Paramedic Pathophysiology Flashcards

1
Q

When there is a fluid volume deficit, kidneys secrete:

A

renin

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2
Q

Main function of Renin in fluid volume deficit

A

stimulation of Angiotensin I secretion

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3
Q

___ converts Angiotensin I to Angiotensin II

A

Angiotensin converting enzyme

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4
Q

Angiotensin II serves these two purposes purpose

A

Peripheral vasoconstriction

Increasing secretion of aldosterone from Adrenal glands

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5
Q

Function of Aldosterone:

A

Stimulating distal convoluted tubule to reabsorb Na+

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6
Q

The compensatory mechanism for fluid volume deficit regulated by the kidneys

A

Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone-system

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7
Q

3 situations when the kidneys secrete renin:

A

High blood osmolality
Low blood volume
Low BP

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8
Q

Increased systemic hypertonicity triggers the release of ___ to aid in fluid retention

A

ADH

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9
Q

Pathologic H2O gain or blood protein loss can be referred to as:

A

Decreased blood osmolality
or
decreased oncotic pressure

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10
Q

SIADH = ___

A

Syndrome of inappropriate ADH

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11
Q

Explanation of SIADH

A

Increased/excessive ADH production

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12
Q

SIADH can be a cause of:

A

Fluid volume overload

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13
Q

SIADH works by:

A

Abnormally high levels of ADH > decreased urine output > increased vascular fluid volume

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14
Q

Fluid volume overload can also be cause by excessive loss of ___

A

solutes

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15
Q

Insufficient plasma compartment protein concentration

A

hypoproteinemia

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16
Q

3 possible otiologies of Hypoproteinemia:

A
Insufficient protein synthesis (liver cirrhosis)
Insufficient protein intake (malnutrition or alcoholism)
Kidney disease (glomerulonephritis)
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17
Q

Inflammation of the glomeruli

A

glomerulonephritis

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18
Q

Concept map of glomerulonephritis:

A

Inflammation of glomeruli causes diminished protein filtration from blood > protein spills into urine instead of recirculating > reduced blood osmolality/oncotic pressure > fluid shifts from blood to tissues > edema

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19
Q

2 Possible sequela of Hypoproteinemia:

A

Edema due to fluid shifts into the tissue

Muscular atrophy

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20
Q

A PT with fluid shifts from B>T is in:

A

fluid volume overload

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21
Q

Primary compensatory mechanism of fluid volume overload:

A

Natriuretic Pepside system

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22
Q

In the NPS, the __ and __ of the heart secrete __ and __

A

right atrium, left ventricle; atrial natriuretic peptide, B-type natriuretic peptide

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23
Q

The NPS is triggered by:

A

stretching of the heart muscle fibers by excess fluid volume

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24
Q

When natriuretic peptides reach the ___ they stimulate ___ to decrease fluid volume

A

kidneys; increase in urination

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25
Q

Abnormal mass of tissue

A

Tumor

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26
Q

Another term for abnormal mass of tissue

A

Neoplasm

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27
Q

“Not cancer”

A

Benign

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28
Q

“Cancer”

A

Malignant

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29
Q

Genetic mutation that sets cancer into motion

A

Oncogene

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30
Q

Cancer stating method

A

TNM

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31
Q

Benign tumors usually end with this suffix

A

-oma

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32
Q

Malignant tumors usually have these prefixes/roots

A

Sarco-, carcino-, blasto-

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33
Q

Malignant tumor of muscle tissue

A

Myosarcoma

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34
Q

Benign nerve cell tumor

A

Neuroma

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35
Q

Increase in the size of cells

A

Hypertrophy

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36
Q

Increase in the number of cells

A

Hyperplasia

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37
Q

Reversible replacement of cells of one type with another type

A

Metaplasia

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38
Q

Excessive fluid trapped in body tissues

A

edema

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39
Q

Most common type of edema

A

peripheral

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40
Q

Total fluid volume loss of ___% or more can lead to compromised homeostasis

A

30%

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41
Q

Hypertonic solutions have relatively higher ___ than interstitial fluid

A

osmotic pressure

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42
Q

Abnormal accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal cavity

A

ascites

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43
Q

PTs with CHF may present with ___ edema

A

pulmonary

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44
Q

A decrease in ECF with proportionate losses of NA+ and H2O

A

isotonic fluid deficit

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45
Q

Decreased urine output

A

Oliguria

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46
Q

Proportionate gain in both H2O and NA+

A

isotonic fluid excess

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47
Q

(Increased/Decreased) capillary colloidal osmotic pressure may cause edema

A

decreased

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48
Q

Normale serum NA+ range:

A

136-142 mEq/L

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49
Q

___ occurs when there is body water loss without proportionate loss of NA+

A

hypertonic fluid deficit

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50
Q

Serum NA+ level greater than 143 mEq/L

A

hypernatremia

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51
Q

NA+ is primarily found __

A

in blood and ECF

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52
Q

Serum NA+ level less than 135 mEq/L

A

Hyponatremia

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53
Q

___ fluid deficit occurs when there is NA+ loss in the body without proportionate H2O loss (relative water excess)

A

hypotonic fluid deficit

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54
Q

The major intracellular cation, crucial to many cellular functions

A

K+

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55
Q

Normal serum K+ range:

A

3.5-5.0 mEq/L

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56
Q

Decreased serum K+ level

A

hypokalemia

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57
Q

Medications that can inhibit K+ excretion:

A

spironolactone, ACE inhibitors, NSAIDs

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58
Q

Elevated K+ levels can interfere with ___

A

normal neuromuscular function

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59
Q

Hypoparathyroidism (endocrine disease) can lead to ___

A

hypocalcemia

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60
Q

Hypocalcemia can lead to ___ of neuromuscular & cardiovascular systems

A

increased excitation

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61
Q

__ may beg observed in the ECG of a PT with hypocalcemia

A

prolonged QT interval and dysrhythmias

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62
Q

Decreased serum phosphate

A

hypophosphatemia

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63
Q

Massive loading of phosphate into the ECF

A

hyperphosphatemia

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64
Q

Breakdown of muscle fibers that may occur as a result of low serum phosphate level

A

rhabdomyolysis

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65
Q

Second most abundant intracellular cation:

A

Magnesium

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66
Q

__ almost always occurs as a result of kidney insufficiency

A

hypermagnesemia

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67
Q

A ___ imbalance usually manifests itself as a disturbance in excitable tissues (especially the heart)

A

K+

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68
Q

Disturbances of ___ are associated with disturbances of K+ balance

A

acid-base imbalance

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69
Q

__ ions shift out of the cell in response to an influx of hydrogen (acidosis)

A

Ca2+

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70
Q

Ca2+ acts at the ___

A

neuromuscular junction

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71
Q

Because it works at the neuromuscular junction, __ decreases the rate of neural transmission

A

hypercalcemia

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72
Q

___ is characterized by hypersensitive neurons & and accelerated rate of neural transmission

A

hypocalcemia

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73
Q

___ causes increased cell permeability of Na+

A

hypocalcemia

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74
Q

Signs of hypocalcemia include: (4)

A

wheezing, stridor, crackles, bradycardia

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75
Q

Fluctuations in the level of bicarbonate cause ___

A

metabolic alkalosis or acidosis

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76
Q

Low pH caused baby inhibition of normal breathing pattern

A

respiratory acidosis

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77
Q

ABG findings of respiratory acidosis will usually involve:

A

low pH & high HCO3

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78
Q

Low pH caused by accumulation of acids

A

metabolic acidosis

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79
Q

ABG findings of metabolic acidosis will usually involve:

A

high low pH, low HCO3

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80
Q

State of high pH due to increase in normal breathing pattern

A

respiratory alkalosis

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81
Q

respiratory alkalosis will usually have ABG findings that reveal:

A

high pH, normal HCO3

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82
Q

OD of a CNS depressant (i.e. heroin) can cause:

A

respiratory acidosis

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83
Q

Respiratory acidosis is caused by:

A

accumulation of acids due to a decrease inn respiratory rate

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84
Q

Respiratory acidosis can cause a release of ___ into blood, which can cause potentially fatal dysrhythmias

A

K+

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85
Q

Respiratory acidosis is always related to ___

A

hypoventilation

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86
Q

Respiratory alkalosis is always associated with conditions that result in ___

A

hyperventilation

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87
Q

___ moves into the ICF to rebalance depleted H+ levels in respiratory alkalosis

A

Ca2+

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88
Q

Hypocalcemia resulting from respiratory alkalosis causes ___

A

muscle contractions

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89
Q

Muscle spasms in the fingers and toes causing them to flex in a claylike manner

A

carpopedal spasms

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90
Q

A classic sign of respiratory alkalosis:

A

hyperventilation accompanied by carpopedal spasms

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91
Q

___ usually occurs with increased urinary output or decreased gastric acid output

A

Metabolic alkalosis

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92
Q

Cellular death is followed by:

A

necrosis

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93
Q

During and after cell death, the cell and its organelles swell and release ___ that destroy intracellular components

A

enzymes

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94
Q

The earliest and most dangerous mediators produced by cells in response to hypoxia are:

A

free radicals

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95
Q

Definition of a free radical:

A

a molecule missing one electron in its outer shell

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96
Q

___ binds to hemoglobin more easily than O2

A

CO

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97
Q

___ measures the disease-causing ability of a microorganism

A

Virulence

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98
Q

The ___ of a microorganism is a measure of its ability to reproduce and cause disease within the human body

A

Pathogenicity

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99
Q

Cells that engulf and consume foreign material

A

macrophages

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100
Q

Poisonous substances produced inside a cell and released into the surrounding tissues or fluids

A

exotoxins

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101
Q

Toxins that affect the GI tract

A

enterotoxins

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102
Q

Toxins that affect the nervous tissue

A

neurotoxins

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103
Q

Toxins that affect a variety of tissue types:

A

cytotoxins

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104
Q

Chemicals or proteins released by WBCs that cause fever to develop

A

pyrogens

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105
Q

The body’s most common reaction to bacterial presence

A

inflammation

106
Q

The presence of bacteria in the blood

A

Bacteremia

107
Q

Potentially life-threatening systemic disease caused by the proliferation of microorganisms (or their toxins) in the blood

A

septicemia/sepsis

108
Q

Intracellular parasites that take over the metabolic processes of host cells to help them replicate

A

viruses

109
Q

Protein core of a virus that protects it from phagocytosis

A

capsid

110
Q

The protective response that occurs in the presence of cellular injury

A

inflammation

111
Q

Local effects of inflammation include

A

vasodilation & increased vascular permeability

112
Q

The increase in the number of leukocytes in the blood

A

leukocytosis

113
Q

Leukocytes are produced in the ___

A

bone marrow

114
Q

The best known protein that helps protect the body from tissue injury caused by inflammation

A

C-reactive protein/CRP

115
Q

Proteins released by the liver in response to tissue injury or inflammation

A

acute phase proteins

116
Q

When cellular membranes come into contact with cellular/chemical components of inflammatory response, Cellular swelling results from :

A

K+ leaking out of and H2O leaking into the cell

117
Q

Normal cell death

A

apoptosis

118
Q

Proteins produced by activation of genes as an underlying mechanism for apoptosis

A

caspases

119
Q

Product of the immune system being ineffective in destroying abnormal cells

A

tumor/cancer

120
Q

Result of morphologic changes that occur following cell death inn living tissues

A

necrosis

121
Q

2 categories of necrosis

A

simple, derived

122
Q

Necrosis where cells/tissue are recognizable

A

simple necrosis

123
Q

Necrosis characterized by Loss of all features of tissues/cells; resembles cheese under microscope

A

caseation necrosis

124
Q

Cell death typically caused by ischemia or infarction

A

coagulation necrosis

125
Q

Delivery of O2/nutrients and removal of wastes from cells, organs, tissues by the circulatory system

A

perfusion

126
Q

Decreased tissue perfusion below the normal level

A

hypoperfusion

127
Q

A condition in which the patient’s condition is stabilized by the body’s internal mechanisms in response to tissue hypoperfusion

A

compensated shock

128
Q

When hypo perfusion overcomes the body’s normal mechanisms in response to shock and the PTs condition deteriorate

A

decompensated shock

129
Q

The body releases ___ in response to hypoperfusion which result in increased vascular resistance

A

catecholamines

130
Q

2 catecholamines released by the body

A

epinephrine, norepinephrine

131
Q

The overall response of initial compensatory mechanisms is to increase ___

A

preload, stroke volume

132
Q

An abnormal state associated with inadequate oxygen & nutrient delivery to cells

A

shock

133
Q

Impairment of cellular metabolism prevents the body from properly using ___ at the cellular level

A

oxygen & glucose

134
Q

___ shock consists of cardiogenic shock and obstructive shock

A

Central

135
Q

___ shock includes hypovolemic and distributive shock

A

peripheral

136
Q

___ occurs when the heart cannot circulate enough blood to maintain adequate peripheral O2 delivery

A

cardiogenic

137
Q

Most common form of cariogenic shock:

A

MI

138
Q

___ occurs when blood flow becomes blocked in the heart or great vessels

A

obstructive shock

139
Q

Impairment of ventricular filling due to fluid surrounding the heart

A

pericardial tamponade

140
Q

___ occurs when the volume of circulating blood is insufficient to adequately circulate O2 & nutrients to the body

A

hypovolemic shock

141
Q

type of Hypovolemic shock due to external bleeding from a wound

A

exogenic hypovolemia

142
Q

___ occurs when there is widespread dilation of peripheral vessels

A

distributive shock

143
Q

type of Hypovolemic shock due to internal bleeding/fluid loss

A

endogenous hypovolemia

144
Q

3 most common types of distributive shock

A

anaphylactic, septic, neurogenic

145
Q

___ occurs when vasodilator proteins are released on exposure to an allergen

A

anaphylactic shock

146
Q

___ occurs as a result of widespread infection, usually by bacteria, that causes the immune system to be overwhelmed

A

septic shock

147
Q

___ usually results from spinal cord injury, causing loss of sympathetic nervous system tone & vasodilation

A

neurogenic shock

148
Q

A classic, but late sign of shock, especially in children

A

hypotension

149
Q

Peripheral pulse strength is related to ___

A

stroke volume & pulse pressures

150
Q

Slow, delayed, or prolonged ___ indicates shock

A

capillary refil time

151
Q

___ provides useful information about respiratory & ventilatory status of the PT

A

ETCO2

152
Q

Decreasing levels of ___ are Ann early indicator of shock

A

ETCO2

153
Q

Treatment of shock should focus on ___

A

the underlying condition

154
Q

A progressive condition that occurs in some critically ill patients

A

MODS | multiple organ dysfunction syndrome

155
Q

MODS is characterized by:

A

concurrent failure of 2 or more organs or organ systems initially unharmed by the underlying condition

156
Q

MODS is the major cause of death following ___

A

sepsis, trauma, or burn injuries

157
Q

___ are the body’s protection against foreign substances invading the body

A

anatomic barriers

158
Q

___ is the body’s defense reaction to any substance it recognizes as foreign

A

the immune response

159
Q

The immune response involves only one type of WBC, namely:

A

lymphocytes

160
Q

Components of the complement system that attract WBCs to fight the infection:

A

Chemotaxins

161
Q

Chemotaxins attract ___ to fight infection

A

leukocytes

162
Q

Set of proteins that insert themselves into bacterial membrane to weaken it

A

membrane attack complex

163
Q

Memory cells

A

B cells/B lymphocytes

164
Q

WBCs that release histamine

A

basophils

165
Q

WBCs that phagocytize bacteria

A

neutrophils

166
Q

WBCs that directly attack or produce antibodies

A

lymphocytes

167
Q

WBCs that are part of the first line of defense in the inflammatory process

A

Macrophages

168
Q

WBCs that develop from B cells and produce specific antibodies

A

Plasma cells

169
Q

Memory cells that produce in bone marrow and become either memory or antibody-secreting cells

A

B lymphocytes

170
Q

Cells that mature in the thymus and work to destroy antigens

A

T lymphocytes/T cells

171
Q

Cells that destroy virus-infected cells

A

Killer/Cytotoxic T cells

172
Q

Non-specific immunity that operates as the first-line defense against pathogens

A

natural immunity

173
Q

Highly specific, inducible, discriminatory method that allows the body to recognize a foreign substance and produce antibbodies

A

Acquired immunity

174
Q

Receipt of pre-formed antibodies to fight or prevent infection

A

passive acquired immunity

175
Q

The ___ occurs during the first exposure to an antigen

A

primary immune response

176
Q

The ___ occurs on subsequent exposure to a foreign substance

A

secondary immune response

177
Q

___ bind specific antigens

A

antibodies

178
Q

An antigen capable of generating an immune response

A

immunogen

179
Q

A substance that normally does not stimulate immune response but can be combined with an antigen to initiate a specific antibody response on it’s own

A

hapten

180
Q

___ immunity is mediated by B cells

A

humoral immunity

181
Q

B cells produce ___

A

Immunoglobulins

182
Q

Activation of B cells to produce antibodies occurs via ___

A

helper T cells

183
Q

__ degranulate and release a variety of substances during an inflammation response

A

Mast cells

184
Q

After degranulation, mast cells release ___

A

vasoactive amines

185
Q

2 important vasoactive amines released by mast cells

A

histamine, serotonin

186
Q

Slow reacting substances of anaphylaxis

A

leukotrienes

187
Q

Group of plasma proteins that attract WBCs to sites of inflammation

A

complement system

188
Q

___ serves a vital role in blood clot formation in vessels

A

the coagulation system

189
Q

The fibrous component of a blood clot

A

fibrin

190
Q

The ___ leads to the formation of bradykinin from kallikrein

A

kinin system

191
Q

The goal of cellular components of acute inflammation response is for ___ to arrive at the sites they are needed at

A

polymorphonuclear neutrophils

192
Q

Movement of WBCs to the sides of blood vessels

A

marination

193
Q

Leukocytosis as a result of inflammation is caused by:

A

production of more WBCs by bone marrow in response to demargination from stress

194
Q

The appearance of selectins and integrins on the surface of endothelial cells and polymorphonucleic neutrophils

A

activation

195
Q

Attachment of polymorphonuclein neutrophils to endothelial cells due to selectins

A

adhesion

196
Q

Polymorphonucleic neutrophils permeating the vessel wall into the interstitial space

A

transmigration/diapedesis

197
Q

movement of neutrophils toward the site of inflammation

A

chemotaxis

198
Q

Products of cells that affect the function of other cells

A

cytokines

199
Q

___ attract WBCs to the sites of injury or bacterial invasion

A

interleukins

200
Q

Protein produced by cells when invaded by viruses

A

interferons

201
Q

Interferon works by:

A

inducing healthy cells to manufacture enzymes to counter infection

202
Q

___ stimulate leukocytes

A

lymphokines

203
Q

___ keeps WBCs at the site of injury/infection until they can perform their designated task

A

Migration inhibitory factor

204
Q

__ cells divide continuously, so organs derived from these cells heal completely

A

labile

205
Q

___ cells are replaced by mitosis of remaining cells

A

stable

206
Q

___ can’t be replaced

A

permanent

207
Q

Damaged permanent cells are replaced bby

A

scar tissue

208
Q

The beginning of the process of scab formation

A

epithelialization

209
Q

Process during which the size of the wound becomes smaller as part of healing

A

contraction

210
Q

Vascular events of chronic inflammation are similar to that of acute inflammation, but also include:

A

angiogenesis

211
Q

Type of reaction that occurs in response to a stimulus

A

type I: immediate hypersensitivity reactions

212
Q

Disease characterized by autoimmune attack on the neuromuscular junction

A

myasthenia gravis

213
Q

Decrease in circulating neutrophils

A

neutropenia

214
Q

Blood disorder in which antibodies form to blood platelets that cause their destruction

A

idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura

215
Q

Decrease in blood paltelets

A

thrombocytopenia

216
Q

Pertaining to side-effects or complications of medical treatment

A

iatrogenic

217
Q

Type I hypersensitivity reactions are most commonly associated with:

A

IgE

218
Q

A person who has an allergic tendency is said to be:

A

atopic

219
Q

Pathology associated with malignant growths

A

cancer

220
Q

One of the most significant endocrine diseases

A

Diabetes mellitus

221
Q

___ is characterized by increased RBC destruction

A

hemolytic anemia

222
Q

Most sex-linked disorders are ___

A

X linked

223
Q

Number of new cases of a disease in a population

A

incidence

224
Q

of cases of disease in a population within a particular time frame

A

prevalence

225
Q

Presence of a disease

A

morbidity

226
Q

Number of deaths from a disease in a population

A

mortality

227
Q

In ___ a person needs to inherit only one copy of a particular form of a gene to show that trait

A

autosomal dominant

228
Q

In ___ a person needs to inherit 2 copies of a gene to show that trait

A

autosomal recessive

229
Q

Inherited disorder characterized by excessive bleeding

A

hemophilia

230
Q

Disease in which the body absorbs more iron than it needs

A

Hemochromatosis

231
Q

Disease of the myocardium that ultimately progresses to heart failure, MI, or death

A

cardiomyopathy

232
Q

___ is caused baby impaired circulation to the heart, usually due to coronary artery atherosclerotic buildup

A

Coronary heart/artery disease

233
Q

Good cholesterol

A

HDL

234
Q

Bad cholesterol

A

LDL

235
Q

___ is associated with increased risk of CAD

A

HTN

236
Q

Abnormal accumulation of uric acid in the blood and joints

A

gout

237
Q

Small masses of uric acid or calcium salts that form in the urinary tract

A

Kidney stones

238
Q

Caused baby defects in the function of the bowel wall, preventing adequate absorption

A

malabsorption disorders

239
Q

Defect or deficiency of the lactase enzyme

A

lactose intolerance

240
Q

Serious chronic inflammatory disease of the large intestine and rectum

A

Ulcerative colitis

241
Q

Chronic inflammatory disease of the colon or terminal portion of the small intestine

A

Crohn disease

242
Q

Characterized by circumscribed erosions of the mucus membranes of the GI tract

A

peptic ulcer disease

243
Q

Caused by precipitations of substances contained in bile

A

gallstones

244
Q

Disease characterized by jerky motions and mental deterioration

A

Huntington disease

245
Q

Disease characterized by cortical atrophy and loss of neurons in the frontal and temporal lobes of the brain

A

Alzheimer’s

246
Q

Group of mental disorders characterized by gross distortions of reality

A

Schizophreia

247
Q

Mental disorder characterized by episodes of mania and depression

A

bipolar disorder

248
Q

Medical term for a wide range of external stimuli

A

stress

249
Q

In a stress response, the brain to stimulate the ___ to secrete ___

A

pituitary gland ; adrenocorticotropic hormone

250
Q

ACTH stimulates the release of ___

A

glucocorticoids

251
Q

___ chracterizes a 3 stage reaction to stressors

A

General adaptation syndrome

252
Q

The body reacts to stress first by releasing:

A

catecholamines

253
Q

The most abundant catecholamines are ___

A

epinephrine, norepinephrine, dopamine

254
Q

During a stress response, the brain stimulates the ___ to secrete __

A

adrenal medulla; catecholamines

255
Q

Receptors in the SNS that allow certain responses to be activated

A

alpha and beta receptors

256
Q

3 stages of general adaptation syndrome

A

alert, resistance/adaptation, exhaustion

257
Q

The most significant glucocorticoid in the body

A

cortisol

258
Q

Cortisol controls metabolism of:

A

carbohydrate, fat, and proteins

259
Q

Predominant mineralocorticoid

A

aldosterone

260
Q

ACTH targets the ___ and causes the release of ___

A

adrenal cortex; cortisol

261
Q

Cortisol decreases the size of ___

A

lymphoid tissue