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Pathophysiology > Defense Mechanisms/Infection > Flashcards

Defense Mechanisms/Infection Flashcards

1
Q

Cell mediated responses typically occur in response to ___

A

viral infections

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2
Q

Humoral mediated responses typically respond to ___

A

bacterial infections

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3
Q

Negative effects of fever:

A

vasodilation causes hypotension

High temp causes increased metabolic rate which may lead to decompensation in elderly or infirmed

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4
Q

Type 1 Diabetes mellitus is caused by:

A

T-cells destroying insulin producing cells in the pancreas

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5
Q

Role of the inflammatory response:

A

Facilitate fluid shifting to clean the area, begun clotting process, promote healing, and stimulate 3rd line defense as needed

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6
Q

Immunodeficiencies are:

A

an abnormality in one or more branches of the immune system that renders a person more susceptible to disease normally prevented by the immune system

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7
Q

WBC count less than 5000

A

leukopenia

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8
Q

Two WBCs found in blood

A

Mast cells

Macrophages

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9
Q

Chronically inflamed tissue that is essentially scar tissue

A

granuloma

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10
Q

Qualitative defects of phagocytes

A

Chemotactic defect; impaired function

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11
Q

B-cells attack acetylcholine receptors resulting in weak muscle responses

A

Myasthenia Gravis

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12
Q

Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) typically attacks ___, and most commonly ___

A

collagen; synovial membranes

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13
Q

Functions of macrophages:

A

phagocytizing microbes

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14
Q

Definition of hypersensitivity:

A

when immunocytes go too far and cause harm

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15
Q

Immunocytes include:

A

T-cells and B-cells

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16
Q

Process in which prostaglandins and leukotrienes are created through metabolic reactions

A

arachidonic process

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17
Q

4 examples of abnormal inflammation

A

SIRS
Sepsis
Septic shock
Chronic inflammation

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18
Q

HLAs are:

A

human leukocyte antigens (“self” antigens)

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19
Q

HLAs are found:

A

on the membranes of most tissue cells except RBCs

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20
Q

SLE (lupus) is confirmed by ___ in lab tests

A

positive ANA

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21
Q

ANA (lupus) stands for:

A

antibody nucleic acid

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22
Q

Leukocytosis:

A

Abnormal increase in WBCs

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23
Q

Acute phase reactants:

A

CRP, circulating PGs, kinins, cytokines, complement cascade, clotting cascade

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24
Q

In multiple sclerosis, ___ attack the myelin sheath of ___

A

T-cells; brain neurons

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25
Q

S/S of SIRS

A 
changes in mental status
Fever > 100.4
Increased HR
Increased RR
Abnormal WBC count
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26
Q

Macrophages & neutrophils phagocytize:

A

dirt, debris, dying tissue, microbes

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27
Q

Ability to resist certain diseases due to immunocyte involvement

A

Acquired immunity

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28
Q

Exudate with WBBC and microbe involvement

A

purulent exudate

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29
Q

Disease in which the lubricating fluids of the body are dried up

A

Sjogren’s Syndrome

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30
Q

A trigger causes autoantibodies to attack RBCs

A

Autoimmune hemolytic anemia

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31
Q

Presence & multiplication of a living organism in or on a host

A

Infection

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32
Q

Invading organisms that cause infection

A

Pathogen

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33
Q

Virulence factors:

A

Toxins
Adhesion factors
Invasion factors
Evasion factors

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34
Q

Factors determining the degree/likelihood of infection

A

Virulence factors
Portal of entry
Immunocompetence

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35
Q

Protective measures used on all patients

A

Standard precautions

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36
Q

Protective measures used when potential for fluid transmission is possible via direct or indirect contact

A

Contact precautions

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37
Q

Protective measures used when potential for spread via droplets exists

A

Droplet precautions

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38
Q

Protective measures used when suspected or known infection is transmissible via airborne route

A

Airborne precautions

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39
Q

Typical stages of disease/illness progression

A 
Incubation stage
Prodrome stage
Acute stage
Convalescent stage
Resolution
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40
Q

Abrupt onset of illness with little or no prodrome phase

A

Fulminating illness/fulminant

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41
Q

Factors determining “host” infection

A

Immunocompetence, virulence factors, portal of entry

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42
Q

Illness without or with less severe S/S

A

subacute/subclinical illness

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43
Q

Penicillin and it’s derivative have a molecular structure called:

A

beta-lactam ring

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44
Q

Certain microbes have developed mutations that allow them to destroy antibiotics by:

A

dismantling the beta lactam ring

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45
Q

___ developed in hospitals in the 1960’s in PTs who were on this particular abx for long periods of time

A

MRSA

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46
Q

The bacteria ___ developed resistance to methicillin

A

strep Aureus

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47
Q

___ destroys MRSA

A

Vancomycin

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48
Q

Most common microbial cause of otitis media

A

Strep. Pneumoniae

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49
Q

Normal gut flora that causes problems when it migrate to the urinary tract

A

enterococcus faecalis

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50
Q

Infection of the dermis and subcutaneous tissue by skin-dwelling microbes

A

cellulitis

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51
Q

Most common culprit of cellulitis

A

s. aureus

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52
Q

___ can sometimes follow a milder infection such as impetigo

A

cellulitis

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53
Q

Infection with clostridium botulinum

A

botulism

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54
Q

Toxins of c. botulinum effect __ by blocking ___

A

neuromuscular synapses; acetylcholine receptors

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55
Q

S/S: descending symmetric paralysis

A

botulism

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56
Q

Bacillus that lives in soil; can cause tetanus

A

clostridium tetanii

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57
Q

exotoxin released by soil dwelling microbe that blocks inhibitory neurotransmitters

A

tetanospasmin

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58
Q

jaw tightening

A

trismus

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59
Q

severe muscle cramps, twitching, or convulsions

A

tetany

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60
Q

Virus transmitted by saliva of infected host

A

rabies

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61
Q

S/S of rabies infection

A

anxiety, confusion, convulsions, increased salivation

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62
Q

Treatment for rabies should begin within:

A

14 days

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63
Q

Mosquito-vector carried illness caused by protozoa

A

malaria

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64
Q

S/S: high fever, chills, arthralgia, anemia, splenomegaly, cerebral ischemia, heart failure

A

Malaria

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65
Q

Malaria causing protozoa infects ___ causing ___

A

RBCs; hemolysis

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66
Q

Protozoa causing malaria reproduces in:

A

hepatocytes

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67
Q

Rare, deadly illness caused by infection of 1 of 5 virus strains

A

Ebola hemorrhagic fever

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68
Q

Possible routes of transmission for ebola virus

A

contact with blood or body fluids through skin breaks, sexual contact, or mucus membranes

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69
Q

TX for ebola hemorrhagic fever

A

no vaccine or medication currently

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70
Q

Spread primarily through bites from infected mosquitoes (person-mosquito-person)

A

Zika virus

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71
Q

Uncommon nervous system illness that affects a small # of Zika patients

A

Guillan-Barre syndrome

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72
Q

Zika infection during pregnancy can cause:

A

microcephaly & other fetal defects

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73
Q

Avoid these types of medications when treating Zika patients

A

NSAIDs & aspirin

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74
Q

Microbe which causes strep throat:

A

strep. pyrogenes

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75
Q

Certain strains of s. pyrogenes can cause ___

A

scarlet fever

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76
Q

S/S: red, sore throat; white patches on tonsils

A

Strep throat

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77
Q

Autoimmune diseases possible without early, thorough treatment of Strep throat with abx

A

rheumatic fever, rheumatic heart disease

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78
Q

Upper respiratory infection that causes pseudomembrane across tonsils & throat

A

diptheria

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79
Q

leading cause of vaccine-preventable death

A

Pertussis

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80
Q

Viral invasion of parotid glands that can cause infertility in males

A

Mumps

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81
Q

“Two week” measles

A

Rubeola

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82
Q

“3-day measles”

A

Rubella

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83
Q

Viral illness rarely seen in developed countries but endemic to certain underdeveloped countries

A

Rubeola

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84
Q

S/S: macropapular rash that spreads from the head down to the body, fever, cough, runny nose, conjunctivitis

A

Rubeola

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85
Q

Pregnancy complications of rubella

A

mental retardations, eye & hearing problems

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86
Q

Milder version of the Measles

A

rubella

87
Q

S/S: fever, rash, swollen glands

A

rubella

88
Q

“Pox” diseases are typically referred to as:

A

herpetic diseases

89
Q

Characteristic trait of herpes virus infection:

A

herpes viruses never leave the body once they enter

90
Q

Virus that causes vesicles which start at the trunk and spread outward in stages

A

varicella virus

91
Q

Clusters of varicella vesicles develop in these stages:

A

appear
break
crust

92
Q

Varicella is contagious until:

A

the last lesions crust over

93
Q

Contagious inhaled virus that produces dense clusters of lesions that start in the face

A

Variola/small pox

94
Q

Dormant varicella virus that sometimes reappears later in life due to age or immunocompromise

A

Herpes zoster “shingles”

95
Q

Cell envelope proteins of Flu A

A

hemagglutinin, neuraminidase

96
Q

Flu A cell proteins catalyze ___ and ___

A

viral invasion; release of viral progeny

97
Q

By what mechanism does tetanospasmin operate?

A

Blocking inhibitory neurotransmitters causing uninterrupted nerve impulses

98
Q

Infection of the dermis or subbcutaneous tissue

A

cellulitis

99
Q

Acute viral illness of upper and lower respiratory system. S/S: high fever, chills, dry cough, myalgia, malaise, headaches

A

seasonal flu

100
Q

Pathogen that can be resistant to vancomycin

A

enterococcus faecalis

101
Q

Causative agent behind infectious diarrhea contracted during prolonged hospital stays

A

c. difficile

102
Q

Protozoa transmitted by mosquitoes that reproduces and causes RBCs to rupture

A

Malaria

103
Q

S/S of Malaria:

A

high fever, chills, arthralgia, anemia, splenomegaly, tissue & organ ischemia, heart failure

104
Q

Number of new and existing cases within a specific time period

A

prevalence

105
Q

What is variola?

A

Small pox virus

106
Q

S/S of small pox (variola):

A

High fever, flu like symptoms, painful pustules in mouth & esophagus, hemorrhage from virulence factors

107
Q

Feared bioterrorism agent

A

Small pox

108
Q

Typical portals of entry for a pathogen

A 
skin/mucous membranes
airborne
vector borne
oral/fecal route
blood-blood
blood-open skin
109
Q

Frothy, fatty, foul smelling infectious diarrhea

A

giardiasis

110
Q

Painful, bloody, severe infectious diarrhea

A

dysentery

111
Q

Dense maculopapular rash that starts on the head

A

Measles

112
Q

Presence and multiplication of a living organism in or on a host

A

infection

113
Q

The number of new cases occurring in a specific time period

A

incidence

114
Q

Severe headache; rash; muscle pain; fever > 100.4; D/V; unexplained ABD pain, bleeding, bruising, hemorrhage

A

S/S of ebola hemorrhagic fever

115
Q

Pink, healthy, healing tissue created by clotting factors, platelets and fibrin

A

granulating tissue

116
Q

Hypotension occurs in septic shock due to:

A

high levels of systemic inflammatory mediators triggering extreme vasodilation

117
Q

WBCs found in tissues instead of blood

A

mast cells

118
Q

Primary inflammatory mediators

A

histamine, circulating PGs, leukotrienes

119
Q

Primary inflammatory mediators are released by __ due to __

A

degranulation of mast cells; local cells being injured or irritated

120
Q

Binding of antibodies to the toxins of bacteria, rendering them unable to bind to host tissues

A

Neutralization

121
Q

Coating of bacteria which promotes phagocytosis by optimizing “recognizability”

A

opsonization

122
Q

Tissue specific autoimmune diseases:

A 
MS
Graves disease
Goodpasture's syndrome
myasthenia gravis
Diabetes melitus 1
Celiac
Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
123
Q

Cell-mediated immunity is developed by:

A

T cells

124
Q

S/S of local inflammatory response

A

Swelling
heat
erythematosis (redness)
pain

125
Q

S/S of systemic inflammatory response

A

malaise, aches, pains, fever

126
Q

Two main groups of prostaglandins:

A

protective & proinflammatory

127
Q

S/S of a transfusion reaction:

A

fever, low BP, body aches, blocked vessels in kidneys or other areas leading to ischemia

128
Q

Digeorge’s syndrome is an example of:

A

congenital cell-mediated immunodeficiency

129
Q

Target antigen in alloimmune hypersensitivity

A

someone else’s cells/tissue

130
Q

Examples of CAUSES of acquired T and B cell immunodeficiencies:

A

radiation/cytotoxic drugs used for treating cancer

Immunosuppressant drugs used post-transplant

131
Q

When antibodies crossover the placenta and attack the Rh+ baby due to the mother being Rh-

A

erythroblastosis fatalis

132
Q

Causative agent/disease of most cases of hyperthyroidism

A

Grave’s disease

133
Q

Grave’s disease functions by:

A

stimulating the thyroid gland to overproduce thyroid hormone

134
Q

Cell-mediated acquired immunity is carried out by memory cells created by:

A

T cells

135
Q

Humoral acquired immunity is carried out by memory cells created by:

A

B cells

136
Q

Active acquired immunity works by:

A

macrophages presenting partially digested antigens to CD4 cells for destruction

137
Q

Steroids work in the:

A

cell membrane of most cells

138
Q

Steroids work by blocking the production of:

A

proinflammatory & protective prostaglandins, and leukotrienes

139
Q

Toxic shock is an example of:

A

Septic shock

140
Q

Septic shock usually begins when:

A

Bacteria invade the blood

141
Q

After-effect of chemotherapy

A

Leukopenia

142
Q

Steroids and NSAIDs suppress:

A

Protective and proinflammatory effects of prostaglandins

143
Q

Side effects of prostaglandin suppression:

A 
Stomach ulcers
Easy bleeding
Diminished Kidney function
Diminished infection fighting ability 
Skin fragility
HTN
144
Q

ELISA stands for

A

Enzyme linked immunosorbent assay

145
Q

Diagnosis of AIDS is confirmed by

A

CD4 count <200 and presence of opportunistic infection

146
Q

Inanimate vector

A

Fomite

147
Q

“Floppy baby syndrome” is caused by:

A

C. Botulinum

148
Q

AKA herpes zoster

A

Shingles

149
Q

Common causes of bacterial enteritis

A

E. Coli

Salmonella

150
Q

Can be thought of as exaggerated “overdrive” responses to specific antigens

A

Hypersensitivity

151
Q

Thought to be caused by antibodies or T-cells failing to “stand down” after fighting off an infectoin

A

Autoimmune hypersensitivity

152
Q

These travel all throughout the body and get deposited in vessel lining of certain tissues causing vasculitis/inflammation

A

Immune complexes

153
Q

SLE

A

Systemic lupus erythematosus

154
Q

Specific diagnostic test for Lupus

A

ANA

155
Q

ANA stands for

A

Antibody nuclei acid

156
Q

ANA is a:

A

Immune complex made up of antibody and nucleic acid

157
Q

One of the “great imitators” that often gets mistaken for other diseases

A

Lupus

158
Q

The immune complex in RA consists of:

A

Autoantibody and collagen

159
Q

In RA, inflammation Occurs anywhere there is:

A

Collagen

160
Q

Specific test for RA

A

Rheumatoid factor (presence of autoantibody and collagen)

161
Q

Major distinctions between OA and RA

A

OA occurs mostly in joints and in old age, with pain getting worse throughout the day
RA occurs anywhere there is collagen (tho typically in synovial membranes) and can occur at any age, with pain the worse in the AM and lessening throughout the day

162
Q

Often known as compatibility issues

A

Alloimmune hypersensitivity

163
Q

Types of alloimmune hypersensitivity

A

Histocompatibility
ABO
Rh

164
Q

Histocompatibility issues typically involve

A

Reaction to someone else’s HLAs

165
Q

3 subcategories of immunodeficiency

A

Humoral
Cell-mediated
Combined

166
Q

When testing for AIDS, __ tests for antibodies to __; if positive, the __ is done for confirmation

A

ELISA, HIV antigen; western blot

167
Q

Without enough __ a person is much more susceptible to opportunistic infections

A

CD4 cells

168
Q

Examples of opportunistic infections that, if present, can help confirm an AIDS diagnosis

A

CMV, retinitis, thrush, pneumocystic pneumonia, Kaposi’s sarcoma

169
Q

Yearly change in influenza virus is due to:

A

mutations of viral cell membrane proteins

170
Q

self-limiting bouts of V/D

A

viral infectious diarrhea (“stomach flu”)

171
Q

watery diarrhea, often caused by E. Coli & Salmonella

A

bacterial infectious diarrhea

172
Q

Most common cause of bacillary dysentery

A

shigella

173
Q

Usually due to protozoa in drinking water

A

amoebic dysentery

174
Q

Intestinal invasion w/out invasion of the lining resulting in frothy, foul smelling, fatty diarrhea

A

Giardiasis

175
Q

Diarrhea due to abx wiping out normal gut flora

A

pseudomembranous colitis

176
Q

Severe, bloody, mucoid diarrhea, usually painful, due to microbial invasion of intestinal lining

A

Dysentery

177
Q

Overcrowding of bone marrow due to over-proliferation of WBCs

A

leukemia

178
Q

2 types of leukemia

A

Myelogenous & lymphocytic

179
Q

4 types of leukemia

A

Acute myelogenous
Acute lymphocytic
Chronic myelogenous
Chronic lymphocytic

180
Q

Lymph node enlargement due to local/system infections or malignancies

A

lymphadenopathy

181
Q

Cancer in which certain lymphocytes wildly proliferate, often clumping into tumors

A

lymphoma

182
Q

Type of lymphoma that usually begins as large, painless masses in lymph nodes of the neck

A

hodgkin’s lymphoma

183
Q

Oversecretion of immunoglobulins by malignant plasma cells

A

multiple myeloma

184
Q

Sequela of Multiple myeloma

A

increased osteoclastic activity > pathological fractures & hypercalcemia > lethargy, kidney stones

185
Q

CBC findings particular to microcytic anemia

A

low MCV & high Hgb

186
Q

CBC findings particular to normocytic anemia

A

low RBC & normal MCV

187
Q

CBC findings particular to macrocytic anemia

A

MCV > 95, glossitis, neuropathies (parasthesias)

188
Q

Macrocytic anemia neuropathies are usually due to

A

B12 deficiency from decreased apetite due to glossitis & fatigue

189
Q

Enlargement of the spleen

A

splenomegaly

190
Q

pathological Increase in splenic activity

A

hypersplenism

191
Q

Splenomegaly caused by malignancies is caused by

A

large # of WBCs filtering thru the spleen, causing swelling

192
Q

Physiologic splenomegaly is caused by

A

idiopathic etiologies, “individualistic quirk”

193
Q

Hematological splenomegaly is caused by

A

increased hemolysis of RBCs creating more “debris” for the spleen to process

194
Q

Disease process caused by erythrocytosis

A

polycythemia

195
Q

Genetic condition of abnormal proliferation of RBCs

A

polycythemia vera

196
Q

condition of “too few platelets”

A

thrombocytopenia

197
Q

Autoimmune thrombocytopenia

A

idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura (ITP)

198
Q

Low levels of certain coagulation factors

A

hemophilia

199
Q

Low levels of a substance released by tissue that binds platelets

A

von Willebrand dz

200
Q

Too much clotting

A

thrombocytosis

201
Q

Virus that travels from PNS to CNS & causes confusion, agitation, dysphagia

A

Rabies

202
Q

protozoa that causes high fever, anemia, & splenomegaly

A

malaria

203
Q

Strep throat with fever & rash

A

scarlet fever

204
Q

Viral invasion of parotid glands

A

Mumps

205
Q

AKA “Allergic hypersensitivity”

A

IgE mediated hypersensitivity

206
Q

S/S include pulmonary hemorrhaging & glomerulonephritis

A

Goodpasture’s syndrome

207
Q

In __ an autoantibody attacks connective tissues in pulmonary & glomerular basement membranes

A

Goodpasture’s syndrome

208
Q

Muscle weakness & reduced sensitivity to neruomuscular impulses caused by autoantibody attacking acetylcholine receptors

A

Myasthenia gravis

209
Q

Slow over-proliferation of bone marrow stem cells and higher than normal # of RBCs

A

Polycythemia vera

210
Q

Polycythemia vera is treated by:

A

donating blood

211
Q

In ___, the predominant cell that becomes cancerous is B-lymphocytes

A

multiple myeloma

212
Q

Pathology of multiple myeloma

A

B-cells create overabundance of cancerous immunoglobulins that infiltrate bones and certain organs, creating multiple malignant tumors

213
Q

Cancer in which certain lymphocytes wildly proliferate and begin to clump together in lymph nodes

A

Lymphoma

Pathophysiology (7 decks)

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