior protruding portion of the brain that receives sensory input such as touch and pain and initiates motor movement and sense of self

111
Q

Temporal lobe function

A

Most lateral portion of brain that helps with memory, speech, and hearing

112
Q

Occipital lobe function

A

Posterior most portion of the brain that helps with vision

113
Q

Cerebellum definition

A

Inferio-posterior lobe of the brain that functions to assist with coordinaiton and balance

114
Q

Corpus callosum

A

Bridge between left and right hemispheres of the cerebrum

115
Q

How many pairs of spinal nerves are there? What is the breakdown of them?What other nerves exit out of the brain or brainstem?

A

31 (8 cervical 12 thoracic 5 lumbar 5 sacral 1 coccygeal), cranial nerves except for II

116
Q

C1-7 nerve exits ___ the c1-7 corresponding vertebra

A

above

117
Q

C8 nerve exits ____ the c7 vertebra

A

below

118
Q

T1 nerve exits ___ the T1 vertebra

A

below

119
Q

of each type of vertebrae?

A 
7 cervical
12 thoracic
5 lumbar
5 sacra
1 coccygeal
120
Q

Spinal/dorsal root ganglion

A

Groups of cell bodies that are entering the spinal cord at the corresponding level located along the spinal column, as well as sensory axons traveling in to the spinal cord

121
Q

Intervertebral disk and its components

A

Located between each vertebrae acting as shock absorption and support for the twisting of the spine, houses annulus fibrois and nucleus pulposis (can project outward posterolaterally into spinal column causing compression herniated disk)

122
Q

Grey matter of spinal cord

A

The middle butterfly of the spinal cord, contains efferent neuron cell bodies and vasculature

123
Q

White matter of the spinal cord

A

The outer area of the spinal cord, white color is from myelinated axons

124
Q

Efferent nerve roots tend to come off ____ side of the spinal cord, and provide ___ function

A

ventral or anteriorally, motor

125
Q

Afferent nerve roots tend to come off ____ side of the spinal cord, and provide ___ function

A

Dorsal or posteriorally, sensory

126
Q

Even with upper brain death, the lower brain can still facilitate ___. This brings up the ethics question of when we consider brain death, for example when do we define it in the US?

A

Emotion, we define it as whole brain death

127
Q

Nerve Plexuses of the body

A

Cervical, brachial, lumbar, sacral, areas where nerves combine and rearrange to form new nerves

128
Q

Afferent neuron

A

Conducts signal toward CNS, sensory to communicate stimuli

129
Q

Efferent neuron

A

Conducts signal away from CNS, effector to organs of the body

130
Q

3 caegories of effectors in the body from an efferent neuron

A

1) skeleetal muscle
2) smooth msucle
3) secretion of exocrine and endocrine glands

131
Q

Soma

A

Cell body of a neuron, contains nucleus and processes incoming signals from dendrites and outgoing signals to axons at the same time

132
Q

Schwann cells

A

Surround the axons of neurons in the PNS***(CNS is oligodendrocytes) allowing for insulation of conduction of a signal

133
Q

Interneurons definition

A

Neurons that lie entirely within the CNS and have an integrative function by processing information and directing appropriate location of that information, often lie between sensory and motor pathways of the reflex arc within the spinal cord

134
Q

3 different kidns of white matter tracks

A

1) projection - higher and lower levels
2) commissural - between right and left cerebrum
3) association - connect different regions within the same hemisphere of the brain

135
Q

4 main classes of neurotransmitters and examples of each

A

1) amines (acetylcholine)
2) monoamines (catecholamines such as epi/norepi, dopamine, seratonin)
3) amino acids (gaba, glycine, glutamate)
4) neuropeptides (endorphin, oxytocin)

136
Q

Acetylcholine 2 diseases associated with

A

myasthenia gravis
alzheimers

137
Q

disease associated with glutamate

A

ALS

138
Q

Central sulcus

A

Invagination of superor brain that divides the frontal and parietal lobe, connects precentral an dpostcentral gyri

139
Q

Precentral gyrus

A

Located just anterior to the central sulcus, contains motor function

140
Q

Postcentral gyrus

A

Located just posterior to the central sulcus, contains sensory function

141
Q

Spinothalmic tract and what 3 senses does it deal wit and where does it cross over

A

Portion of the afferent spinal tract that deals with pain, temp, and crude touch, crosses over at the level it enters the spine and travels up the contralateral side to that corresponding hemisphere of the brain

142
Q

Posterior column tract and what 3 senses does it detect and where does it cross over

A

Portion of the afferent spinal tract that deals with position and fine touch and vibration, enters the spine and travels up the ipsalateral side crossing over at the medulla to the contralateral side that coresponding hemisphere of the brain

143
Q

Motor tract and where does it cross over

A

Efferent spinal tract that initiates effector function, leaves from the brain and crosses to the ipsalateral side at the medulla to the contralateral side of the corresponding spinal cord before traveing inferiorally to its exit

144
Q

Craniosynostosis definition

A

growth condition where the suture lines of the cranium shut early and don’t allow for continued growth of skull, results in misshapen head where they meet or no closure at all resulting in brain not being able to grow into space

145
Q

Pterion definition

A

Region where parietal, temporal, frontal, and sphenoid bone all come together that is particularly structural weak when it comes to injury, branch of middle meningeal artery passes thru here

146
Q

Rostral

A

Anterior in the brain/superior in the spinal cord

147
Q

Caudal

A

Posterior in the brain/inferior in the spinal cord

148
Q

Longitudial fissures

A

Deep groove that divides the right and left hemispheres of the cerebrum

149
Q

Lateral sulcus

A

divides temporal lobe from parietal and frontal lobe

150
Q

Olfactory bulb

A

The most inferior portion of the frontal lobe, neuronal bundle with specialized axons that extend thru the cribiform plate for olfaction, cranial nerve I

151
Q

Wernicke’s area

A

Portion of the posterior temporal lobe of dominant hemisphere (95% left side) that allows for interpretation of written and spoken words

152
Q

Broca’s area

A

Portion of anterior temporal lobe of dominant hemisphere (95% left side) that allows for articulatoin of speech alongside part of frontal lobe located right next to it

153
Q

Damage to left temporal lobe might cause ___ while right causes ____

A

Difficulty remembring what people said, ability to recall music or pictures

154
Q

Wernicke’s aphasia

A

Injury to the temporal lobe that results in inability to comprehend/interpret spoken or written word, while visual and auditory pathways remain unaffected, manifests as fluent speech but distorted and illogical

155
Q

Broca’s aphasia

A

Injury to the temporal lobe that results in the inability to articulate spoken words, manifests as choppy speech but logical, expressive aphasia

156
Q

Brain stem components (2)

A

midbrain
hindbrain (pons and mdulla)

157
Q

Pons location and function

A

Located directly posterior to hanging pituitary, relays messages to brain, contains pneumotaxic center to regulate respiration

158
Q

Medulla oblongata location and fuction

A

Located inferiorally to the pons, controls autonomic functions such as repsiratoin, blood pressure, heart rate, and vomiting reflex

159
Q

Hypothalamus location and function

A

Located superior to the pituitary and forms the floor of the 3rd ventricle of the brain, regulates functions such as body temp, emotions, hunger, thirst, circadian rhythms, and the pituitary gland

160
Q

Diencephalon 2 components

A

Composed of the thalamus and hypothalamus

161
Q

Limbic system

A

Group of structures including the amygdala, hippocampus projecting laterally underlying the cerebrum

162
Q

Hippocampus

A

Portion of limbic system located in the underlying portion of the temporal lobe, funtions include learning and memory

163
Q

Amygdala

A

Portion of limbic system located in the underlying portion of the temporal and frontal lobe, function includes processing emotional reactions and memory

164
Q

2 layers of dura mater

A

1) periosteal - directly adherant to skull
2) meningeal - deep to the periosteal layer and not direclty adherant to the skull, forms falx cerebri and tentorium cerebelli

165
Q

Falx cerebri definition

A

Areas where the dura mater folds inwards along the longitudinal fissure of the cerebrum

166
Q

Tentorium cerebelli definition

A

Area where the dura mater folds inwards to separate occipital lobe and cerebellum

167
Q

Arachnoid mater definition

A

Nonvascular connective tissue that adjoins but does not adhere to dura mater (allowing for subdural hematoma) has subarachnoid space where CSF flows thru and small trabechulae adhering it to the pia mater

168
Q

Pia mater

A

Innermost layer of meninges adherant to the surface of brain and spinal cord

169
Q

CSF is produced by the ___

A

Choroid plexus which sits within the ventricles of the brain

170
Q

4 ventricles of the brain

A

Left lateral, right lateral, 3rd, and 4th

171
Q

Arachnoid villi

A

Projections of the aracnoid matter into the subarachnoid space to reabsorb CSF into the saggital sinus vein

172
Q

Sympathetic pregangionic fibers tend to be__ while postganglionic fibers are ___. The opposite is true for parasympathetic fibers

A

Short, long

173
Q

Sympathetic chain ganglia

A

Also known as paravertebral ganglia, run alongside the spinal column ventrally and laterally on both sides

174
Q

2 subtypes of cholinergic receptors and where are they found (SNS vs PNS)

A

1) Nicotinic - found on postganglionic cells of both SNS and PNS
2) Muscarinic - found only in PNS

175
Q

4 subtypes of adrenergic receptors, where are they predominantly found

A

1) a1 - found in heart predominantly
2) a2 - smooth muscle
3) B1 - predominantly heart and blood vessels
4) B2 - predominantly heart and blood vessels

176
Q

a1 receptors cause…

A

Smooth muscle contraction and vasoconstriction

177
Q

a2 receptors cause…

A

Inhibit NE release, insulin secretion, promotes blood clotting

178
Q

B1 receptors cause…

A

Increase HR and strength of contraction

179
Q

B2 receptors cause…

A

Dilation of blood vessels and bronchioles

180
Q

Baroreceptor reflex arc example

A
  • carotid or aortic baroreceptors
  • axons in glossopharyngeal or vagus nerve travel to brain stem
  • Efferent sympathetic signal goes to target organ increase vasomotor tone
181
Q

Anterior spinal artery derived from, course

A

Derived from: vertebral arteries
Travel from near the termination of vertebral arteries together and then down the foramen magnum to travel inferiorally along the front of the spinal cord to the cauda equina

182
Q

Posterior spinal arteries derived from, course

A

Derived from: vertebral arteries
Travel within the grey matter of the spinal cord alongside eachother down the foramen magnum inferiorally to the termination of the psinal cord

183
Q

Conus medullaris

A

Termination of the spinal cord at the 2nd lumbar vertebra

184
Q

Filum terminale

A

Strand of fibrous tissue that continues from the conus medullaris inferiorally to attach the spinal cord and meninges to the coccyx

185
Q

Cauda equina

A

Nerve roots that extend byond the conus medullaris termination of the spinal cord

186
Q

Spinal tap needs to be done at the L3 L4 vertebra space because…

A

….subarachnoid space still coninues here but it is below the conus medullaris

187
Q

Denticulate ligaments

A

Extensions from pia to dura mater to allow attachment of all 3 layers of meninges

188
Q

General dermatome distribution

A

C - arms and neck
T - chest and abdomen
L lower back anteror legs
S - butt and posterior legs

189
Q

spino__ tract vs spinal___ tract difference

A

spino is sensory spinal is motor

190
Q

3 ascending tracts of the spinal cord

A

Dorsal column, spinothalmic (lateral and ventral), spinocerebellar

191
Q

3 common things that cause deficiency in dorsal column pathway

A

diabetes
alcoholism
syphilis

192
Q

Spinocerebellar tract ascending pathway detects….it crosses over in the…. therefore lesion results in…

A

unconscious proprioception…does not cross….remains ipsaplateral defect

193
Q

Spinocerebellar tract ascending pathway detects….it crosses over in the…. therefore lesion results in…

A

unconscious proprioception…does not cross….remains ipsaplateral defect

194
Q

Upper motor neuron and example of defect

A

Located in the CNS, tumor in brain or spinal cord

195
Q

Lower motor neuron and example of defect…

A

Located in PNS, trauma to the body

196
Q

Corticospinal motor tract causes….it crosses over in the… therefore lesion results in…

A

Allows precise coordinated limb movements and muscle tone….medulla immediately….therefore ipsalateral affect

197
Q

LMN paralysis is ____ while UMN is ____

A

flaccid, spastic

198
Q

Brown sequard syndrome

A

An incomplete spinal cord lesion usually due to penetrating injuries or blunt trauma resulting in ipsalateral loss of proprioception, vibration, position sense and tactile discrimination, but contralateral loss of pain and temp sensation below level of lesion

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