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INF 309 > Parasitology formative assessments (from practical book) > Flashcards

Parasitology formative assessments (from practical book) Flashcards

1
Q
  1. The definitive host is:

a) Host in which the larval asexual phase of parasite development occurs.
b) Host in which the adult or sexual phase of parasite development occurs.
c) An insect which transmits a parasite to its host.
d) A host harboring the parasite in an arrested stage of development.

A

b) Host in which the adult or sexual phase of parasite development occurs.

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2
Q
  1. Cyclopropagative transmission in arthropods is seen in:

a) Fleas & plague.
b) Anopheles & malaria.
c) Mosquitoes & filaria.
d) Aedes aegypti & yellow fever.

A

b) Anopheles & malaria.

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3
Q
  1. Exchange of nuclear materials between two protozoa is called:

a) Syngamy.
b) Conjugation.
c) Endodyogony.
d) Budding.

A

b) Conjugation.

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4
Q
  1. Proper cooking of pig meat is a preventive measure against:

a) Fascioliasis
b) VLM
c) Taeniasis saginata
d) Coenurosis

A

b) VLM

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5
Q
  1. Granulomatous reactions may occur in infection with:

a) Cyclospora cayetanensis
b) Giardia lamblia
c) Entamoeba histolytica
d) Naegleria fowled

A

c) Entamoeba histolytica

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6
Q
  1. The following infection is associated with development of warty skin changes:

a) Loaiasis
b) Ground itch
c) Bancroftian filariasis
d) Visceral larva migrans

A

c) Bancroftian filariasis

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7
Q
  1. Depigmentation of skin is reported with:

a) Onchocercosis
b) Scabies
c) Kala azar
d) Bancroftian filariasis

A

a) Onchocercosis

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8
Q
  1. As regards scabies, the following is true:

a) It is caused by inhalation of mite excreta.
b) The preferred site of infestation is the scalp.
c) Transmission of nodular scabies is through contact with infected scales.
d) Manual transfer of mites after scratching disseminates the infection.

A

d) Manual transfer of mites after scratching disseminates the infection.

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9
Q
  1. The following is an immediate hypersensitivity test:

a) Montenegro test
b) Sabin Feldman dye test
c) Cason i test
d) Cruzintest

A

c) Cason i test

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10
Q
  1. Hemolytic anemia is involved in the pathogenesis of:

a) Malaria
b) Hookworm infection
c) Schistosomiasis
d) Diphyllobothriasis

A

a) Malaria

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11
Q
  1. The following is NOT transmitted through a cystic stage:

a) Giardia lamblia
b) Trichomonas vaginalis
c) Balantidium coli
d) Cryptosporidium parvum

A

b) Trichomonas vaginalis

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12
Q
  1. As regards bancroftian filariasis, the following is correct:

a) Transmission occurs through tick bites.
b) Blockage of lymphatic vessels is multifactorial.
c) The cervical lymph nodes are most affected.
d) Filaria dance sign is the visualization of microfilariae by ultrasonography of the scrotum

A

b) Blockage of lymphatic vessels is multifactorial

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13
Q
  1. Diagnostic and infective stages are identical in:

a) Trichuriasis
b) Taeniasis solium
c) Cyclosporiasis
d) Enterobiasis

A

d) Enterobiasis

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14
Q
  1. Appendicitis can occur as a complication of infection with:

a) Ancylostoma duodenale
b) Taenia solium
c) Trichuris trichiura
d) Schistosoma mansoni

A

c) Trichuris trichiura

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15
Q
  1. As regards complications of malaria the following is true:

a) Blackwater fever is the result of cytoadherence of RBCs.
b) Infection with Plasmodium falciparum may end up with multiorgan failure.
c) Nephrotic syndrome is a common complication of infection with Plasmodium vivax.
d) Hyper-reactive malarial splenomegaly is associated with an elevation of serum IgG.

A

b) Infection with Plasmodium falciparum may end up with multiorgan failure.

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16
Q
  1. Concerning the DEC patch test the following is correct:

a) It is hazardous as it provokes a generalized allergic response.
b) Positive reaction occurs in response to dying adult Onchocerca.
c) False positive reactions occur in the presence of Loa loa infection.
d) Erythematous patches occur in response to oral administration of DEC.

A

c) False positive reactions occur in the presence of Loa loa infection.

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17
Q
  1. Transient pulmonary symptoms occur in the course of the following disease:

a) Trichuriasis
b) Ascariasis
c) Trichostrongyliasis
d) Hymenolepiasis nana

A

b) Ascariasis

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18
Q
  1. Raised erythematous serpiginous tracks on the foot remaining for months may be due to;

a) Filariform larva of Ancylostoma duodenale.
b) Filariform larva of Strongyloides stercoralis.
c) Filariform larva of Ancylostoma caninum.
d) Cercaria of Schistosoma mansoni.

A

c) Filariform larva of Ancylostoma caninum.

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19
Q
  1. For trichinellosis, the following is true:

a) Splinter haemorrhages under the conjunctiva are common.
b) Man is the only definitive host.
c) Orbital oedema is a suggestive sign.
d) The Bachman test is a delayed hypersensitivity test.

A

c) Orbital oedema is a suggestive sign.

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20
Q
  1. As regards toxoplasmosis, the following is correct:

a) Diagnosis relies on detection of IgG and IgE.
b) IgA allows for determination of the date of seroconversion of the pregnant mother.
c) IgG avidity test is performed in pregnancy to diagnose intrauterine fetal infection.
d) Xenodiagnosis helps in demonstration of the parasite from tissue fluids.

A

b) IgA allows for determination of the date of seroconversion of the pregnant mother.

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21
Q
  1. Brugia malayi differs from Wuchereria bancrofti in the following:

a) Control is more difficult due to the presence of reservoir hosts.
b) Hydrocoele is a common presentation.
c) Elephantiasis usually involves the thigh.
d) Microfilariae show diurnal periodicity.

A

a) Control is more difficult due to the presence of reservoir hosts.

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22
Q
  1. The following is true as regards filarial worms:

a) Adult worms are responsible for the main pathology in onchocercosis.
b) Elephantiasis is a sequel of microfilariae blocking lymphatics in bancroftian filariasis.
c) In loaiasis, impairment of vision may be due to both the adult worm and microfilariae.
d) Direct diagnosis of loaiasis is done by detection of adult worms in biopsy specimen of
calabar swellings.

A

c) In loaiasis, impairment of vision may be due to both the adult worm and microfilariae.

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23
Q
  1. In the following parasitic infections nervous manifestations are NOT due to CNS invasion:

a) Toxoplasmosis.
b) Hymenolepiasis nana.
c) African trypanosomiasis.
d) Heterophyiasis.

A

b) Hymenolepiasis nana.

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24
Q
  1. As regards in vitro culture methods the following is true:

a) It reveals amastigotes of Leishmania.
b) Stool culture for 48 hours yields filariform larvae of Strongyloides.
c) Culture on NNN medium reveals trypomastigotes of Trypanosoma cruzi.
d) Culture on modified Diamond’s medium yields trophozoites of Trichomonas vaginalis.

A

d) Culture on modified Diamond’s medium yields trophozoites of Trichomonas vaginalis.

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25
Q
  1. Anaphylaxis in parasitic infection may occur with:

a) Malaria.
b) African trypanosomiasis.
c) Hydatidosis.
d) Enterobiasis.

A

c) Hydatidosis.

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26
Q
  1. High level of IgM in Trypanosoma brucei infection is due to:

a) Hypersensitivity reaction.
b) Antigenic variation.
c) Presence of microfilaria in blood.
d) Autoimmune reaction.

A

b) Antigenic variation.

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27
Q
  1. Diethylcarbamazine provocative test is used to:

a) Overcome nocturnal periodicity of microfilaria.
b) Treat filarial infection.
c) Dissolve chyle.
d) Detect filarial dance sign.

A

a) Overcome nocturnal periodicity of microfilaria.

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28
Q
  1. Antigenic mimicry means:

a) Shedding of surface antigens.
b) Possession of multiple antigenic variants.
c) Parasite cover itself by host antigen.
d) Similarity between host and parasite antigens.

A

c) Parasite cover itself by host antigen.

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29
Q
  1. The main pathology in Schistosoma infection is due to:

a) Presence of adults in the venules.
b) Eggs trapped in tissues.
c) Toxic byproducts of migrating juveniles.
d) Traumatic effect of adult worms.

A

b) Eggs trapped in tissues.

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30
Q
  1. Malaria infection with no relapse occurs when:

a) Transmission is transplacental.
b) Patients are immunosuppressed.
c) Treatment is incomplete.
d) There’s mixed infection with different species.

A

a) Transmission is transplacental.

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31
Q
  1. Gastric myiasis occurs due to invasion of human tissues by larvae of:

a) Dermatobia.
b) Wohlfahrtia.
c) Calliphora.
d) Eristalis.

A

d) Eristalis.

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32
Q
  1. Taenia solium is more dangerous than Taenia saginata due to:

a) Infection can occur by ingestion of Cysticercus cellulosae.
b) Infection can occur by ingestion of Cysticercus bovis.
c) It can cause cysticercosis.
d) Infection occurs by eating pork.

A

c) It can cause cysticercosis.

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33
Q
  1. Which of the following parasites cause destruction of nasal cartilage?

a) Leishmania donovani.
b) Leishmania infantum.
c) Leishmania tropica.
d) Leishmania braziliensis.

A

d) Leishmania braziliensis.

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34
Q
  1. Fine malaria pigment is found in RBCs infected with:

a) Plasmodium falciparum.
b) Plasmodium ovale.
c) Plasmodium malariae.
d) Plasmodium vivax.

A

d) Plasmodium vivax.

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35
Q
  1. Ascariasis is not transmitted directly between family members as:

a) Infection is through ingestion of larvae.
b) Eggs are laid immature.
c) Infection is through skin penetration by larvae.
d) Needs close contacts.

A

b) Eggs are laid immature.

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36
Q
  1. The gradually increasing worm burden in capillariasis philippinensis is mainly due to:

a) Repeated heteroinfection.
b) Multiplication of adult worms.
c) Internal autoinfection.
d) Mature eggs.

A

c) Internal autoinfection.

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37
Q
  1. Paralysis is caused by:

a) Ticks.
b) Lice.
c) Leishmaniasis.
d) Trichinosis.

A

a) Ticks.

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38
Q
  1. Anaemia of Diphyllobothrium latum is due to:

a) Iron deficiency.
b) Blood loss.
c) Vitamin B12 deficiency.
d) Haemolysis of red blood cells.

A

c) Vitamin B12 deficiency.

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39
Q
  1. Mechanism of pathogenesis in perennial rhinitis is:

a) House dust mite biting.
b) House dust mite stinging.
c) Powerful allergens contained in the mites.
d) Presence of mite in the respiratory system.

A

c) Powerful allergens contained in the mites.

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40
Q
  1. To confirm diagnosis of babesiosis, we should detect:

a) Ring stages in RBCs.
b) Maltese cross form in RBCs.
c) Sporozoites in RBCs.
d) Merozoites in liver cells.

A

b) Maltese cross form in RBCs.

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41
Q
  1. Nephrotic syndrome occurs as a complication of:

a) Plasmodium ovale.
b) Plasmodium malariae.
c) Plasmodium falciparum.
d) Plasmodium vivax.

A

b) Plasmodium malariae.

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42
Q
  1. Acanthamoeba keratitis in AIDS patients can cause:

a) Endophthalmitis.
b) GAE.
c) Gastroenteritis.
d) Respiratory tract infection.

A

a) Endophthalmitis.

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43
Q
  1. A young boy complaining of a runny nose and coughing. He was prescribed several antibiotics
    with no response. Later, his mother noticed that her child’s asthmatic attacks were repeated
    all the year. How can we prevent repetition of this asthma?

a) The use of D’allergen.
b) Treatment of the asthma.
c) Sanitary disposal of human faeces.
d) Proper washing of raw vegetables and fruits before eating.

A

a) The use of D’allergen.

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44
Q
  1. Swimming in contaminated water can cause infection with:

a) Acanthamoeba.
b) Toxolasma gondii.
c) Naegleria fowleri.
d) Dracunculus medinensis.

A

b) Toxolasma gondii.

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45
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is true regarding Acanthamoeba keratitis?

a) For the isolation of the causative agent, corneal scraping is not reliable.
b) The causative agent, Acanthamoeba is a helminth whose normal habitat is soil.
c) Keratitis due to Acanthamoeba is not seen in the immunocompromised host.
d) Acanthamoeba does not depend upon a human host for the completion of its life cycle.

A

d) Acanthamoeba does not depend upon a human host for the completion of its life cycle.

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46
Q
  1. Romana sign is characteristic of:

a) Sleeping sickness
b) Malaria
c) Kala-azar
d) Chagas’ disease

A

d) Chagas’ disease

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47
Q
  1. Tropical pulmonary eosinophilia is characterized by:

a) High titers of IgM.
b) A high eosinophil count.
c) Membrane filtration demonstrates microfilariae in peripheral blood.
d) Lymphangitis and lymphadenitis of the lower limbs.

A

b) A high eosinophil count.

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48
Q
  1. Onchodermatitis DOES NOT present with:

a) Hyperkeratosis.
b) Atrophy of skin.
c) Subcutaneous oedema.
d) Dark discolouration of skin.

A

c) Subcutaneous oedema.

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49
Q
  1. Chiclero ulcer typically affects:

a) The ear.
b) The lower limbs.
c) The face.
d) The trunk.

A

a) The ear.

50
Q
  1. For toxoplasmosis the following is true:

a) Oocysts shed in cat faeces are directly infective.
b) Blood transfusion transmits infection through tachyzoites.
c) In man, bradyzoites released from ingested cysts initiate intestinal schizogony.
d) Diagnosis in man is done through finding oocysts in stool.

A

b) Blood transfusion transmits infection through tachyzoites.

51
Q
  1. Antigen shedding IS NOT seen with:

a) Babesia.
b) Entamoeba histolytica.
c) Trichinella spiralis.
d) Schistosoma mansoni.

A

a) Babesia.

52
Q
  1. Pancytopenia is frequently seen with:

a) Sleeping sickness.
b) Chagas’ disease.
c) Malaria.
d) Kala-azar.

A

d) Kala-azar.

53
Q
  1. A specimen that is not used for the recovery of African trypanosomes is:

a) Lymph node aspirate.
b) Stool sample.
c) CSF sample.
d) Blood sample.

A

b) Stool sample.

54
Q
  1. Animal inoculation IS NOT used for diagnosis of:

a) Malaria.
b) Toxoplasmosis.
c) Sleeping sickness.
d) Babesiosis.

A

a) Malaria.

55
Q
  1. Which of the following items does not describe kala-azar?

a) Commonly found in India.
b) Transmitted by the Phlebotomus sandfly species.
c) Diagnosed in the active phase by the Montenegro test.
d) Can be serologically diagnosed by ELISA.

A

c) Diagnosed in the active phase by the Montenegro test.

56
Q
  1. Aspirates from liver amoebic abscess shows:

a) Trophozoites.
b) Pre-cyst stages.
c) Cyst stages.
d) Trophozoites and cysts.

A

a) Trophozoites.

57
Q
  1. Onchocerca nodule is characterized by:

a) It is a granulomatous reaction.
b) It develops over bony prominences.
c) It is a reaction around coiled microfilariae.
d) It is a painful condition.

A

b) It develops over bony prominences.

58
Q
  1. Which statement is true regarding Norwegian scabies:

a) Occurs in immunocompromised patients.
b) Few numbers of mites are present.
c) It is not contagious.
d) There is little scaling.

A

a) Occurs in immunocompromised patients.

59
Q
  1. Demodex brevis inhabits:

a) Hair follicles.
b) Eyelashes.
c) Sebacious glands.
d) Sweat glands.

A

c) Sebacious glands.

60
Q
  1. Diffuse cutaneous leishmaniasis occurs with:

a) L. tropica
b) L. aethiopica
c) L. major
d) L. donovani

A

b) L. aethiopica

61
Q
  1. Blepharitis may be caused by:

a) Body louse.
b) Head louse.
c) Pubic louse.
d) Harvest mites.

A

c) Pubic louse.

62
Q
  1. Tunga penetrans causes:

a) Murine typhus.
b) Chigger’s disease.
c) Rapid ascending paralysis.
d) Harara.

A

b) Chigger’s disease.

63
Q
  1. Tsutsugamushi fever is:

a) Transmitted by Trombicula akamushi larva.
b) Caused by Rickettsia mooseri.
c) Transmitted by the bite of adult hard ticks.
d) Found worldwide.

A

a) Transmitted by Trombicula akamushi larva.

64
Q
  1. Hard ticks transmit:

a) Plague.
b) Malaria.
c) Sleeping sickness.
d) Lyme disease.

A

d) Lyme disease.

65
Q
  1. Concerning Strongyloides stercoralis, human infection occurs by:

a) Ingestion of mature egg
b) Skin penetration by filariform larva
c) Skin penetration by rhabditiform larva
d) Ingestion of adult worm

A

b) Skin penetration by filariform larva

66
Q
  1. Espundia occurs with:

a) L. aethiopica
b) L tropica and L. aethiopica
c) L. tropica and L. major
d) L. braziliensis

A

d) L. braziliensis

67
Q
  1. A patient who presented with dysentery, anaemia and prolapse of heavy oedematous rectal
    mucosa could be infected with:

a) Schistosoma mansoni
b) Trichuris trichiura
c) Strongyloides stercoralis
d) Leishmania donovani

A

b) Trichuris trichiura

68
Q
  1. Sandfly is involved in the transmission of:

a) Sleeping sickness
b) Visceral leishmaniasis
c) Babesiosis
d) Toxoplasmosis

A

b) Visceral leishmaniasis

69
Q
  1. Dwarf threadworm is the name given to:

a) Ancylostoma duodenale
b) Trichostrongylus colubriformis
c) Strongyloides stercoralis
d) Capillaria philippinensis

A

c) Strongyloides stercoralis

70
Q
  1. Lice transmit:

a) Non-human malaria.
b) Epidemic typhus.
c) Endemic typhus.
d) Epidemic relapsing fever.

A

b) Epidemic typhus.

71
Q
  1. Uta (oriental sore-like lesions) occurs with:

a) L. tropica
b) L. aethiopica
c) L. major
d) L. braziHensis

A

d) L. braziHensis

72
Q
  1. Protozoan with two different shaped nuclei is:

a) Giardia intestinalis
b) Cryptosporidium parvum
c) Entamoeba histolytica
d) Balantidium coli

A

d) Balantidium coli

73
Q
  1. Weight loss and emaciation are usually reported with:

a) Kala- azar
b) Hookworm infection
c) Enterobiasis
d) Trichostrongyliasis

A

a) Kala- azar

74
Q
  1. Leishmania major typically affects:

a) The ear
b) The lower limbs
c) The face
d) The trunk

A

b) The lower limbs

75
Q
  1. Concerning ancylostomiasis duodenale, human infection occurs by:

a) Ingestion of mature egg
b) Skin penetration by filariform larva
c) Skin penetration by rhabditiform larva
d) Ingestion of adult worm

A

b) Skin penetration by filariform larva

76
Q
  1. Immunity to reinfection (solid immunity) is acquired after infection with:

a) L. mexicana
b) L tropica
c) L. donovani
d) L. major

A

b) L tropica

77
Q
  1. Corticosteroids are used in cysticercosis treatment to:

a) Potentiate the action of anti-helminthics
b) Protect against internal autoinfection.
c) Decrease CNS symptoms from cyst disintegration
d) Prevent cysts from spreading to other tissues

A

c) Decrease CNS symptoms from cyst disintegration

78
Q
  1. Medical importance of Stomoxys is:

a) Indirect mechanical transmission of microorganisms.
b) Causing accidental myiasis.
c) Causing semi specific myiasis.
d) Causing specific myiasis.

A

b) Causing accidental myiasis.

79
Q
  1. Glossina morsitans is:

a) Prevalent in west Africa.
b) Found in all areas of sub-Saharan Africa.
c) Present in Nile Valley.
d) Present in Eastern tropical Africa.

A

d) Present in Eastern tropical Africa.

80
Q
  1. Fish-eating birds could be considered a reservoir host in case of:

a) Ascariasis
b) Capillariasis
c) Trichuriasis
d) Trichostrongyliasis

A

b) Capillariasis

81
Q
  1. Ectopic granulomas in the female genital system may be seen with:

a) Trichostrongyliasis
b) Enterobiasis
c) Ancylostomiasis
d) Strongyloidiasis

A

b) Enterobiasis

82
Q
  1. Parasite immune evasion strategies do not include:

a) Production of polyclonal antibodies.
b) Antigenic variation
c) Production of specific antibodies.
d) Formation of granuloma.

A

c) Production of specific antibodies.

83
Q
  1. Recent or active parasitic infection is possibly related to elevated levels of:

a) IgG antibodies.
b) IgM antibodies.
c) IgA antibodies.
d) IgE antibodies.

A

b) IgM antibodies

84
Q
  1. Autoimmune reactions are the cause of:

a) Haemolytic anaemia in malaria.
a) Cerebral malaria.
b) Tropical pulmonary eosinophilia.
c) Aplastic anaemia in kala azar.

A

a) Haemolytic anaemia in malaria.

85
Q
  1. Nephrotic syndrome caused by P. malariae is due to

a) Type I hypersensitivity.
b) Type II hypersensitivity.
c) Type III hypersensitivity.
d) Type IV hypersensitivity.

A

c) Type III hypersensitivity.

86
Q
  1. Schistosoma does not adopt the following immune evasion mechanisms:

a) Antigen disguise.
b) Antigen mimicry.
c) Antigen shedding.
d) Cleavage of antibodies.

A

d) Cleavage of antibodies.

87
Q
  1. Intracellular location is not a mode of evasion for:

a) Toxoplasma gondii.
b) Hymenoiepis nana.
c) Plasmodium vivax.
d) Trypanosoma cruzi.v

A

b) Hymenoiepis nana.

88
Q
  1. Disturbance in TH1 and TH2 balance may be caused by:

a) Toxoplasma gondii. ‘
b) Trichinella spiralis.
c) Plasmodium vivax.
d) Babesia.

A

b) Trichinella spiralis.

89
Q
  1. Type I hypersensitivity reactions are not observed with:

a) Visceral larva migrans.
b) Encysted Trichinella spiralis larvae.
c) Cut Medina worm.
d) Ruptured hydatid cyst.

A

b) Encysted Trichinella spiralis larvae.

90
Q
  1. The specimen of choice for the recovery of L. donovani is:

a) Bone marrow aspirate
b) Lymph node sample.
c) Skin lesion biopsy material
d) Urine sample

A

a) Bone marrow aspirate

91
Q
  1. Urogenital myiasis is caused by:

a) Musca larva.
b) Fannia larva.
c) Sarcophaga larva.
d) Anopheles larva.

A

b) Fannia larva.

92
Q
  1. Ingestion of infective larva is mode of infection with:

a) Ancylostoma & Necator
b) Trichostrongylus & Capillaria
c) Strongyloides & Capillaria
d) Trichinella & Capillaria

A

b) Trichostrongylus & Capillaria

93
Q
  1. Regarding trypanosomal chancre:

a) Caused by bite of triatomine bugs
b) It is relatively painless
c) Very frequent in endemic populations
d) After healing, the skin is back to normal

A

b) It is relatively painless

94
Q
  1. Chagas’ disease in the immunocompromised may show:

a) Pneumonitis.
b) Chronic watery diarrhoea
c)Meningoencephalitis
d) Malabsorption

A

c)Meningoencephalitis

95
Q
  1. Amoeboid and flagellate forms are found with:

a) Entamoeba coli
b) Balantidium coli
c) Naegleria fowleri
d) Acanthamoeba

A

c) Naegleria fowleri

96
Q
  1. The following arthropod develops by incomplete metamorphosis:

a) Sandfly
b) Sand flea
c) Mosquito
d) Bed bug

A

d) Bed bug

97
Q
  1. Endemic typhus is transmitted by:

a) Bite of infected lice.
b) Fleas, anterior station.
c) Fleas, posterior station.
d) Mites, transovarian.

A

c) Fleas, posterior station.

98
Q
  1. Diagnostic stage(s) in scabies:

a) Eggs and larvae.
b) Eggs and nymphs.
c) Larvae and nymhps.
d) Eggs and adults.

A

d) Eggs and adults.

99
Q
  1. Domestic mites:

a) Are involved in bronchial asthma
b) Do not feed on blood
c) Inhabit air-conditioning ducts
d) Are treated by topical crotamiton

A

c) Inhabit air-conditioning ducts

100
Q
  1. Cyclops is not involved in the life cycle of:

a) Sparganum proliferum
b) Diphyllobothrium latum
c) Dracunculus medinensis
d) Linguatula serrata

A

c) Dracunculus medinensis

101
Q
  1. The following is True regarding septicaemic malaria:

a) Severe headache, drowsiness, coma & death.
b) Occurs due to immune complex deposition.
c) Dissemination of the parasite to various organs, leading to multi-orgqn failure.
d) Not directly related to cytoadherance.

A

c) Dissemination of the parasite to various organs, leading to multi-orgqn failure.

102
Q
  1. As regards pathogenesis of malaria The following is INCORRECT:

a) Jaundice is due to hepatic dysfunction & sever haemlysis.
b) Sudden massive intravascular hemolysis of non- parasitized red cells resulting in black
water fever.
c) The pathogenicity of Plasmodium falciparum is mainly due to cytoadherence.
d) Acute renal failure is due to acute tubular necrosis caused by renal anoxia

A

b) Sudden massive intravascular hemolysis of non- parasitized red cells resulting in black
water fever.

103
Q
  1. The following is NOT true regarding black water fever:

a) Occurs in severely infected non immune adults.
b) Occurs due to over-infusion of I.V. fluids.
c) It is often fatal due to renal failure.
d) Antibodies acting as hemolysins against RBC antigen

A

b) Occurs due to over-infusion of I.V. fluids.

104
Q
  1. Man is intermediate host only in cases of:

a) Malaria and toxoplasmosis.
b) African and American trypanosomiasis.
c) Toxoplasmosis and leishmaniasis.
d) Malaria and leishmaniasis.

A

a) Malaria and toxoplasmosis.

105
Q
  1. The presence of a rounded cyst with eight nuclei in a stool sample requires:

a) Repeating the stool analysis
b) Treatment with nitazoxanide
c) Repeated treatment with metronidazole
d) No treatment

A

d) No treatment

106
Q
  1. Autofluorescent oocysts are those of:

a) Cystoisospora belli.
b) Cryptosporidium parvum.
c) Giardia lamblia.
d) Cyclospora cayetanensis

A

d) Cyclospora cayetanensis

107
Q
  1. Intestinal biopsy in cases of cryptosporidiosis may show:

a) Meronts and gamonts
b) Merozoites and sporozoites
c) Thin and thick shelled oocysts
d) Sporulated and unsporulated oocysts

A

a) Meronts and gamonts

108
Q
  1. The most prominent and consistent symptoms in cyclosporiasis are:

a) Cholangitis and
cholecystitis
b) Loss of weight and cachexia
c) Anorexia and fatigue
d) Dysentery and tenesmus

A

c) Anorexia and fatigue

109
Q
  1. Irritable bowel syndrome is linked to infection with:

a) Entamoeba polecki
b) Trichuris trichiura
c) Blastocystis hominis
d) Strongyloides stercoralis

A

c) Blastocystis hominis

110
Q
  1. Spurious infection is related to:

a) Halzoun
b) Fascioliasis
c) Sparganosis
d) Hydatidosis

A

b) Fascioliasis

111
Q
  1. Babesiosis is transmitted by bite of:

a) Mosquito.
b) Sandfly.
c) Reduviid bug.
d) Ticks.

A

d) Ticks.

112
Q
  1. Parasite that is not transmitted through vegetables:

a) Fasciola.
b) Heterophyes.
c) Taenia solium.
d) Amoeba.

A

b) Heterophyes.

113
Q
  1. Parasite that does not appear in urine:

a) Microfilaria of W. bancrofti
b) Egg of Schistosoma haematobium.
c) Hydatid sand.
d) Plasmodium falciparum.

A

d) Plasmodium falciparum.

114
Q
  1. The following is not a parasite that may be found in muscles:

a) Cysticerccus cellulosae.
b) Trichinella spiralis.
c) African trypanosomes.
d) Sparganum.

A

c) African trypanosomes.

115
Q
  1. A parasitic stage that is not detected in sputum:

a) Hydatid sand.
b) Cysts of Giardia lambilia.
c) Entamoeba histolytica trophozoites.
d) Larvae of Ascaris

A

b) Cysts of Giardia lambilia.

116
Q
  1. Dysentery is not associated with:

a) Intestinal amoebiasis.
b) Cryptosporidiosis.
c) kala-azar.
d) Malignant malaria.

A

b) Cryptosporidiosis.

117
Q
  1. Only one intermediate host is required in the life cycle of:

a) Heterophyes.
b) Diphyllobothrium latum.
c) Diphyllobothrium mansoni.
d) Taenia sagniata.

A

d) Taenia sagniata.

118
Q
  1. Cats may be a source of infection with:

a) Coenurosis & hydatidosis
b) Toxocariasis & hydatidosis
c) Toxocariasis & toxoplasmosis
d) Strongyloidiasis & capillariasis

A

c) Toxocariasis & toxoplasmosis

119
Q
  1. Chronic eosinophilia is associated with:

a) Strongyloidiasis
b) Toxocariasis.
c) Schistosomiasis.
d) Trichinosis

A

b) Toxocariasis.

120
Q
  1. Man acts as both final and intermediate hosts in infection with:

a) Toxoplasma gondii
b) Plasmodium malariae.
c) Babesia bovis.
d) Cystoisospora belli.

A

d) Cystoisospora belli.

INF 309 (15 decks)

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