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Professional Development > Part 1 > Flashcards

Part 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Medicine

A

The art and science of diagnosis, treatment, and prevention of disease, a drug or remedy for illness

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2
Q

Illness

A

An abnormal process in which aspects of social, physical, emotional, or intellectual condition or function of a person are diminished or impaired, with general term for impairment being disease, and specific illness being considered disease or disorders

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3
Q

3 major bacterial classifications based on shape

A

Cocci, bacili (rod), spirilla

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4
Q

What type of infection is poliomyleitis?

A

Viral

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5
Q

What type of infection is meningitis?

A

Bacterial or viral

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6
Q

What type of infection is pneumonia?

A

Viral or bacterial

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7
Q

What type of infection is typhoid fever?

A

Bacterial

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8
Q

What type of infection is malaria?

A

Protozoa

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9
Q

What type of infection is trichomoniasis?

A

Protozoa

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10
Q

2 leading causes of death in US

A

1) heart disease
2) cancer

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11
Q

Name of machine that produces an electrocardiogram

A

Electrocardiograph

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12
Q

Radiopaque

A

Substances that do not permit the passage of x rays

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13
Q

Radiolucent

A

Substances that readily permit passage of x rays

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14
Q

a.c. abbreviation

A

before meals

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15
Q

Centigrade is equivalent to

A

Celsius

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16
Q

What angle is sub-q injections given at?

A

45 degrees (beneath skin but above muscle)

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17
Q

Typical mL range of sub-q injections

A

0.5-2mL

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18
Q

Angle of an IM injection administration

A

90 degrees

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19
Q

Typical mL range of IM injections

A

3-5 mL

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20
Q

Intradermal injection angle of administration

A

10 degrees

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21
Q

Brady or tachyphasia

A

Slow or fast manner of speech

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22
Q

Frontal/coronal plane

A

Divides body into front (ventral) and back (dorsal) portions

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23
Q

Sagittal Plane

A

Divides the body into left and right sides with a vertical line

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24
Q

Transverse plane

A

Divides body into upper and lower portions with a horizontal line

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25
Q

Caudal

A

Toward tail direction

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26
Q

Cephalad

A

Toward head direction

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27
Q

Lateral recumbent position

A

Laying down on side

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28
Q

Most BP meds should be continued up to day of surgery except for these 2 classes which should be held 24 hours before

A

ACE and ARBs

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29
Q

Ballottement test (patella tap test)

A

Test for knee effusion, with pt laying supine, examiner uses one hand to push downward on the top of the knee then with the other hand taps the knee, if it bounces back after tapping this indicates a positive for significant joint effusion

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30
Q

prolia (denosumab) drug type, administration, use

A

Monoclonal antibody administered once via 60mg subQ injection into upper arm, thigh, or stomach area every 6 months for up to 5 or so years to treat osteoporosis, typically a 2nd line option

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31
Q

Evenity indication, administration, contraindications

A

new bone density medication for initial therapy in patients with very high fracture risk such as T score <-3, or <-2.5 with fragility fracture history, given as a 210mg once monthly subQ injection that is then often switched to prolia. Contraindicated in MI and stroke pts

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32
Q

if a patient has osteopenia managed with conservative measures and a subsequent fragility fracture then now they need….

A

Treatment with bone density medication

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33
Q

HSV laryngitis treatment

A

vocal cord surgery

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34
Q

Levothyroxine brand names (2)

A

levoxyl or synthroid

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35
Q

Chiari malformation definition and number of types and primary diagnosis

A

Group of disorders characterized by anatomic abnormalities of cerebellum, brainstem, craniocervical junction, with displacement of the cerebellum into the spinal canal. 4 types. Diagnosed via neuroimaging typically MRI or CT of the brain

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36
Q

Budd chiari syndrome definition and type 1 vs type 2

A

Hepatic venous outflow obstruction, type 1 is obstruction 2/2 thrombosis or phlebitis vs type 2 is compression 2/2 malignancy often

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37
Q

fuch’s dystrophy definition

A

Fluid build up in the clear layer (cornea) on the front of the eye typically affects both, causing your cornea to swell and thicken, often manifesting as glare, blurred or cloudy vision, and eye discomfort typically starting in 30’s-50’s, if advanced enough and not responsive to conservative measures requires corneal transplant surgery

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38
Q

solifenacin drug class, use, dosing

A

anticholinergic agent used for overactive bladder treatment, dosed at 5mg once daily and if tolerated up to 10 mg once daily

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39
Q

Xyzal generic name, drug class and function

A

Levocetirizine, 2nd gen H1 antihistamine, allergy treatment and prevention

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40
Q

tums (calcium carbonate) dosing

A

500-1250 calcium carbonate per tablet or per 5-10mL, typically 1-4 tablets or 5-10 mL for PRN episodes of GERD < or =1 episode per week, max dose 8 g/day

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41
Q

indomethacin dosing schedule for gout

A

50 mg TID within 24/48 hrs of onset, may reduce as symptoms improve and discontinue 2-3 days after resolution of flare, typical course is 5-7 days

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42
Q

colchicine interacts with some drugs in this class

A

antiarrhythmics

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43
Q

chantix dosing schedule

A

Days 1-3 0.5 mg once daily. Days 4-7 0.5 mg twice daily. Day 8 onward 1 mg twice daily

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44
Q

Opzelura (ruxolitinib) definition

A

Nonsteroidal cream for treatment of vitiligo and eczema

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45
Q

qsymia generic name

A

phentermine and topiramate

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46
Q

cosentyx (secukinumab) definition

A

Biologic interleukin monoclonal antibody for treatment of psoriasis and ank spondy

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47
Q

Brilinta (Ticagrilor) drug class

A

blood thinner antiplatelet P2Y12 antagonist

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48
Q

curb-65 score

A

Assessment of pneumonia severity to help determine need for inpatient vs outpatient treatment, Confusion
bUn >19mg/dL
Respiratory rate >30/min
BP <90 systolic and/or <60 diastolic
age >65
All negative outpatient, 1 point likely outpatient 2 points consider outpatient with close follow up vs inpatient, etc.

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49
Q

zaleplon brand name, drug class, indication and dosing

A

sonata, nonbenzodiazepine benzo receptor agonist, insomnia, 5-10 mg before bed up to 20 mg max

50
Q

veozah (fezolinetant) drug class, function, and monitoring parameter

A

neurokinin 3 receptor antagonist, once daily med to treat vasomotor symptoms of menopause, LFT’s need monitoring cannot be >2 upper limit of normal

51
Q

prampipexole drug class and use

A

Dopamine agonist, used for parkinson and alternative agent for RLS

52
Q

jardiance generic name, drug class, and conditions it treats (3)

A

Empagliflozin, SGLT 2 inhibitor, type 2 DM, heart failure, and CKD

53
Q

Spravato generic name and drug class and function

A

esketamine, NDMA receptor antagonist, used intranasally applied in a psych office for treatment resistant depression, used alongside a regular antidepressant

54
Q

Ankle catching and locking sensation should often make you consider imaging looking for what?

A

An osteochondral lesion

55
Q

demerol generic name, drug class

A

Meperidine, opioid

56
Q

januvia generic name, drug class, function

A

Sitagliptin, DPP-4 inhibitor, type 2 diabetes treatment not used with GLP-1’s in addition to metformin or as monotherapy

57
Q

test of cure for chlamydia

A

not warranted all the time, 4 weeks at least after and normal retest is 3 months

58
Q

sulindac drug class

A

NSAID

59
Q

HEART Score (MACE)

A

Used in patient’s with symptoms suggestive of ACS, includes
History suspicious or not
EKG
Age
Risk factors (other vascular disease, personal or family hx, HTN, DM, HLD, smoker, obesity)
Troponin (initial)

60
Q

myrbetriq generic name, drug class and function and dosing and adverse effect

A

Mirabegron, B3 agonist, used for OAB 25 mg initially can titrate up to 50 mg after 4-8 weeks, urinary retention (otherwise much better tolerated)

61
Q

detrol generic name, drug class, function, dosing, adverse effects

A

Tolterodine, anticholinergic agent, treatment of overactive bladder, 2 mg twice daily immediate release, dry mouth, headaches, dizziness,

62
Q

First line osteoporosis treatment drug class

A

Bisphosphonates (alendronate, ibandronate, risedronate)

63
Q

A chiari II malformation is often found prenatally or at birth because….?

A

It is almost always associated with a myelomeningocele and will cause symptoms such as dysphagia, arm weakness, stridor, or aspiration.

64
Q

Type 1 Chiari malformation

A

Defined due to descent of the cerebellar tonsils measured below the level of foramen magnum. Can be asymptomatic and managed conservatively with monitoring if without myelomengingocele accompanying. If does have myelomeningocele debated on treatment if needed.

65
Q

Do Chiari malformations commonly cause mental or cognitive delay?

A

No

66
Q

Doxepin drug class and function and dosing

A

tricyclic antidepressant, most often used for insomnia 3 to 6 mg 30 min before bed

67
Q

quantiferon gold definition

A

An IGRA used for TB screening particularly useful in patients with hx of BCG vaccine

68
Q

farxiga generic name, drug class, and functions (3)

A

Dapagliflozin, SGLT 2 inhibitor, type 2 DM, CKD, and HF

69
Q

Coricidin ingredients (2 with an alternative) and function

A

Either dextromethorphan or acetaminophen and chlorpheniramine which is a 1st gen antihistamine, used for either cough or cold without having impact on BP like sudafed (pseudoephedrine)

70
Q

soma generic name and function

A

Carisoprodol, skeletal muscle relaxant

71
Q

Indomethacin 2 contraindications

A

Heart disease (specifically s/p CABG) and hx of peptic ulcer disease

72
Q

Janumet is a combo med of these two meds (and what classes are these 2 meds)

A

Sitagliptin (DPP-4 inhibitor) and metformin (biguanide)

73
Q

List some of the common muscle relaxers

A

cyclobenzaprine, methocarbamol, baclofen, metaxalone, carisoprodol, and tizanidine

74
Q

Chlorpheniramine drug class and function

A

first gen H1 antihistamine, used for allergies

75
Q

Sanguinous definition

A

containing blood

76
Q

In vitro vs in vivo

A

in a test tube or artificial environment vs in a living organism

77
Q

Autologous transfusion

A

Where blood is removed from a donor and stored for a period before being returned to their circulation

78
Q

Autologous graft

A

Transfer of tissue from one site to another on the same body

79
Q

Homologous graft/allograft

A

Tissue removed from a donor for transplantation to a recipient of the same species

80
Q

Mediastinum

A

The space between the lungs in the chest cavity

81
Q

schlerotherapy

A

injection of a chemical solution directly into a varicose or spider vein causing vein walls to thicken, swell, and seal shut stopping the flow of blood resulting in fading away of the varicose vein after a few weeks

82
Q

Thymus location

A

In chest slightly above heart, anterior mediastinal cavity

83
Q

Glottis

A

Vocal apparatus of the larynx, consists of the vocal folds and openings between them that the epiglottis covers

84
Q

Cheyne-Stokes respiration and what is it often seen in

A

Abnormal pattern of respiration characterized by alternating periods of apnea and deep, rapid breathing often seen in heart failure

85
Q

Hypercapnia

A

excess CO2 in the body

86
Q

pneumoconiosis

A

Any disease of the lung caused by chronic inhalation of dust in either occupational or environmental origin

87
Q

3 regions of the stomach

A

1) Cardiac regions
2) Fundus
3 Pylorus

88
Q

Prepuce

A

Fold of skin that forms a retractable cover over the clitoris, foreskin of the glans penis equivalent in male

89
Q

Can men get trichomoniasis?

A

Yes, but they are often asymptomatic carriers and it often spontaneously resolves, urethritis is most common symptom

90
Q

Trichomoniasis testing in men

A

NAAT, penile swab only

91
Q

phimosis treatment

A

gentle stretching and betamethasone cream twice daily on the foreskin for 4-8 weeks

92
Q

Chancre vs canker sore

A

chancre is the first phase of syphilis, a characteristically painless sore, a canker sore is an aphthous ulcer

93
Q

condyloma acuminata

A

anogenital warts

94
Q

Hallux

A

referring to big toe

95
Q

Syndactly

A

Congenital anomaly marked by webbing between adjacent digits

96
Q

DMARDs abbreviation and definition

A

Disease modifying antirheumatic drugs, modify the course of inflammatory conditions such as rheumatoid arthritis, slowing progression of disease

97
Q

2 parts of the deincephalon

A

thalamus and hyopthalamus

98
Q

of pairs of spinal nerves that arise from the spinal cord

A

31 (8 cervical, 12 thoracic, 5 lumbar, 5 sacral, 1 coccygeal)

99
Q

Cerebral palsy definition

A

Motor function disorder caused by permanent, nonprogressive brain defect present at birth

100
Q

pediculosis definition

A

Infestation by human lice

101
Q

Primary type of anticoagulant used for protein C or S deficiency?

A

Vit K antagonists and LMW heparin, simply because of lack of data on DOAC but depends on the specific patient

102
Q

Centor score

A

A calculator to determine the likelihood of strep pharyngitis including age, exudate, lymphadenopathy, temp, cough presence or absence

103
Q

fluorquinolones are contraindicated in what condition of the cardiovascular system?

A

Anyeurysm

104
Q

When to check serum testosterone on a male pt who injects weekly?

A

8-10am 24-48 hours after last dose.

105
Q

Is proximal or distal bicep tendon tear more common?

A

Proximal

106
Q

oral potassium and anticholinergics

A

contraindicated because it slows gastric emptying which can ulcerate or damage the abdominal wall

107
Q

normal cap refill

A

<3 seconds

108
Q

azelastine drug class and use

A

2nd gen antihistamine used exclusively in nasal spray form

109
Q

bisocodyl (ducolax) use and dosing

A

either bowel cleanse as an enema single dose or oral constipation 5-15 mg once daily

110
Q

dementia = __+__

A

memory impairment + impairment of 1 other cognitive function sufficiently severe enough to cause impairment in social or occupational performance

111
Q

3 groups of meds for dementia

A

ssri, donezepil (aricept) and memantine (namenda)

112
Q

diverticulitis imaging of choice

A

with contrast CT

113
Q

amitryptiline side effects

A

constipation and weight gain

114
Q

gilbert’s syndrome, dubin johnson syndrome, rotor syndrome, and crigler najjar syndrome differences

A

1) Gilbert’s is benign indirect bilirubin elevation in absence of other abnormal LFT often found incidentally occasionally might see subtle jaundice at times but requires no treatment
2) Dubin Johnson is benign direct bilirubin predominant elevation in absence of other abnormal LFT’s might see jaundice at times of illness or stress but again requires no treatment, no itching and what separates it from the very similar rotor syndrome is the mechanism only. Dubin Johnson is impairment of excretion, rotor is impairment of hepatic storage.
4) Crigler Najjar is rare autosomal recessive disorder of severe unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia that can result in severe bilirubin induced neurologic dysfunction, normally screened for in newborns to prevent rapid progression to kernicterus and neurologic injury

115
Q

is aspirin use ok for kidneys for antiplatelet effect? What about as an analgesic

A

yes, a baby aspirin has no impact. As an analgesic it can be associated with AKI in high doses

116
Q

hold blood thinners how many days prior to surgery

A

10

117
Q

hippocampal diffusion restriction on MRI seen with

A

TGA

118
Q

oxygen concentrator vs cpap

A

Different functions, one concentrates pure o2 from the air while the other just pushes airway open, supplemental o2 has NOT been shown to help sleep apnea.

119
Q

Tibial plateau fracture common mechanism of injury, complications, diagnosis, treatment

A

heavy force blow lateral tibia most commonly, acute compartment syndrome most dire, x rays and if equivocal then CT or MRI, orthopedic consult within first 48 hours if any angulation

120
Q

Bicep anatomy

A

Distal attachment point on the radial tuberocity (bicep aponeurosis) but there is a division then with the distal short HEAD that attaches directly onto the scapula corocoid process and this almost never tears, then there is a proximal long HEAD that commonly ruptures wrapping sideways around the humerous onto the supraglenoid tubercle of the scapula

121
Q

Example of an anticholinergic drug

A

oxybutynin

122
Q

Oxygen concentrator vs oxygen tank

A

Oxygen concentrator is unlimited without need for refill

Professional Development (20 decks)

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