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INF 309 > Micro bacteriology MCQS > Flashcards

Micro bacteriology MCQS Flashcards

1
Q

1- The localized nature of S. aureus lesions is due to:

a- Adhesins
b- Protein A
c- Staphylocoagulase
d- Staphylokinase
e- Catalase

A

c- Staphylocoagulase

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2
Q

2- The following statements about S. aureus food poisoning are true EXCEPT:

a- It is caused by enterotoxins.
b- The source of contamination is usually a carrier.
c- The incubation period is 24-36 hours.
d- Food contains preformed toxin.
e- The responsible toxin acts as a superantigen.

A

c- The incubation period is 24-36 hours.

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3
Q

3- MRSA isolates are treated empirically by:

a- Erythromycin
b- Vancomycin
c- Clindamycin
d- Cephalosporins
e- Tetracycline

A

b- Vancomycin

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4
Q

4-The most Important factor enabling S. epidermidis to colonize prosthetic devices Is:

a- Production of coagulase
b- Resistance to many antibiotics
c- Production of glycocalyx
d- Production of exotoxin
e- Production of clumping factor

A

c- Production of glycocalyx

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5
Q

1- The following are virulence factors for S. pyogenes EXCEPT:

a- Fibronectin binding protein
b- M protein
c- Hyaluronic acid capsule
d- Fibrinolysin
e- Coagulase

A

e- Coagulase

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6
Q

2- Acute rheumatic fever:

a- Is diagnosed by elevated anti-DNAse antibodies
b- Usually follows streptococcal skin infections
c- Is caused by streptococcal invasion of the cardiac valves
d- Should be followed by chemoprophylaxis to prevent further attacks
e- Develops 3-6 months following an acute streptococcal disease

A

d- Should be followed by chemoprophylaxis to prevent further attacks

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7
Q

3- Which of the following procedures is most likely to reduce the incidence of group B streptococcal sepsis in infants:

a- Intrapartum antibiotic treatment
b- Use of a polysaccharide vaccine
c- Screening of pregnant females in the first trimester
d- Identification of possible high risk births
e- Antibiotic treatment of the newborn

A

a- Intrapartum antibiotic treatment

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8
Q

4- After extraction of a tooth, a student with history of congenital heart disease was diagnosed as having subacute bacterial endocarditis. The most likely organism causing this infection is:

a- Staphylococcus aureus
b- Staphylococcus epidermidis
c- Streptococcus pneumoniae
d- Viridans streptococci
e- Enterococci

A

d- Viridans streptococci

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9
Q

5- If a quellung test was done on the following bacterial isolates, which one would you expect to be positive?

a- S. pneumoniae
b- S. pyogenes
c- S. aureus
d- Viridans streptococci e- S. epidermidis

A

a- S. pneumoniae

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10
Q

1- Enterococci differ from streptococci in the following EXCEPT:

a- They can grow at 45°C.
b- They are salt tolerant.
c- They tolerate bile salts
d- They hydrolyze the polysaccharide esculin. e- They are catalase negative

A

e- They are catalase negative

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11
Q

1- All the following are characters of the genus Neisseria EXCEPT:

a- Gram negative diplococci
b- Kidney shaped
c- Aerobic
d- Oxidase negative
e- Including commensals and pathogenic species

A

d- Oxidase negative

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12
Q

3- In adult females, gonococci infect the following sites EXCEPT:

a- The cervix
b- The vagina
c- Urethra
d- Vulva
e- Rectum

A

b- The vagina

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12
Q

2- N. gonorrhoeae is a fastidious pathogen found in sites often contaminated with normal flora. The best medium for isolation is:

a- Blood agar
b- Loeffler’s medium
c- Thayer-Martin medium
d- Thiosulphate citrate bile salts sucrose medium
e- Lowenstein Jensen medium

A

c- Thayer-Martin medium

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12
Q

1- The following statements concerning B. anthracis are correct EXCEPT:

a- It is a Gram-positive spore forming bacillus.
b- It causes a zoonotic disease.
c- It is a typical biological weapon.
d- The toxin is its only virulence factor.
e- It can cause pneumonia or skin lesions.

A

d- The toxin is its only virulence factor.

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12
Q

4- The most important virulence factor in N. meningitidis is:

a- IgA protease
b- Outer membrane protein
c- Pili
d- The polysaccharide capsule
e- Lipid A

A

d- The polysaccharide capsule

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13
Q

2- The emetic form of B. cereus food poisoning is characterized by the following EXCEPT:

a- It resembles S. aureus food poisoning
b- It has a short incubation period.
c-The incriminated food is usually fried rice.
d- It is due to heat labile enterotoxin.
e- It is manifested by vomiting and abdominal cramps.

A

d- It is due to heat labile enterotoxin.

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14
Q

3- The following is true about Clostridium perfringens EXCEPT:

a- It causes gas gangrene.
b-It causes food poisoning.
c-It produces an exotoxin that degrades lecithin.
d-Endotoxin is a virulence factor of the organism,
e-It is one of the indicators of faecal pollution of water.

A

d-Endotoxin is a virulence factor of the organism,

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15
Q

4- Active immunization against tetanus is given to the following EXCEPT:

a- Pregnant females
b- Infants in the first year of life
c- Military personnel
d- Wounded individuals with history of vaccination within 2 years
e- Routinely every 10 years

A

d- Wounded individuals with history of vaccination within 2 years

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16
Q

5- Symptoms of botulism are due to:

a- Invasion of the gut epithelium by C. botulinum
b- Secretion of an enterotoxin
c- Ingestion of a neurotoxin
d- Endotoxic shock
e- Activation of cyclic AMP

A

c- Ingestion of a neurotoxin

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17
Q

6- A patient presents with severe colitis associated with an overgrowth of C. difficile in the bowel. The most likely cause of this condition is:

a- Botulinum food poisoning
b- A stomach ulcer
c- Compromised immune system
d- Antibiotic therapy
e- Mechanical blockage of the large intestine

A

d- Antibiotic therapy

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17
Q

1- The following bacteria belong to Enterobacteriacae family EXCEPT:

a- Escherichia
b- Shigella
c- Yersinia
d- Salmonella
e- Pseudomonas

A

e- Pseudomonas

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17
Q

2- E. co//that produces shiga-like toxin is:

a- Enterotoxigenic E. coli
b- Enterohaemorrhagic E. coli
c- Enteroinvasive E. coli
d- Enteroaggregative E. coli
e- Enteropathogenic E. coli

A

b- Enterohaemorrhagic E. coli

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18
Q

3- Klebsiella species are characterized by all the following EXCEPT:

a- Resistant strains are important agents of nosocomial infections.
b- They may cause urinary tract infection and neonatal sepsis,
c- They have a thick polysaccharide capsule.
d- Some species may cause rhinoscleroma.
e- They are indole positive.

A

e- They are indole positive.

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19
Q

4- The following statements describing Salmonella species are all correct EXCEPT:

a- They are gram-negative bacilli.
b- They grow as pink colonies on MacConkey and DCA media,
c- They are urease-negative.
d- They cause food poisoning.
e- They cause enteric fever.

A

b- They grow as pink colonies on MacConkey and DCA media,

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20
Q

5- Concerning the Widal test:

a- It is a toxin-antitoxin neutralization test.
b- It is positive on the third day of fever.
c- Early treatment leads to high titres.
d- Titre >1:160 against O and H antigens indicates active infection,
e- Titres up to 1:160 are considered normal.

A

d- Titre >1:160 against O and H antigens indicates active infection,

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21
Q

6- TAB vaccine is used for protection against:

a- Meningitis
b- Enteric fever
c- Tuberculosis
d- Diphtheria
e- Tetanus

A

b- Enteric fever

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22
Q

7- Regarding Shigella dyenteriae all the following statements are correct EXCEPT:

a- It is a member of Enterobacteriaceae.
b- It produces a toxin that may result in renal failure,
c- It grows on MacConkey’s medium as colourless colonies,
d- Serological identification depends on 0 and H antigens,
e- It causes bloody diarrhoea.

A

d- Serological identification depends on 0 and H antigens,

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23
Q

8- Proteus can be differentiated from Salmonella by being:

a- Gram-negative bacilli
b- Non-lactose fermenter
c- Urease-positive
d- H2S-positive
e- Motile

A

c- Urease-positive

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24
Q

1- The following statements refer to H. influenzae EXCEPT:

a- It is pleomorphic.
b- Its major virulence factor is IgA protease.
c- It requires both X-factor and V-factor for growth.
d- It is one of the major causes of meningitis.
e- It causes infection mainly in children between 6 months and 6 years of age.

A

b- Its major virulence factor is IgA protease.

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25
Q

2- Haemophilus influenzae type b:

a- Is a Gram-positive rod
b- Is a common cause of influenza
c- Can grow alone on blood agar
d- Has a polysaccharide capsule
e- Is the most common cause of urinary tract infection

A

b- Is a common cause of influenza

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26
Q

3- The vaccine against H. influenzae is:

a- Live attenuated H. influenzae
b- Killed H. influenzae
c- Toxoid derived from H. influenzae
d- Polysaccharide derived from H. influenzae
e- Polysaccharide derived from H. influenzae conjugated to a protein

A

e- Polysaccharide derived from H. influenzae conjugated to a protein

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27
Q

4- A 2-year-old child came to the emergency room with high fever and breathing difficulty. Clinical investigation revealed inflammatory
swelling of the epiglottis. Which of the following organisms is the most likely causative organism?

a- Haemophilus influenzae
b- Haemophilus ducreyi
c- Haemophillus aegyptius
d- Bordetella pertussis
e- Neisseria meningitidis

A

a- Haemophilus influenzae

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28
Q

5- Chancroid is characterized by the following EXCEPT:

a- It is caused by Haemophilus ducreyi.
b- It is a sexually-transmitted disease.
c-It manifests as a genital ulcer.
d-It is hard and painless.
e- It is accompanied by enlarged inguinal lymph nodes.

A

d-It is hard and painless.

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29
Q

1- Peritonitis caused by B. fragilis is acquired:

a- Faeco-orally
b- By ingestion of contaminated food
c- As a complication of food poisoning
d- As an endogenous infection
e- By a puncture wound

A

d- As an endogenous infection

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30
Q

2- Which of the following is correct about B. fragilis:

a- It is the most likely organism to cause gastroenteritis following antibiotic treatment.
b- It is sensitive to penicillin.
c- It is the predominant organism in the human gastrointestinal tract,
d- It may cause flaccid paralysis which may lead to respiratory arrest,
e- It is the most common organism causing urinary tract infection.

A

c- It is the predominant organism in the human gastrointestinal tract,

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31
Q

3- Fusobacterium contributes to the pathogenesis of:

a- Acne vulgaris
b- Necrotizing fasciitis
c- Bacterial vaginosis
d- Vincent’s angina
e- Honeymoon cystitis

A

d- Vincent’s angina

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32
Q

1- M. tuberculosis can be isolated by culture on:

a- Blood agar
b- Loeffler’s serum
c- Modified Thayer-Martin
d- Thiosulfate citrate bile salt sucrose (TCBS) agar
e- Lowenstein-Jensen medium

A

e- Lowenstein-Jensen medium

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33
Q

2- As regards the diagnosis of tuberculosis, the following are correct EXCEPT:

a- Three morning sputum samples should be examined.
b- Tuberculin test may give false positive and false negative results,
c- Detection of acid-fast bacilli in smears provides early presumptive diagnosis.
d- Liquefaction of tenacious samples is required before culture,
e- Growth on Lowenstein-Jensen medium appears after 48-72 hours.

A

e- Growth on Lowenstein-Jensen medium appears after 48-72 hours.

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34
Q

3- Regarding tuberculin test:

a- It depends on immediate hypersensitivity,
b- It depends on presence of sensitized Th2 cells,
c- A wheal and flare is considered positive,
d- People vaccinated with BCG give a negative result,
e- It is read after 48-72 hours.

A

e- It is read after 48-72 hours.

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35
Q

4- Treatment of tuberculous disease:

a- Is initiated with a single first line chemotherapeutic agent
b- Usually requires prolonged bed rest and surgery
c- Is continued until tuberculin test reverts to negative
d- Always results in negative sputum cultures and clinical cure within 3 weeks
e- Always necessitates the use of combined, prolonged drug therapy

A

e- Always necessitates the use of combined, prolonged drug therapy

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36
Q

5- BCG vaccine, used for the prevention of tuberculosis is:

a- Heat killed vaccine
b- Formalin inactivated vaccine
c- Living attenuated vaccine
d- Recombinant vaccine
e- Bacterial toxoid prepared from M. tuberculosis

A

c- Living attenuated vaccine

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37
Q

6- Which of the following organisms cannot be grown on artificial media?

a- S. pyogenes
b- S. epidermidis
c- K. pneumoniae
d- Salmonella Typhi
e- M. leprae

A

e- M. leprae

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38
Q

7- Tuberculoid leprosy has the following features EXCEPT:

a- Lepromin test is positive.
b- The course of the disease is benign.
c- Cell-mediated immunity is intact.
d- Acid fast bacilli are few in tissue smears,
e- Th2-type response is dominant.

A

e- Th2-type response is dominant.

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39
Q

1- All the following statements about primary syphilis are correct EXCEPT:

a- It manifests as a painless ulcer.
b- The characteristic lesion contains no organisms.
c- It can be diagnosed serologically during the late stage,
d- It is caused by Treponema pallidum.
e- It can be treated by penicillin.

A

b- The characteristic lesion contains no organisms.

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40
Q

2- Direct detection of T. pallidum cannot be done from:

a- Chancre
b- Mucous patches
c- Chondyloma lata
d- Gumma of internal organs
e- Any of the above

A

d- Gumma of internal organs

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41
Q

3- One of the following is a non-treponemal test:

a- The fluorescent treponemal antibody absorption
b- T. pallidum haemagglutination assay
c- The rapid plasma reagin test
d- The Western blot
e- The EIA

A

c- The rapid plasma reagin test

42
Q

4- Borrelia recurrentis:

a- Is the causative organism of epidemic typhus
b- Can be detected in blood films after staining with Giemsa stain
c- Can be grown on simple media
d- Is an antigenically stable organism
e- Is transmitted among individuals by ticks

A

b- Can be detected in blood films after staining with Giemsa stain

43
Q

5- Weil’s disease (infectious jaundice) is caused by:

a- Rickettsia typhi
b- Borrelia recurrentis
c- Coxiella burnetii
d- Leptospira interrogans
e- Borrelia burgdorferi

A

d- Leptospira interrogans

44
Q

6- Regarding Vincent’ angina all the following statements are correct EXCEPT:

a-It is an infection of the pharynx.
b-It is caused by oral spirochaetes and fusiform bacilli.
c-It is characterized by the formation of a pseudomembrane,
d-It may occur following viral infections e.g. HSV.
e-The causative organism(s) cannot be stained by Gram stain.

A

e-The causative organism(s) cannot be stained by Gram stain.

45
Q

1- Mycoplasma species are characterized by all of the following EXCEPT:

a- M. pneumoniae is one of the causes of atypical pneumonia.
b- Some species are transmitted sexually.
c- They are best treated with penicillin.
d- They are unstainable by Gram stain but readily stainable by Giemsa stain,
e- They are the only organism that contains sterol in the cell membrane.

A

c- They are best treated with penicillin.

46
Q

2- The lack of cell wall in Mycoplasma renders the organism:

a- Soluble in bile
b- Unstainable by Giemsa stain
c- Variable in shape
d- Unable to grow in cell-free culture media
e- Resistant to quinolones

A

c- Variable in shape

47
Q

3- Mycoplasma differs from Chlamydia in that they are:

a- Susceptible to penicillin
b- Able to grow on artificial cell-free media
c- Able to cause non-gonococcal urethritis
d- Able to stain well with Gram-stain
e- Able to cause disease in humans

A

b- Able to grow on artificial cell-free media

48
Q

1 - The following statements concerning Chlamydia are correct EXCEPT:

a- They are obligate intracellular parasites because they cannot synthesize sufficient energy.
b- They possess both DNA and RNA and are bounded by a cell wall,
c- C. trachomatis has multiple serotypes, but C. psittaci has only one serotype,
d- Some chlamydiae are transmitted by arthropods.
e- They multiply by binary fission.

A

d- Some chlamydiae are transmitted by arthropods.

49
Q

2- What is the metabolically inert, infective form of chlamydia that can survive extracellularly?

a- Reticulate body
b- Virion body
c- Elementary body
d- Inclusion body
e- Negri body

A

c- Elementary body

50
Q

3- The following diseases are caused by Chlamydia trachomatis EXCEPT:

a- Non-gonococcal urethritis
b- Psittacosis
c- Trachoma
d- Lymphogranuloma venereum e- Inclusion conjunctivitis

A

b- Psittacosis

51
Q

1- Regarding hepatitis A viral infection:

a- It can be prevented by an inactivated vaccine.
b- Liver enzymes are usually decreased.
c- Diagnosis is routinely done by isolating the virus in cell culture,
d- It usually causes a chronic form of hepatitis that ends in liver cirrhosis,
e- It is commonly acquired through contact with blood from an infected person.

A

a- It can be prevented by an inactivated vaccine.

52
Q

2- The hepatitis virus which is acquired faeco-orally and causes a high mortality rate in pregnant women is:

a- Hepatitis A virus
b- Hepatitis B virus
c- Hepatitis C virus
d- Hepatitis D vims
e- Hepatitis E vims

A

e- Hepatitis E vims

53
Q

3- The marker that is closely associated with HBV infectivity is:

a- HBsAg
b- HBeAg
c- Anti-HBs
d- Anti-HBe
e- Anti-HBc

A

b- HBeAg

54
Q

4- A patient with HBV Infection tested positive for HBsAg, negative for anti- HBsAbs, positive for anti-HBcAbs of IgG type and negative for anti- HBcAbs of IgM type. The diagnosis of this patient is most probably:

a- Acute HBV infection
b- Immune state following vaccination
c- Immune state following natural infection
d- Window phase
e- Chronic HBV infection

A

e- Chronic HBV infection

55
Q

5- All of the following statements about HCV are correct EXCEPT:

a- HCV-infected patients are predisposed to hepatocellular carcinoma,
b- HCV is an important cause of post-transfusion hepatitis,
c- An inactivated vaccine prevents the disease in exposed individuals,
d- Diagnosis is made by detecting anti-HCV antibodies by ELISA,
e- Alpha interferon + ribavirin (antiviral chemotherapy) are used in treatment.

A

c- An inactivated vaccine prevents the disease in exposed individuals,

56
Q

1- Whlch statement regarding HIV is TRUE?

a- Macrophages can act as reservoir for HIV.
b- Highly active antiretroviral therapy is very effective in eradicating HIV infection,
c- Neonates born to infected mothers should be tested serologically to establish
HIV infection.
d- Before entry into a susceptible cell, HIV is called “provirus”,
e- HIV is a non-enveloped virus.

A

a- Macrophages can act as reservoir for HIV.

57
Q

2- Which of the following is a receptor for the gp 120 envelope protein of HIV?

a- CD3
b- CD4
c- CD8
d- CD28
e- CD40

A

b- CD4

58
Q

3- During the acute retroviral syndrome:

a- CD4 T cell count falls below 200/mm3.
b- Patients become vulnerable to opportunistic infection,
c- HIV infected patients suffer an acute flu-like illness,
d- Patients suffer infections of the lung,
e- Patients develop cancers such as Kaposi’s sarcoma.

A

c- HIV infected patients suffer an acute flu-like illness,

59
Q

4- Diagnosis of HIV infection usually starts with one of the following tests:

a- ELISA for detection of antibody
b- Western blot
c- Virus isolation
d- PCR to detect proviral DNA in infected cells
e- RT PCR to measure amount of HIV RNA in plasma

A

a- ELISA for detection of antibody

60
Q

1- All the following statements regarding influenza virus neuraminidase (NA) are correct EXCEPT:

a- NA helps influenza virus to spread on mucosal surfaces,
b- NA allows viral progeny to be released from the infected cells,
c- NA projects from the viral envelope.
d- NA is found in type A influenza virus only,
e- NA is a glycoprotein.

A

d- NA is found in type A influenza virus only,

61
Q

2- Regarding antigenic shift of influenza virus all the following are true EXCEPT:

a- It occurs in type A virus only.
b- Strains generated by antigenic shift can cause pandemics,
c- The new strains generated are serologically similar to the parent strain,
d- It is caused by a major change in surface antigens,
e- Gene reassortment is responsible for appearance of the new antigens.

A

c- The new strains generated are serologically similar to the parent strain,

62
Q

1- A paramyxovirus that causes the syndrome known as croup is:

a- Adenovirus
b- Influenza virus
c- Measles virus
d- Parainfluenza virus
e- Respiratory syncytial virus

A

d- Parainfluenza virus

63
Q

2- A 3-year-old child presents at the physician’s office with symptoms of cough, coryza, conjunctivitis, low-grade fever, and Koplik’s spots. The causative agent of this disease belongs to which group of viruses?

a- Adenovirus
b- Herpesvirus
c- Picomavirus
d- Orthomyxovirus
e- Paramyxovirus

A

e- Paramyxovirus

64
Q

3- Which one of the following best characterizes the vaccine for measles?

a- Toxoid
b- Inactivated virus vaccine
c- Killed virus vaccine
d- Live attenuated virus vaccine
e- Recombinant viral vaccine

A

d- Live attenuated virus vaccine

65
Q

1- Rubella infection can be prevented by

a- A heat inactivated (killed) vaccine
b- A formalin inactivated toxoid
c- A recombinant vaccine
d- A split vaccine
e- A living attenuated vaccine

A

e- A living attenuated vaccine

66
Q

1- Which of the following viruses can cause fatal encephalitis?

a- Rabies virus
b- Rhinovirus
c- Cytomegalovirus
d- Respiratory syncytial virus
e- Mumps virus

A

a- Rabies virus

67
Q

2- The presence of Negri inclusion bodies in host cells is characteristic of which of the following?

a- Aseptic meningitis
b- Congenital rubella
c- Infectious mononucleosis
d- Mumps
e- Rabies

A

e- Rabies

68
Q

3- Post-exposure prophylaxis for previously vaccinated persons include:

a- Administration of HRIG as early as possible
b- Administration of 5 IM doses of rabies vaccine
c- Wound care and HRIG
d- Wound care and 2 IM doses of rabies vaccine
e- No prophylaxis is required in previously vaccinated persons

A

d- Wound care and 2 IM doses of rabies vaccine

69
Q

1- The nature of yellow fever vaccine is: a- Recombinant

b- Heat inactivated
c- Formalin inactivated
d- Living attenuated
e- Plasma derived

A

d- Living attenuated

70
Q

2- Zika virus infection:

a- Is primarily spread by droplets
b- May be transmitted sexually
c- Is not associated with viraemia
d- Can be prevented by a specific vaccine
e- Has a fatal outcome

A

b- May be transmitted sexually

71
Q

1- Enteroviruses are characterized by all of the following EXCEPT:

a- Infection may be transmitted faeco-orally.
b- They are common causes of aseptic meningitis.
C- They replicate in the GIT.
d- They are important causes of diarrhoea.
e- They include polioviruses and coxsackieviruses.

A

d- They are important causes of diarrhoea.

72
Q

2- Sabin poliovaccine can be considered superior to Salk vaccine in all of the following aspects EXCEPT:

a- Ease of administration
b- Safety
c- Ability of virus to pass through stools and be transmitted to non-immunized children
d- Ability of conferring local intestinal immunity
e- Ability to prevent all stages of the infection

A

b- Safety

73
Q

3- Repeated infections of common cold could be explained by all of the following EXCEPT:

a- Multiple antigenic types
b- Nature of infection is superficial
c- Serum antibodies play no significant role
d- Rhinoviruses are slow viruses
e- Immunity is mainly superficial by IgA

A

d- Rhinoviruses are slow viruses

74
Q

1- Which of the following Is the most common cause of infantile gastroenteritis?

a- Rotavirus
b- Adenovirus
c- Norwalk virus
d- Poliovirus
e- Hepatitis A virus

A

a- Rotavirus

75
Q

1- Herpes simplex virus-1 (HSV-1) diseases include all of the following EXCEPT:

a- Keratoconjunctivitis
b- Acute gingivostomatitis
c- Herpetic whitlow
d- Disseminated infections in AIDS patients
e- Genital infections

A

e- Genital infections

76
Q

2- Chickenpox is a common disease of childhood. It is caused by which of the following viruses?

a- Adenovirus
b- Cytomegalovirus
c- Papillomavirus
d- Rotavirus
e- Varicella virus

A

e- Varicella virus

77
Q

3- Which one of the following viruses is the leading cause of congenital malformations?

a- Cytomegalovirus
b- Mumps virus
c- Poliovirus
d- Respiratory syncytial virus
e- Rhinovirus

A

a- Cytomegalovirus

78
Q

4- Laboratory findings in infectious mononucleosis include:

a- Decreased total leucocytic count
b- Presence of heterophil antibodies
c- Decreased number of monocytes
d- Detection of EBV antigens using DNA probes
e- Detection of EBV antibodies using DNA probes

A

b- Presence of heterophil antibodies

79
Q

5- This virus may be detected by polymerase chain reaction (PCR) in a variety of cells of patients with nasopharyngeal carcinoma:

a- Measles virus
b- Mumps virus
c- Rubella virus
d- Parvovirus
e- Epstein-Barr virus

A

e- Epstein-Barr virus

80
Q

6- The virus associated with Kaposi’s sarcoma in AIDS patients is:

a- HSV-2
b- EBV
c- HHV-6
d- HHV-7
e- HHV-8

A

e- HHV-8

81
Q

1- All the following statements regarding eradication of smallpox by vaccine are true EXCEPT:

a- Smallpox has a single serotype.
b- There is no carrier state.
c- There is no subclinical infection.
d- Human is the only host.
e- The disease is difficult to be recognized clinically.

A

e- The disease is difficult to be recognized clinically.

82
Q

1- Which one of the following viruses would be most likely to establish a latent infection?

a- Adenovirus
b- Measles virus
c-Influenza virus
d- Parvovirus
e- Coxsackievirus group B

A

a- Adenovirus

83
Q

2- Swimming pool conjunctivitis is caused by:

a- Adenovirus
b- Cytomegalovirus
c- Human papilloma virus
d- Epstein-Barr virus
e- Coronaviruses

A

a- Adenovirus

84
Q

1- Which of the following is a virus that infects and lyses progenitor erythroid cells causing transient aplastic crisis in patients with haemolytic anaemia?

a- Encephalitis virus
b- Epstein-Barr virus
c- Parvovirus B19
d- Yellow fever virus
e- Cytomegalovirus

A

c- Parvovirus B19

85
Q

2- Which of the following is the causative viral agent of slapped cheek syndrome?

a- Ebolavirus
b- Parvovirus B19
c- Hantaan virus
d- Cytomegalovirus
e- Adenoviruses

A

b- Parvovirus B19

86
Q

1- Human papillomavirus vaccine:

a- Is a quadrivalent vaccine that prevents infection by types 6,11,16 and 18
b- Is routinely given to newborn females during their first year of life
c- Is a living attenuated vaccine
d- Is given mainly to post-menopausal women
e- Protects against development of ovarian cancer

A

a- Is a quadrivalent vaccine that prevents infection by types 6,11,16 and 18

87
Q

1- Which medium would be recommended for culturing a CSF specimen for fungi:

a- Loeffler’s serum medium
b- Blood agar
c- Modified Thayer-Martin medium
d- Sabouraud’s dextrose agar
e- Lowenstein-Jensen medium

A

d- Sabouraud’s dextrose agar

88
Q

2- All of the following is correct about Candida albicans EXCEPT:

a- It causes oral thrush.
b- It is a yeast fungus that replicates by budding,
c- It produces germ tube in serum at 37°C after 2 hours,
d- It produces chlamydospores on com meal agar,
e- It produces septate hyphae at 22°C.

A

e- It produces septate hyphae at 22°C.

89
Q

3- Cryptococcus neoformans has the following properties EXCEPT:

a- The organism is present in the soil contaminated with excreta of birds,
b- Infection occurs by inhalation resulting in cryptococcal pneumonia,
c- The organism has a thick capsule surrounding the budding yeast cell,
d- Secreted aflatoxin is hepatotoxic and carcinogenic,
e- In cases of meningitis, capsular antigen can be detected in CSF.

A

d- Secreted aflatoxin is hepatotoxic and carcinogenic,

90
Q

1- Regarding members of the normal flora, all of the following statements are true EXCEPT:

a- Transient colonization can be promptly reestablished when disturbed,
b- They may cause infections if they change their normal habitat.
c- Through “bacterial interference”, they prevent colonization of pathogens,
d- They may produce disease by superinfection mechanism,
e- They synthesize vitamin K in the intestine.

A

a- Transient colonization can be promptly reestablished when disturbed,

91
Q

2- Regarding the important members of normal flora at different body sites, which of the following pairs is mis-matched?

a- Skin………………..S epidermidis
b- Nose……………….S aureus
c- Throat ……………..Viridians streptococci
d- Colon……………….Bacteroides
e- Vagina ……………..E coli

A

e- Vagina ……………..E coli

92
Q

1- Neonatal meningitis is frequently caused by:

a- Enteroinvasive E. coli
b- E. coli K1
o- E. coli O157:H7
d- K. rhinoscleromatis
e- K. ozaenae

A

b- E. coli K1

93
Q

2- One of the causes of sterile pyuria is:

a- Renal tuberculosis
b- Urine contamination
c- Antibiotic-resistant bacteria
d- Bacteriodn-producing E. coli
e- Appropriate methods of sterilization

A

a- Renal tuberculosis

94
Q

3- Each of the following agents is a recognized cause of diarrhoea EXCEPT:

a- Clostridium perfringens
b- Enterococcus faecalis
c- Shigella dysenteriae
d- Vibrio cholerae
e- Campylobacterjejuni

A

b- Enterococcus faecalis

95
Q

4- Food poisoning is caused by the following EXCEPT:

a- Clostridium botulinum
b- Clostridium perfringens
c- Bacillus cereus
d- Salmonella Typhi
e- Staphylococcus aureus

A

d- Salmonella Typhi

96
Q

5- The following organisms cause primary atypical pneumonia EXCEPT:

a- Chlamydophila pneumoniae
b- Mycobacterium tuberculosis
c- Legionella pneumophila
d- Mycoplasma pneumoniae
e- Coxiella burnetii

A

b- Mycobacterium tuberculosis

97
Q

6- Pyrexia of undetermined origin (PUO) may be due to any of the following bacterial diseases EXCEPT:

a- Tuberculosis
b- Typhoid
c- Leptospirosis
d- Rift valley fever
e- Brucellosis

A

d- Rift valley fever

98
Q

1- One of the following can be transmitted sexually but does not cause genital lesions:

a- Treponema pallidum
b- Hepatitis B virus
c- Chlamydia trachomatis
d- Herpes simplex virus
e- Haemophilus ducreyii

A

b- Hepatitis B virus

99
Q

2- Transplacental infections are caused by the following EXCEPT:

a- Varicella-Zoster virus
b- Cytomegalovirus
c- Rubella virus
d- Haemophilus ducreyii
e- Treponema pallidum

A

d- Haemophilus ducreyii

100
Q

3- The following organisms have animal reservoirs EXCEPT:

a- Brucella melitensis
b- Yersinia pestis
c- Bordetella pertussis
d- Bacillus anthracis
e- Campylobacterjejuni

A

c- Bordetella pertussis

101
Q

4- Pathogens excreted in milk from diseased animals include all the following EXCEPT:

a- Mycobacterium bovis
b- Brucella abortus
c- Brucella melitensis
d- Vibrio cholerae
e- Coxiella burnetii

A

d- Vibrio cholerae

102
Q

5- All of the following viruses can be transmitted by blood transfusion EXCEPT:

a- Cytomegalovirus
b- Rubella virus
c- Hepatitis viruses B, C & D
d- HIV types 1 & 2
e- Epstein-Barr virus

A

b- Rubella virus

103
Q

1- The most common organisms causing hospital-acquired infections (HAIs) include all the following EXCEPT:

a- Staphylococcus aureus
b- Klebsiella pneumoniae
c- Streptococcus pyogenes
d- Escherichia coli
e- Pseudomonas aeruginosa

A

c- Streptococcus pyogenes

104
Q

2- Hospitalized patients infected with a multidrug resistant organism, such as MRSA:

a- Must be isolated in negative pressure room
b- Must be placed in an ordinary single room
c- Can be placed in a ward with other patients
d- Must be sent home immediately to avoid infecting others
e- Can be examined by staff not wearing gloves or gown

A

b- Must be placed in an ordinary single room

105
Q

3- Precautions applied to a patient with pulmonary tuberculosis include:

a- Standard precautions only
b- Standard precautions and airborne precautions
c- Standard precautions and droplet precautions
d- Standard precautions and contact precautions
e- No precautions are required

A

b- Standard precautions and airborne precautions

106
Q

1- The disease conditions in which human carriers play an important role include all of the following EXCEPT:

a- Enteric fever
b- Cholera
c- Diphtheria
d- Plague
e- Hepatitis B virus infection

A

d- Plague

107
Q

2- Agents in the highest risk category as causes for bioterrorism include the following EXCEPT:

a- Anthrax
b- Smallpox
c- Botulism
d- Diphtheria
e- Viral haemorrhagic fever

A

d- Diphtheria

108
Q

3- Diseases in which microscopic examination is sufficient for diagnosis include the following EXCEPT:

a- Leprosy
b- Tuberculosis
c- Bacterial vaginosis
d- Vincent angina
e- Acute male gonorrhoea

A

b- Tuberculosis

INF 309 (15 decks)

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