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MCQ para Flashcards

1
Q

4- Reservoir host is:

a) An animal harboring adult parasites & can be a source of human infections
b) An arthropod that has the ability to transmit a parasite to its specific host.
c) A host that is not normally infected with the parasite.
d) A host in which the larval/asexual phase of the parasite occur

A

a) An animal harboring adult parasites & can be a source of human infections

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2
Q

5- Female Anopheles mosquitoes:

a) Have no role in disease transmission
b) Transmit yellow fever.
c) Feed on plant juices.
d) Transmit human malaria

A

d) Transmit human malaria

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3
Q

7- The medical importance of fleas is:

a) Transmission of Plague
b) Transmission of endemic relapsing fever
c) Transmission of Epidemic Typhus
d) Transmission of Chagas disease

A

a) Transmission of Plague

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4
Q

13- The medical importance of soft ticks is;

a) Transmission of endemic relapsing fever
b) Transmission of Babesia
c) Causes grocer’s itch.
d) Causes rapid ascending flaccid paralysis.

A

a) Transmission of endemic relapsing fever

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5
Q

14- The following is True regarding Scrub typhus:

a) Transmitted by hard ticks
b) Trombicula larva is the vector
c) Female flea is the vector
d) Transmitted by adult mite.

A

b) Trombicula larva is the vector

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6
Q

15- Envenomization is an arthropodal harmful effect to man caused by:

a. Lice & bugs.
b. Chiggers mites & house dust mites.
c. Scorpions & ticks.
d. Fleas & scorpions

A

c. Scorpions & ticks.

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7
Q

16- Oroya fever, leishmaniasis & Harrara are all caused by:

a. Anopheles.
b. Fleas.
c. Flies.
d. Sandfly

A

d. Sandfly

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8
Q

17- Complete metamorphosis is characterized by:

a. Immature stages differ from adult stages morphologically as in fleas & flies.
b. Immature stages resemble adult stages morphologically as in mosquitoes & cyclops.
c. Immature stages differ from adult stages morphologically as in bugs & lice.
d. Immature stages resemble adult stages in size & morphology as in ticks & mites

A

a. Immature stages differ from adult stages morphologically as in fleas & flies.

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9
Q

19- Fleas are vectors of:

a. Rift valley fever.
b. Endemic typhus.
c. Epidemic relapsing fever.
d. Viral encephalitis.

A

b. Endemic typhus.

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10
Q

20- Bed Bugs are characterized by:

a. Permanent ectoparasites.
b. Day biters.
c. Blood feeders.
d. Painful face bites caused by Triatoma.

A

c. Blood feeders.

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11
Q

23- Rift valley fever, Yellow fever, Dengue fever & Wuchereria bancrofti are all transmitted by:

a. Anopheles.
b. Culex.
c. Aedes.
d. Ticks.

A

c. Aedes.

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12
Q

25- The following is NOT related to Chigger’s disease:

a. Caused by Chiggers mites.
b. Mainly affects the sole & toes
c. Caused by Tunga penetrans.
d. Causing nodular itchy tender swelling.

A

c. Caused by Tunga penetrans.

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13
Q

34- Routine diagnosis of lymphatic filariasis is done by:

a. Peripheral blood sample obtained by night.
b. Lymph node biopsy for detection of adults.
c. Detection of Ig G
d. Molecular diagnosis (PCR).

A

a. Peripheral blood sample obtained by night.

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14
Q

35- The following complication of malignant malaria is NOT directly related to Cytoadherence:

a. Algid malaria.
b. Acute renal failure.
c. Cerebral malaria.
d. Black water fever.

A

d. Black water fever.

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15
Q

47- Insect bites causing hypersensitivity reaction of:

a. Type I.
b. Type II.
c. Type III.
d. Type IV.

A

a. Type I.

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16
Q

48- Nephrotic syndrome occurs in Plasmodium malariae is due to:

a. Delayed hypersensitivity reaction.
b. Histamine release.
c. Immune complex deposition.
d. Antibody dependent cellular cytotoxicity.

A

c. Immune complex deposition.

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17
Q

49- Regarding Coenurosis the following is True

a. Man is the final host
b. Dogs & other canines are intermediate hosts
c. Egg of Multiceps multiceps is the infective stage.
d. Definitive diagnosis is radiologically by MRI

A

b. Dogs & other canines are intermediate hosts

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18
Q

57- Infected dog has NO role in infection with:

a. Neurocysticercosis
b. Visceral larva migrans
c. Hydatidosis
d. Coenurosis.

A

a. Neurocysticercosis

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19
Q

58- Naegleria fowleri is a facultative parasite of man that causes:

a. Granulomatous amoebic encephalitis
b. Primary amoebic meningoencephalitis.
c. Acanthamoeba keratitis in debilitated persons
d. CNS infection via haematogenous spread.

A

b. Primary amoebic meningoencephalitis.

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20
Q

59- Asthmatic symptoms, epileptic fits & convulsion could be manifestation of:

a. Cysticercosis.
b. Hydatidosis.
c. Coenurosis
d. Visceral larva migrans.

A

a. Cysticercosis.

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21
Q

60- The following is an infective stage to man.

a. Hydatid cyst in animal viscera.
b. Egg of Echinococcus granulosus
c. Larval stage of Multiceps multiceps
d. Flagellate form of Naeglaria fowleri

A

b. Egg of Echinococcus granulosus

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22
Q

62- Calabar swellings are characterized by:

a. They consist of fibrous tissue
b. Biopsy reveals microfilariae
c. They are allergic reactions to Onchocerca metabolites
d. They last for several days and subside slowly to appear elsewhere

A

c. They are allergic reactions to Onchocerca metabolites

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23
Q

63- The following could be infective to man:

a. Migrating larvae of Trichinella spiralis.
b. Filariform larvae of Ancylostoma caninum,
c. Microfilariae of Loa loa
d. Larvae discharged by female Dracunculus medinensis

A

a. Migrating larvae of Trichinella spiralis.

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24
Q

64- As regards dry cutaneous leishmaniasis the following is TRUE:

a. Microscopic examination of an aspirate reveals promastigotes
b. Healing occurs rapidly leaving no trace.
c. Montenegro test reveals a wheal within 20 minutes
d. It is followed by life-long immunity

A

a. Microscopic examination of an aspirate reveals promastigotes

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25
Q

65- A patient presenting with muscle pain, facial oedema, with a history of severe diarrhea and vomiting that occurred 2 weeks ago after a pork meal may have infection with:

a. Cordylobia larvae
b. Trichinella spiralis
c. Dracunculus medinensis
d. Gastric myiasis

A

b. Trichinella spiralis

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26
Q

68- Serpiginous tracks and small vesicles between the fingers, in the axillae and groin area are caused by:

a. Dermatobia
b. Sarcoptes scabii
c. Demodex brives
d. Filariform larva of Ancylostoma caninum

A

b. Sarcoptes scabii

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27
Q

69- As regards myiasis the following is TRUE:

a. Flies live only on living tissues cause semispecific myiasis
b. Semispecific myiasis is caused by Lucilia fly
c. Dermatobia can cause both specific and semispecific myiasis
d. Cutaneous myiasis is caused by Demodex folliculorum

A

c. Dermatobia can cause both specific and semispecific myiasis

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28
Q

70- The presence of stray dogs at beaches favours the transmission of:

a. Dracunculus medinensis
b. Scabies
c. Cutaneous larva migrans
d. Accidental myiasis

A

c. Cutaneous larva migrans

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29
Q

72- The following is a parasite of the hair follicle:

a. Demodex folliculorum
b. Demodex brives.
c. Sarcoptes scabiei.
d. Dracunculus medinensis.

A

a. Demodex folliculorum

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30
Q

73- The following is NOT a manifestation of onchocerciasis:

a. Leopard skin.
b. Lizard skin.
c. Hanging groin,
d. Oriental sore.

A

d. Oriental sore.

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31
Q

74- Subcutaneous filariasis are group of infections, all are characterized by:

a. Transmitted by an arthropod vector.
b. Transmitted by skin contact with infected soil.
c. Diagnosed by lymph node biopsy.
d. Diagnosed by skin snip

A

a. Transmitted by an arthropod vector.

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32
Q

75- Man acts as both definitive and intermediate host in:

a. Creeping eruption
b. Onchocercosis.
c. Loasis
d. Trichinosis.

A

d. Trichinosis.

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33
Q

79- Larva currens differs from creeping eruption in:

a. Perianal region, thigh & back are their preferable sites
b. Caused by migrating larvae of Acylostoma brazielianse
c. Man acts as an accidental host
d. Avoid skin contact with soil polluted with dogs faeces is the main preventive measure

A

a. Perianal region, thigh & back are their preferable sites

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34
Q

80- Leishmania tropica complex is characterized by:

a. Lutzomyia sandfly is the primary vector.
b. Promastigotes rapidly invade the skin macrophages change into amastigotes
c. Mucocutanoeus skin ulcers develop with lymphatic spread to lips & nasal mucosa
d. Spontaneous healing of diffuse cutaneous fascial lesions

A

b. Promastigotes rapidly invade the skin macrophages change into amastigotes

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35
Q

81- Tunnels under the skin is a presenting picture of infection with:

a. Demodex folliculorum
b. Cordylobia.
c. Leishmania tropica.
d. Sarcoptes scabiei.

A

d. Sarcoptes scabiei.

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36
Q

83- Regarding specific myiasis by Dermatobia:

a. Larvae can be found in sebum expressed from hair follicle.
b. Eggs are ingested in contaminated food.
c. Eggs are laid on another insect then hatching larvae penetrate the skin.
d. Larvae laid on the ground then penetrate the host skin.

A

c. Eggs are laid on another insect then hatching larvae penetrate the skin.

37
Q

85- Loa loa can be diagnosed by:

a. Detection of microfilarae in blood by day time.
b. Detection of larvae moving under the conjunctiva
c. Detection of adult worms in biopsy of subcutaneous nodules
d. Detection of microfialriae in biopsy of Calabar swelling

A

b. Detection of larvae moving under the conjunctiva

38
Q

88- Regarding trichinosis the following is NOT true:

a. Splinter hemorrhage is a diagnostic sign.
b. Affection of the eye may be associated with transient impairment of vision
c. Intestinal phase manifestations simulating acute food poisoning
d. The patient may die from pneumonia, encephalitis &heart failure.

A

a. Splinter hemorrhage is a diagnostic sign.

39
Q

92- Vector of Onchocerca volvulus is:

a. Chryspos
b. Simulium
c. Cyclops
d. Phlebotomus

A

b. Simulium

40
Q

93- Obligatory ectoparasite of the sebaceous glands is

a. Sarcoptes scabiei.
b. Cordylobia
c. Demodex brives
d. Dermatobia

A

c. Demodex brives

41
Q

94- Walking bare-footed in beaches contaminated with dog’s excreta carries risk of infection with:

a. Larva currens
b. Cutaneous leishmaniasis
c. Trichinella spiralis
d. Cutaneous larva migrans

A

d. Cutaneous larva migrans

42
Q

95- Anaphylaxis is a serious complication that may occur with:

a. Dracunculus medinensis
b. Trichinella spiralis.
c. Loa loa
d. Leishmania tropica

A

b. Trichinella spiralis.

43
Q

96- Abdominal pain, vomiting and diarrhea with larvae in stools & vomitus are characteristic features of infection with:

a. Trichinella spiralis
b. Intestinal myiasis
c. Dracunculus medinensis
d. Onchocerca volvulus.

A

a. Trichinella spiralis

44
Q

97- Both infective & diagnostic stages are the same in case of infection with;

a. Onchocerca volvulus.
b. Trichinella spiralis
c. Loa loa.
d. Dracunculus medinensis.

A

b. Trichinella spiralis

45
Q

102- In specific myiasis, the following is TRUE:

a. Larvae live on dead tissue.
b. arvae attracted to neglected wound by the offensive discharge
c. Larvae live only on/in living tissues
d. Larvae are accidentally ingested in contaminated food.

A

c. Larvae live only on/in living tissues

46
Q

105- Bloodless skin snip is used for diagnosis of:

a. Creeping eruption
b. Trichinosis
c. Onchocercosis
d. Espundia

A

c. Onchocercosis

47
Q

116- Drinking of water containing infected Cyclops is the mode of infection with:

a. Trichinella spiralis
b. Leishmania mexicana
c. Dracunculus medinensis.
d. Onchocerca volvulus.

A

c. Dracunculus medinensis.

48
Q

119- Diagnostic stage in cases of onchocerosis:

a. Amastigote in lymph nodes
b. Filariform larva in sputum
c. Promastigotes in culture
d. Microfilaria in skin snips.

A

d. Microfilaria in skin snips.

49
Q

125- Destruction of nasal septum and face disfigurement are seen with:

a. Oriental sore
b. Trichinosis
c. Onchocercosis.
d. Espundia

A

d. Espundia

50
Q

136- Bachman’s test is done to diagnose infection with:

a. Loa loa
b. Trichinella spiralis.
c. Onchocerca volvulus.
d. Ancylostoma braziliense

A

a. Loa loa

51
Q

139- Brugia malayi differs from Wuchereria bancrofti in:

a. Man is the only definitive host
b. Microfilariae are diurnally periodic
c. Allergic reactions necessitate the routine administration of antihistaminic
d. Dilated scrotal lymphatics is a common clinical sign.

A

b. Microfilariae are diurnally periodic

52
Q

148- Personal prophylaxis against schistosomiasis could be achieved by:

a. Treatment of asymptomatic carrier
b. Quick & thorough drying of the exposed skin.
c. Snail control.
d. Avoid of swimming in swimming pools

A

b. Quick & thorough drying of the exposed skin.

53
Q

153- The infective stage of Trichomonas vaginalis is:

a- The cercaria.
b- Cyst
c- The egg
d- Trophozoite

A

d- Trophozoite

54
Q

157- Liver periportal fibrosis in schistosomiasis haematobium is caused by:

a- Egg embolism
b- Cercarial penetration
c- Schistosomula migration.
d- Egg deposition & extrusion

A

a- Egg embolism

55
Q

161- Infective stage of Trichomonas vaginalis is the:

a. Trophozoite
b. Cyst
c. Cercaria
d. Egg

A

b. Cyst

56
Q

163- Symptoms of schistosomiasis appears after exposure to contaminated water by:

a- 2 weeks
b- 2 months.
c- 2 days.
d- 2 years.

A

c- 2 days.

57
Q

164- Schistosomula enter the human body & mature into adult stage in;

a- Vesical plexus of veins
b- Pulmonary arterioles
c- Portal veins in the liver.
d- Veins of the ureter & urethra.

A

c- Portal veins in the liver.

58
Q

166- Prevention & control of schistosomiasis could be achieved by:

a- Avoid contact with infected patient
b- Avoid micturition in canal water.
c- Avoid through drying of exposed skin
d- Avoid swimming in swimming pools

A

b- Avoid micturition in canal water.

59
Q

167- Characteristic finding of trichomoniasis is:

a- Terminal hematuria
b- Local dermatitis & rash,
c- Papillomata & sandy patches
d- Strawberry cervix.

A

d- Strawberry cervix.

60
Q

168- The following is TRUE regarding Trichomonas vaginalis

a- Bathing or swimming in infected water can invite the infection
b- Infection is established when vaginal acidity is lowered
c- Examination of the vaginal discharge is (The Gold Standard) for diagnosis
d- High eosinophilia, leukocytosis & anemia are characteristic features

A

b- Infection is established when vaginal acidity is lowered

61
Q

172- The following is NOT true regarding Loffler’s syndrome is:

a. Manifested by fever, cough & dyspnea.
b. Pneumonibs due to intense local inflammatory reaction.
c. Sputum examination shows; streaks of blood, eggs & eosinophils
d. Proper washing of raw vegetables is one of the preventive measures.

A

d. Proper washing of raw vegetables is one of the preventive measures.

62
Q

174- Regarding Loeffler syndrome; the following is TRUE:

a) Causes bronchial asthma due to release of allergic mediators
b) Is a permanent lung disease caused by larvae of some nematodes
c) Cause by migrating larvae of some cestodes
d) Treated by broad spectrum antibiotic and antihistaminic.

A

d) Treated by broad spectrum antibiotic and antihistaminic.

63
Q

178- Dermatophagoides species cause:

a. Loeffler syndrome
b. Lung abscess
c. Perennial rhinitis
d. Pneumonitis.

A

c. Perennial rhinitis

64
Q

191- Cysticercus bovis is the infective stage of:

a. Taenia solium.
b. Taenia saginata
c. Diphyllobothrium latum
d. Hymenolepis nana

A

b. Taenia saginata

65
Q

195- Perianal swab is used for diagnosis of:

a. Entamoeba histolylica.
b. Schistosoma japonicum.
c. Enterobius vermicularis
d. Fasciola hepatica.

A

c. Enterobius vermicularis

66
Q

196- Chronic watery diarrhea & lower limb oedema may be manifestations of

a. Ascariasis.
b. Taeniasis.
c. Hookworm disease
d. Capillariasis.

A

d. Capillariasis.

67
Q

199- Megaloblastic anemia is seen with:

a. Toxocariasis
b. Diphyllobothriasis.
c. Ancylostomiasis
d. Taeniasis solium

A

b. Diphyllobothriasis.

68
Q

202- High eosinophilia is NOT a feature of infection with:

a. Schistosomiasis,
b. Trichuriasis.
c. Visceral larva migrans.
d. Fascioliasis.

A

b. Trichuriasis.

69
Q

203- External autoinfection does NOT occur in:

a. Enterobius vermicularis.
b. Capillaria philippinensis.
c. Taenia solium.
d. Entamoeba histolytica

A

b. Capillaria philippinensis.

70
Q

207- Improper personal hygiene may resuit in hyperinfection in:

a. Ascariasis.
b. Strongyloidiasis
c. Cystoisosporiasis.
d. Ancylostomiasis.

A

c. Cystoisosporiasis.

71
Q

208- Diagnosis of giardiasis may be through detection of:

a. Oocysts in watery stool.
b. Trophozoites in formed stool.
c. Trophozoites in duodenal aspirate.
d. Cysts in watery stool.

A

c. Trophozoites in duodenal aspirate.

72
Q

210- The diagnostic stage & the infective stage are similar in:

a. Hymenolepis nana
b. Strongyloides stercoralis
c. Fasciola hepatica
d. Trichuris trichiura.

A

a. Hymenolepis nana

73
Q

213- The following can infect man by ingestion of paratenic host:

a. Hymenolepis nana.
b. Taenia solium
c. Capillaria philippinensis
d. Visceral larva migrans

A

d. Visceral larva migrans

74
Q

218- Egg of Taenia solium differ from that of Taenia saginata in:

a. Having a thin shell.
b. Being not infective to man.
c. Not staining with Ziehl Neelsen stain.
d. Being detected in pig excreta.

A

c. Not staining with Ziehl Neelsen stain.

75
Q

220- The following is NOT a geohelmithic parasite:

a. Enterobius vermicularis
b. Trichostrongylus colubriformis.
c. Ascaris lumbricoides
d. Ancylostoma duodenale

A

a. Enterobius vermicularis

76
Q

221- Autoinfection does NOT cause hyper infection in:

a- Capillariasis
b- Taeniasis solium.
c- Enterobiasis.
d- Strongyloidiasis.

A

b- Taeniasis solium.

77
Q

222- The pathogenic stage in cases of balantidiasis is:

a- Trophozoite
b- Cyst
c- Oocyst
d- Metacystic form

A

a- Trophozoite

78
Q

225- Man can be infected with the eggs of the following parasite:

a- capillaria philippinensis
b- Fasciola gigantica.
c - Tricuris triciura
d- Taenia saginata

A

c - Tricuris triciura

79
Q

232- Balantidiasis differ from amoebiasis in the following

a - It causes flask-shaped ulcer
b- Its habitat is the colon
c- One cyst gives one trophozoites
d- Man act as a definitive host

A

c- One cyst gives one trophozoites

80
Q

234- Regarding hydatidosis ; man may be infected by:

a- Ingestion Contaminated raw vegetables
b- Ingestion of infected liver of herbivores animals
c- External autoinfection.
d- Ingestion of under cooked meat.

A

a- Ingestion Contaminated raw vegetables

81
Q

235- Negative stool analysis result does not rule out infection with enterobiasis because:

a - Of intermittent shedding of eggs
b- Eggs need special stain for detection
c- Stool analysis is not the proper test for diagnosis
d- Eggs appear in faeces after several weeks

A

c- Stool analysis is not the proper test for diagnosis

82
Q

240- The following factor is NOT related to pathogenesis of intestinal amoebiasis:

a- Virulence of the parasite
b- Carbohydrate diet.
c- Stasis of intestinal contents.
d- Achlorhydria.

A

d- Achlorhydria.

83
Q

251- Which of the following is not an appropriate Trichostrongylus colubriform is prevention and control strategy?

a- Proper water treatment
b- Appropriate food handling.
c- Use of insect repellent
d- Proper sanitation practices

A

c- Use of insect repellent

84
Q

286- Adult worms execrated in stool in the following infection;

a- Ascariaisis.
b- Heterophyiasis.
c- Schistosomiasis
d- Trichuriasis

A

a- Ascariaisis.

85
Q

295- Periportal fibrosis could be an outcome in severe cases of:

a- Taeniasis.
b- Fascioliasis.
c- Schistosomiasis.
d- Heterophyiasis

A

c- Schistosomiasis.

86
Q

302- The intermediate host of Schistosoma mansoni is:

a- Biomphlaria alexandrina.
b- Pirenella conica.
c- Lymnaea cailliaudi,
d- Onchomelania

A

a- Biomphlaria alexandrina.

87
Q

303- Brain granulomas & lung emboli may complicate infection with:

a- Fascioliasis
b- Ancylostomiasis
c- Taeniasis solium
d- Heterophyiasis

A

d- Heterophyiasis

88
Q

304- Ingestion of raw or undercooked beef may carry risk of infection with:

a- Cysticercosis.
b- Cryptospridiosis
c- Hydatidosis.
d- Taeniasis

A

d- Taeniasis

INF 309 (15 decks)

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