Part 61 and Part 91 Regulations Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

What can you do as a private pilot that you can not do as a student pilot?

A

Carry Passengers or fly without an instructors endorsement.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Can you charge people to fly with you?

A

No, but you can share operating costs pro-rata

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What documents must you have in your possession to act as pilot in command?

A

Pilot certificate, medical certificate, and photo id (driver’s license, military id).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What do you have to do to keep your pilot certificate current?

A

Get a flight review, new certificate or rating, or the wings program every 24 months.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What currency do you have to keep up with to carry passengers?

A

Three take offs and landings within the preceding 90 days.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is needed for night currency?

A

Three take offs and landings to a full stop within the preceding 90 days between 1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

At what time of day can you do the required night landings?

A

One hour after sunset to one hour before sunrise.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

When can you log night time?

A

From the end of civil evening twilight to the beginning of civil morning twilight.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is a flight review?

A

Minimum 1 hour of ground and 1 hour of flight instruction received from a CFI who endorses your logbook stating that a flight review has been satisfactorily accomplished.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the wings program?

A

A program sponsored by the FAA which gives you a flight review if you receive 3 knowledge credits and 3 flight credits.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What class of medical do you need to act as a private pilot?

A

Third class.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What other classes of medical are there, and who was to have them?

A

First class -ATP, Second class-commercial, Third class-private.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How long are each the medicals valid?

A

First class-6 months (12 months under 40 years old), Second class-12 months, Third class-24 months (over 40 years old)/ 60 months (under 40 years old).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Can a private pilot get a First class medical, and if so how long can they act as a private pilot?

A

Yes, 24 or 60 months depending on age. You get First class privileges for 6 months, Second class privileges for an additional six months, and Third class privileges for an additional 12 or 48 months.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Can you fly a complex airplane as a private pilot?

A

With the proper endorsement.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What do you have to do to get the endorsement?

A

Ground and flight training from a CFI.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is a complex airplane?

A

One having flaps, retractable landing gear, and a controllable pitch propeller.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Can you fly a high-performance airplane as a private pilot?

A

With the proper endorsement.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What do you have to do to get the endorsement?

A

Ground and flight training from a CFI.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is a high-performance airplane?

A

One having an engine with more than 200 horsepower.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Can you fly a tail wheel airplane?

A

With the proper endorsement and training from a CFI.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What documents must be on board an airplane for you to fly?

A

A-airworthiness certificate, R-registration, O-operating limitations, W-weight & balance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What inspections are required for the airplane to be airworthy?

A

Annual inspection due every 12 months, 100-Hour inspection if it is operated for hire, (a progressive inspection program can replace the Annual and 100-Hour), ELT inspection due every 12 months, Transponder inspection due every 24 months, and Pitot-Static inspection due every 24 months if it is operated IFR.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the difference between an Annual inspection and an 100-Hour inspection?

A

There is actually no difference the inspection process. The only difference is the type of mechanic that can perform the inspection. An A&P (airframe and power plant mechanic) can perform the 100-Hour inspection while an I.A. (inspection authorization) can perform the Annual inspection.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is an A.D.?

A

An airworthiness directive. It is issued by the FAA in conjunction with the manufacturer due to some type of problem or something that needs special attention on the airplane. An example would be and A.D. on seat tracks to make sure that the holes are within tolerances.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Who is responsible for maintaining an airplane in an airworthy condition?

A

The owner or operator.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Who is responsible for ensuring that the airplane is airworthy prior to flight?

A

The pilot in command.

28
Q

During your preflight inspection you find a piece of equipment or an instrument broken. How do you determine whether or not you can fly?

A

No MEL- 91.213
1. FAR/AIM 91.205 (instrument and equipment requirements) - see if the broken item is required by the regulations.
2. POH- see if the broken item is required by the manufacturer in the equipment list.
3. PIC- make a pilot in command decision whether or not the broken item affects the safety of flight.
4. Placard the item inoperative or have maintenance remove it and update the weight & balance.
With MEL-
1. Check the MEL to see if the broken item is allowed to be inoperative.
2. Comply with MEL instructions.

29
Q

What is an MEL?

A

A minimum equipment list. It is a list of equipment and instruments that are allowed to be broken and the aircraft still be
airworthy. It should be called the “o.k. to be broke stuff list”.

30
Q

Do you have an easy way to remember 14 CFR 91.205?

A

TOMATO FLAMES (day) and FLAPS (night)
T-tachometer
O-oil pressure gauge
M-manifold pressure gauge
A-airspeed indicator
T-temperature gauge for
each liquid cooled engine
O-oil temperature gauge
F-fuel quantity indicators
L-landing gear position indicator
A-altimeter
M-magnetic direction indicator (compass)
E-ELT
S-seat belts

F-fuses or circuit breakers
L-landing light, electric (for hire only)
A-anti-collision lights (red or white)
P-position lights (navigation lights)
S-source of adequate electricity
*after 3-11-1996 small civil airplanes-red or white anti-collision lights
*for hire over water beyond glide distance of the shore-floatation gear and a pyrotechnic signaling device

31
Q

If you have an airplane at a remote airport with no maintenance facility and the inspections have expired, how do you get the airplane to a place where it can go into maintenance?

A

Request a special flight permit from the FSDO (Flight Standards District Office). If the airplane is safe to fly but technically un-airworthy a special flight permit will allow it to be ferried to another airport. The same is true for an airplane that is damaged. If it is safe but un-airworthy a special flight permit will allow it to be ferried?

32
Q

Who is responsible for, and is the final authority to the operation of an aircraft?

A

The pilot in command.

33
Q

May the pilot in command deviate from any of the operating rules (Federal Aviation Regulations)?

A

In an in-flight emergency requiring immediate action. The pilot will send a written report of the deviation to the Administrator upon request.

34
Q

What is a careless or reckless operation?

A

Any thing that endangers the life or property of another.

35
Q

Can you drop objects from the aircraft?

A

If reasonable precautions are taken to avoid injury or damage to persons or property.

36
Q

Describe the rule involving alcohol and flying.

A

No acting or attempting to act as a crew member within 8 hours of alcohol consumption (8 hours bottle to throttle), or with a blood-alcohol content of .04%

37
Q

Can you carry a passenger who is intoxicated by alcohol or drugs?

A

Not unless it is an emergency or a medical patient under proper care.

38
Q

What preflight action is required by the pilot in command? (What information do you need to know?)

A

Become familiar with all available information concerning that flight. The information must include- weather reports and forecasts, fuel requirements, alternatives available, any known traffic delays, runway lengths, and take off and landing distance data.

39
Q

Who must wear seat belts and when?

A

All persons must wear a lap belt and shoulder harness during taxi, take off, and landing. Persons at a flight crew station must wear a lap belt at all times.

40
Q

How close can you fly to another aircraft?

A

Not so close as to create a collision hazard. Formation flying only by arrangement with each pilot in command. No passengers for hire in formation flight.

41
Q

Discuss converging right of way rules.

A

Balloons have right of way over any other category. Gliders have right of way over airships, airplanes, and rotorcraft. airships have right of way over airplanes and rotorcraft. If aircraft of the same category are converging the one to the right has right of way.

42
Q

If you are approaching another airplane head on, what you should you do?

A

Both airplanes should alter course to the right.

43
Q

If you are overtaking another airplane how should you alter course?

A

To the right.

44
Q

If you and another airplane are approaching the same runway to land at different altitudes, who has the right of way?

A

The lower of the two, but the lower may not cut in front of the higher.

45
Q

What are the aircraft speed limits?

A

Below 10,000 MSL-250 KIAS. Below 2,500 and within 4 n.m. of the primary Class C or D airport-200 KIAS. Underlying Class B airspace area designated for an airport or in a VFR corridor through such Class B airspace area-200 KIAS.

46
Q

How low can you fly over a congested area, an other than congested area, and anywhere?

A

Congested area-1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a 2,000 foot radius. Other than congested-500 feet above the surface (in sparsely populated areas 500 feet from any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure). Anywhere-an altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, and emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface.

47
Q

How do you set your altimeter below 18,000 MSL? Above 18,000 MSL?

A

Below 18,000 MSL to the current reported altimeter setting within 100 n.m. of the aircraft. Above 18,000 MSL to 29.92” Hg.

48
Q

If no altimeter setting is available prior to departure, how should you set your altimeter?

A

To field elevation.

49
Q

Do you always have to do what ATC tells you to do?

A

Not if it is an emergency or they give you instruction that you can not comply with. An example would be if you are
instructed to fly north but the weather is less than VFR minimums you should tell ATC that you can not comply and give
them an alternate suggestion.

50
Q

What are the ATC light gun signals?

A

Color Surface Meaning. Flight Meaning
Steady Green - Cleared for takeoff - Cleared to land
Flashing Green - Cleared for taxi - Return for Landing
Steady Red. - Stop Give way and circle
Flashing Red. Taxi clear of runway Unsafe - do not land
Flashing White. Return to start N/A
Red/Green Extreme Caution Extreme Caution

51
Q

Any suggestions for how remember all of the light gun signals?

A

Since most pilots find these hard to remember, keeping of copy of them on knee board is a good operating practice.

52
Q

How much fuel do you have to carry for a VFR flight?

A

Enough fuel to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for at least 30 minutes during the day and 45 minutes and night.

53
Q

Why would you file a VFR flight plan?

A

For search and rescue purposes if the flight plan is not cancelled.

54
Q

Are you required to file a VFR flight plan every time you fly?

A

No, but it is good operating practice especially on cross country flights.

55
Q

What is special VFR?

A

Operations that allow a person to fly with 1 s.m. and clear of clouds with an ATC clearance in controlled airspace. At night the person must be instrument rated and the airplane must have the required IFR equipment.

56
Q

If you are in level cruising flight above 3,000 AGL (a cross country flight) what would be an appropriate altitude?

A

Cruising on an easterly heading (magnetic course of 0 degrees through 179 degrees) an odd thousand plus 500 feet such as 3,500 or 5,500. Cruising on a westerly heading (magnetic course of 180 degrees through 359 degrees) an even thousand plus 500 feet such as 4,500 or 6,500.

57
Q

When must the aircrafts position lights be turned on?

A

Between sunset and sunrise.

58
Q

When must you have supplemental oxygen in an un-pressurized aircraft?

A

12,500 MSL to 14,000 after 30 minutes-the required minimum flight crew must use oxygen
14,001 MSL and above-the required flight crew at all times
15,000 MSL-each occupant must be provided with oxygen

59
Q

When must you have a Mode C transponder?

A

Class A, Class B, Class C airspaces. Above 10,000 MSL excluding 2,500 AGL and below. Above Class B or C airspace. Within the Mode C veil (30 n.m. from the Class B primary airport).

60
Q

What is Mode C?

A

Altitude reporting from the transponder to ATC.

61
Q

Explain Class A Airspace

A

Class A- Above 18,000-IFR only

62
Q

Explain Class B Airspace

A

Class B- Solid blue line (Charlotte)- To enter you must have 2-way radio, mode C, and a clearance. Do not have to talk to ATC above or below, must have mode C within the 30NM veil. 3 SM visibility and remain clear of clouds.

63
Q

Explain Class C Airspace

A

Class C- Solid magenta line (Greensboro)- To enter you must have 2-way radio, and mode C . Do not have to talk to ATC above or below, must have mode C ABOVE but not below.

3 SM visibility 1,000’ above – 500’ below – 2,000’ horizontal from clouds.

64
Q

Explain Class D Airspace

A

Class D- Dotted blue line (Winston-salem)- To enter you must have 2-way radio. Do not have to talk to ATC above.
3 SM visibility 1,000’ above – 500’ below – 2,000’ horizontal from clouds

65
Q

Explain Class E Airspace

A

Class E @ 700AGL- Shaded magenta rings (around Burlington)- transition area from class G to class E. No entry requirements.
3 SM visibility 1,000’ above – 500’ below – 2,000’ horizontal from clouds
Class E @ Surface- Dotted magenta rings (Rocky-Mount) -exists to increase VFR minimums from G to E at a lower altitude. 3 SM visibility 1,000’ above – 500’ below – 2,000’ horizontal from clouds
Class E @ 1200 AGL-everywhere else on the chart, including any airport without a ring around it.

66
Q

Explain Class G Airspace

A

Class G-starts at the surface and goes up to either 700 AGL or 1200 AGL.
No entry requirements.
1 SM visibility and remain clear of clouds in the daytime OR
3 SM visibility 1,000’ above – 500’ below – 2,000’ horizontal from clouds at night.