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Breathing and Cir. Exam 3 > Parasitology > Flashcards

Parasitology Flashcards

1
Q

What do lungworms in the airway rely on to move their eggs up to the pharynx?

A

Mucociliary escalator

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2
Q

What is the inflammatory response related to lungworms a reaction to?

A

The worms themselves and eggs

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3
Q

Will there be an increase or decrease in clinical signs after a treatment for lungworms?

A

Increase → inflammatory response to dead worms

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4
Q

What is the metastrongylid nematode parasite of cats in which the adult worms are found in the terminal bronchioles and alveolar ducts?

A

Aelurostrongylus abstrusus

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5
Q

What is the often intermediate host for order strongylida?

A

Invertebrate → mollusc

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6
Q

How are parasites of order strongylida diagnosed?

A

Finding larvae in feces

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7
Q

What type of inflammation do A. abstrusus eggs and worms stimulate that leads to nodule formation?

A

Granulomatous inflammation

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8
Q

What two conditions/diseases are resultant of the inflammatory response to A. abstrusus, presenting with clinical signs such as cough, increased breath sounds, tachypnea/dyspnea, nasal discharge, and/or sneezing?

A

Severe bronchitis and emphysema

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9
Q

What is the preferred test for identifying parasitic larvae?

A

Baermann test

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10
Q

Can A. abstrusus larvae be seen in a fecal floatation?

A

Yes

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11
Q

What lung patterns can be seen on radiograph of cats with A. abstrusus infections?

A

Bronchial or interstitial patterns

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12
Q

What is the treatment for A. abstrusus?

A

Macrocyclic lactones

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13
Q

Are the enoplida Eucoleus aerophilus nematodes bigger or smaller than A. abstrusus?

A

Bigger → 20-40mm, A. abstrusus → 10mm

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14
Q

How is E. aerophilus diagnosed?

A

Eggs in fecal floatation

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15
Q

What are the possible treatment options for E. aerophilus?

A

Macrocyclic lactones → moxidectin specifically or fenbendazole

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16
Q

What is the treatment for Cuterebra spp.?

A

Physical removal

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17
Q

Systemic disease in cats with Toxoplasma gondii infections is associated with what action of the parasite?

A

Tachyzoite multiplication in tissues

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18
Q

(T/F) Although Toxocara cati migrate through the lungs, it is very unlikely to see clinical signs.

A

True

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19
Q

What is the fluke parasite that is found in lung parenchyma of wild animals, dogs, and cats?

A

Paragonimus kellicotti

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20
Q

Is the above parasite (P. kellicotti) zoonotic?

A

Yes

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21
Q

How many intermediate (maybe paratenic hosts) do P. kellicotti have?

A

Two

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22
Q

(T/F) Adult P. kellicotti forms cysts in pairs in the lungs.

A

True

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23
Q

How is P. kellicotti diagnosed?

A

Eggs in sedimentation fecal exam

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24
Q

How is P. kellicotti treated?

A

Praziquantel or fenbendazole

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25
Q

What is the Eucoleus species that is similar to E. aerophilus but lives in the nasal passages and is more commonly found in dogs?

A

E. boehmi

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26
Q

Which macrocyclic lactone may be the most effective in treatment of E. boehmi?

A

Moxidectin

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27
Q

What is the canine nasal mite that is transmitted directly and is typically asymptomatic?

A

Pneumonyssoides caninum

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28
Q

What are the three genuses of lungworms, all of which are rare in the US?

A

Crenosoma, Filaroides, and Oslerus

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29
Q

How can Strongyloides spp. cause respiratory signs?

A

Larval migration in heavy infections

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30
Q

Respiratory disease is associated with what action of ascarid nematodes?

A

Larval migration through the lungs

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31
Q

After a pig is infected with Ascaris suum, how long does it take for the lung damage and consequent clinical signs to appear?

A

1-2 weeks

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32
Q

(T/F) A fecal float test will be diagnostic when clinical signs begin in swine infected with Ascaris suum.

A

F, prepatent period not complete

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33
Q

What life stage of Ascaris suum is very difficult to kill?

A

Egg

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34
Q

Is Ascaris suum zoonotic?

A

Yes

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35
Q

What husbandry style is related to swine lungworm (Metastrongylus) infections?

A

Backyard, pastured pigs

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36
Q

What is the recommended interval for deworming for Parascaris prophylactically?

A

Every 2 months

37
Q

(T/F) Parascaris spp. Infections are common in young horses and respiratory disease from their larval migration is also common.

A

F, dz not common

38
Q

Dirofilaria immitis are parasites of where in the body?

A

Pulmonary arteries

39
Q

What size are female D. immitis worms?

40
Q

(T/F) The disease process of D. immitis involves their attachment and subsequent damage to the pulmonary arteries.

A

F, do not attach

41
Q

What are the two definitive hosts of D. immitis?

A

Dogs and ferrets

42
Q

What type of host are cats and other mammals for D. immitis?

43
Q

What is the relationship between D. immitis and Wolbachia?

A

Symbiotic → Wolbachia is required for survival and reproduction of D. immitis

44
Q

What is the prepatent period of D. immitis?

45
Q

What is the infective stage of the D. immitis life cycle?

46
Q

How long can microfilaria circulate in peripheral blood?

47
Q

What is the length of patency for D. immitis worms?

A

Up to 8 years

48
Q

What group of drugs are used in treatment for D. immitis?

A

Macrocyclic lactones

49
Q

(T/F) Macrocyclic lactones kill D. immitis L4 larvae when administered at any point in the life cycle.

A

F, only prior to 60 days

50
Q

What life stage of D. immitis can you not unalive?

A

Juvenile/immature adults

51
Q

What three things does the degree of damage due to D. immitis infection depend on?

A

Worm numbers, duration of infection, and host immune response

52
Q

What lifestyle characteristic plays an important role in pathogenesis of D. immitis infections?

53
Q

Is villous proliferation pathognomonic for D. immitis infections?

54
Q

What leads to tricuspid/right AV valve insufficiency related to D. immitis infections?

A

Increased arterial pressure

55
Q

How long can microfilaria circulate in peripheral blood?

56
Q

What occurs reflexively to the dilation of the right ventricle from the increased pressure and subsequent decreased cardiac output in D. immitis infections?

A

Compensatory hypertrophy

57
Q

What syndrome is the most severe manifestation of heartworm disease?

A

Caval syndrome

58
Q

What number of worms needs to be involved to induce caval syndrome?

59
Q

How is caval syndrome treated?

A

Surgical removal

60
Q

(T/F) Treatment and subsequent death of D. immitis worms tends to worsen the vascular damage being caused and enhance abnormal coagulation.

61
Q

The release of what (in relation to D. immitis infections) is associated with the increase of proinflammatory cytokines and a decrease of the host’s immune response?

62
Q

Treatment of heartworm positive dogs with what drug prior to treatment with immiticide will decrease the pathologic changes associated with Wolbachia release?

A

Doxycycline

63
Q

(T/F) D. immitis microfilariae are generally not pathogenic.

64
Q

Of the diagnostic tests for D. immitis (MF detective, antigen detection, and antibody detection), which is used in cats only?

65
Q

If a dog has adult worms but not circulating microfilaria, what type of infection is this?

A

Occult/hidden infection

66
Q

Though you can see microfilaria on a direct smear, what is the best diagnostic test for microfilaria detection?

A

Knott’s test

67
Q

Are false positives possible for heartworm disease?

A

Yes, non-pathogenic worm present in US that produces MF

68
Q

The antigen that is detected in D. immitis antigen tests is found in the highest amounts where?

A

Adult female worm reproductive tract

69
Q

When is annual D. immitis antigen testing especially indicated for dogs?

A

When preventatives are not used year round

70
Q

Dogs should not be tested for heartworm prior to what age?

A

6 months of age

71
Q

(T/F) ‘Heartworm preventive’ prevents heartworm infection.

72
Q

What drug class are the FDA approved heartworm preventatives that prevent development of adult worms that cause disease?

A

Macrocyclic lactones

73
Q

(T/F) Although macrocyclic lactones may kill microfilaria, they are only FDA approved to kill L3 and L4 stages up to 6-8 weeks post infection

74
Q

What is the duration of administration for doxycycline in the heartworm treatment protocol?

A

Day 1 - 28

75
Q

What should be done on day 30 in the process of heartworm treatment?

A

Administer heartworm preventative; apply mosquito repellent

76
Q

How long should you wait after your heartworm positive patient finishes their doxycycline course to administer the first melarsomine treatment?

A

1 month, day 61

77
Q

When is the second melarsomine treatment done?

A

1 month after the first treatment; day 90

78
Q

When is the third melarsomine treatment done?

A

1 day after the second treatment; day 91

79
Q

When should a knott’s test be performed after the third melarsomine treatment?

A

1 month; day 120

80
Q

What should be done if the above knott’s test is positive?

(When should a knott’s test be performed after the third melarsomine treatment? (1 month; day 120) )

A

Treat with microfilaricide and retest in 4 weeks

81
Q

When should an antigen test be performed after the third melarsomine treatment?

A

9 months; day 365

82
Q

What should be done if the above antigen test is positive?

When should an antigen test be performed after the third melarsomine treatment? (9 months; day 365)

A

Retreat with doxycycline followed by two doses of melarsomine 24 hours apart

83
Q

What is the protocol for the not FDA approved non-arsenical adulticide treatment?

A

Doxy for 4 week period, monthly oral ivermectin until no appreciable disease on testing, antigen and MF testing every 6 months

84
Q

(T/F) Exercise restriction is only applicable to arsenical heartworm treatment.

A

F, all hw treatments

85
Q

Why are cats considered abnormal hosts for D. immitis?

A

Do not effectively support transmission

86
Q

How do D. immitis infection related clinical signs differ in cats compared to dogs?

A

Cats - respiratory signs; dogs - circulatory signs

87
Q

(T/F) Knott’s tests are used in the diagnosis of heartworm in cats.

A

F, cats rarely have MF

88
Q

(T/F) Macrocyclic lactones are used as preventative in cats just as in dogs.

Breathing and Cir. Exam 3 (7 decks)

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