Part 3: Antimicrobial Inhibitors of Bacterial Protein Synthesis Flashcards

1
Q

bacteria have ____ ribosomal subunits and humans have ____ ribosomal subunits

A

30S & 50s; 40S & 60S

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what are the 3 main classes of protein synthesis inhibitors?

A

tetracyclines, aminoglycosides, macrolides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

t/f protein synthesis inhibitors can be bacteriostatic or bactericidal

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

besides the 3 main classes, what are 2 other drugs that act by protein synthesis inhibition?

A

clindamycin and chloramphenicol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

doxycycline is from the ____ family of antibiotics

A

tetracycline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

tetracyclines are ___ spectrum

A

broad

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

describe the structure of tetracyclines

A

4 fused rings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what part of a tetracycline structure cannot be altered, or activity will be lost?

A

the O2 groups at the top

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what part of a tetracycline can be changed without loss of activity

A

R groups along the bottom

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

altering the R groups of a tetracyline alters the ____ properties

A

pharmacokinetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

tetracyclines bind to the ___ subunit near the ___ site

A

30s ; A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

the binding of a tetracyline to a bacterial ribosome prevents ___ from binding, which prevents the elongation of the ___

A

tRNA; bacterial peptide chain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what are 3 mutations that make bacteria more resistant to tetracyclines?

A

mutation in the 30s that reduce drug binding ; efflux pumps; enzymes that break down drug structure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

t/f tetracylines are typically inly used to target a specific infection due to the prevalenace of mutations and resistance

A

t

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

the O2 containing groups along the top of the tetracyline structure bind strongly to ____

A

cations (mg, ca, Fe, Zn)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

when tetracylines bind to a cation it is called ___

A

chelation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

why is the binding of tetracylines to cations problematic?

A

can bind to calcium in developing teeth and discolour them; if taken with dairy they cant be absorbed very well (too big) so they are less effective

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

why are tetracylines less of an issue for people with developed teeth?

A

bc as adults the bone matrix os constantly changing, so tetracyline will eventually be replaced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

tetracylines can cause an increase sensitivity to ___

A

sunlight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

why do tetracylines cause skin rashes and sunburns when patients are exposed to sun?

A

tetracyline accumulates in the skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

gentamicin is an example of a ___ antibiotic

A

aminoglycoside

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

aminoglycosides bind to the ____subunit

A

30s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

how do the aminoglycosides bind to the 30s subunit?

A

covalently (irreversibly)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what is the reason for the long post-antibiotic effect of aminoglycosides?

A

their covalent binding to the 30s subunit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
aminoglycosides cause a disruption in the ___ of the ribosome subunit
shape
26
when aminoglycosides cause a shape change in the 30s, what i sthe result?
mRNA reading frame becomes distorted, leading to the wrong AA being added to the peptide chain
27
aminoglycosides also impair the translocation of the peptide, meaning ___
the growing chain is not able to move as easily from the A site to the P site b/c of obstruction caused by drug
28
aminoglycosides cause newly formed bacterial proteins to be ___
dysfunctional; or not even made
29
aminoglycosides binding to the 30s can also impair proper formation of the ribosome complex, which prevents ____
initiation of protein synthesis
30
aminoglycosides are _____ (cidal or static_
cidal
31
aminoglycosides are ____ spectrum
broad
32
aminoglycosides have particularly good activity against Gram ____
negative
33
why do aminoglycosides have good activity against G-?
their structure (several linked sugars and amino groups) are substrates for the G- pores
34
t/f increasing the concentrations of aminoglycosides inside bacterial cells increases the bactericidal effecst
true
35
adding what type of antibiotic with an aminoglycoside would result in significant synergistic effect?
cell wall inhibitor like a beta lactam
36
why would a beta lactam and an aminoglycoside have a synergistic effect?
beta lactam breaks down the wall, letting more aminoglycoside in
37
aminoglycosides are not suitable for ____(route) dosing
oral
38
why are aminoglycosides given by IV?
they have poor oral bioavailability
39
aminoglycosides have ____ dependent bactericidal effects
concentratio
40
what are some ADRs of high dose aminoglycosides
irreversible hearing loss, damage to the kidneys
41
why are blood levels carefully monitored for patients on IV aminoglycoside?
dont want too high dose that would cause aADRs
42
bacterial resistance to aminoglycosides typically occurs by ____
bacteria reducing entry or inactivating it in the cytoplasm
43
aminoglycosides can be inactivated by beta lactams if ___
they are direltly mixed togther
44
t/f the binding of a beta lactam ring to an aminoglycoside results in the inactivation of both drug
t
45
what is the key difference between tetracylines and aminoglycosides?
aminoglycosides bind irreversibly
46
macrolides bind to the ____ subunit
50s
47
what is the MOA of macrolides?
binding to the 50s prevents translocation of growing peptide from A site to P site and it also blocks the peptidlu transferase rxn which links new AA to the growing chain
48
give 3 examples of macrolide antibiotics
erythromycin, azithromycin, clairithromycin
49
what was the 1st macrolide used clinically?
erythromycin
50
which macrolides are more typically used today? why?
clairithromycin and azithromycin bc they have fewer drug interactions
51
what is the characteristic structure of macrolides?
the large open ring (macrolide ring)
52
t/f macrolides have several R groups that can be varied to give the diffrent drugs in the family
t
53
what is the role of the large macrolide ring?
significant interference with the ribosomal complex structure, leading to many dysfunctions
54
binding of macrolides is _____
reversible
55
what happens is macrolide concentrations are too low?
some protein synthesis can still occur (growth only slowed)
56
at high concentrations of macrolides, the effect can be ___
bactericidal
57
macrolides have ____ spectrum
broad
58
macrolides are commonly used if a pateint has an allergy to ___
beta lactams
59
how does resistance to macrolides typically occur? (3)
mutations of the 50s at the binding site; increased efflux; ezymatic breakdown of the ring
60
resistance to macrolides is less common than resistance to ___
tetracylines
61
resistance to macrolides is most common in ____ infections
oral
62
erythromycin and clairithromycin are known to inhibit host ___ enzymes
CYP450; particularly CYP 3A4
63
why is it an issue that erythromycin and clairithromycin inhibit CYP 3A4 enzymes?
many drugs are metabolized by this enzyme, so it can lead to toxic build up of other drugs (or too low levels of prodrugs)
64
what is unique about azithromycin?
does not impact CYP and has a very long half life, so it can be given as one large daily dose
65
what is the half life of azithromycin?
12 hours
66
is azithromycin renally excreted>
no
67
clindamycin binds to the ___ subunit
50 s
68
clindamycin has some of the same properties as ___ antibiotics
macrolide
69
why is clindamycin not a member of the macrolide family?
does not have the macrolide ring
70
MOA of clindamycin
binds to 50s and prevents bacterial peptide translocation from A to P
71
at doses used clinically, clindamycin is ____ (cidal or static?
static
72
the spectrum of activity of clindamycin makes it particularly useful for treating ____ infections
oral
73
clindamyin is effective against G____ and. some G____
+ and some -
74
t/f clindamycin is effective against some anaerobes
true
75
clindamyin may be a drug of choice for those with a ____ allergy
penicillin
76
resistance patterns to clindamycin? (3)
change binding site, efflux, enzymatic inactivation
77
t/f chloremphenicol is not used much in North America, but still used in other places
t
78
chloremphenicol binds to the ___ subunit
50s
79
the MOA of chloremphenicol is similar to that of ___
macrolides
80
MOA of chloremphenicol
bind 50s and prevent bacterial peptide elongation and peptidyl transferase rxn
81
chloremphenicol is a ___ spectrum
broad
82
bacterial resistance to chlorempheicol
not as commonly, but by enzymes that break down the drug
83
chloramphenicol distributes ___ to the tissues in the body, especially the CNS
extensively
84
what is a unique ADR to chloramphenicol?
aplastic anemia
85
what is the big deal if chloramphenicol casues aplastic anemia?
low levels of WBC can reduce host immune response (counter-productive to the treatment)
86
t/f chloramphenicol has a high rate of metabolism into ___
inactive metabolites
87
chloramphenicol inhibits _____, which results in many ___
CYP450; drug interactions
88
when might chloramphenicol be used?
for very specific cases (meningitis) or if nothing else is available