Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Pathophysiology > GI Disorders > Flashcards

GI Disorders Flashcards

1
Q

PUD

A

Peptic ulcer dz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

S/S of pernicious Anemia

A

SOB, fatigue, weakness
Glossitis
Parasthesias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

GERD is due to

A

reflux of HCL from the stomach into the esophagus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Symptoms of GERD may include

A

heartburn, epigastric pain, or coughing within 1 hour after eating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

S/S of GERD worsen with:

A

lying down, ETOH, coffee, smoking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Relatively uncommon disorder almost always associate with GERD

A

Barrett’s esophagus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Barrett’s esophagus is characterized by:

A

dysplastic regions within the esophagus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Herniation of the stomach through the diaphragm

A

Hiatal Hernia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Inflammation that affects gastric mucosa that can cause erosions

A

Gastritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

S/S of Gastritis

A

pain or burning, occasionally bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Bleeding from gastritis is AKA

A

acute hemorrhagic gastritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

___usually results from overuse of NSAIDs or ETOH

A

acute gastritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

NSAIDs suppress:

A

protective prostaglandins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Acute gastritis is resolved by:

A

removal of the offending agent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

___ gastritis is thought to babe autoimmune, and mainly occurs in the elderly

A

Chronic gastritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Chronic gastritis causes ____ of the gastric mucosa

A

atrophy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

PTs with chronic gastritis often develop ___ due to the loss of intrinsic factor

A

pernicious anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

5 anatomic sections of the GI tract

A 
Epigastric
RUQ
RLQ
LUQ
LLQ
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Passing a scope into the GI tract for direct visualization

A

Endoscopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Visualization of the esophagus, stomach, and duodenum

A

Esophagogastroduodenoscopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Visualization of the rectum, colon, and distal small bowel

A

colonoscopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Test to detect small, hidden amounts of blood in stool

A

hemoccult test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Hemoccult test is used to screen for:

A

colon cancer & causes of gastric bleeding (PUD)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

___ referes to pepsin + hydrochloric acid

A

Peptic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

___ digests food in the stomach and duodenum

A

peptic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

PUD is a chronic inflammatory condition of ___

A

stomach and proximal duodenum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

PUD can cause ____ due to acid disturbing the underlying tissues of the stomach and duodenum

A

gastric/duodenal ulcers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Mucosal disturbance is caused by ____

A

aggressive change factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Chronic steroid use can disturb the mucosal lining of the stomach due to:

A

decreased synthesis of prostaglandins which protect the stomach lining

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Most PTs diagnosed with PUD are also positive for an organism called:

A

H. pylori

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

PUD is treated by:

A

antacids, H2-blockers, proton pump inhibitors, & eradication of H. pylori with antibiotics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Number 3 killer amongst all cancers

A

colorectal cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Colorectal cancer almost always arises from ___

A

Preexisting benign neoplasms in the form of polyps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Risk factors for colorectal cancer:

A

Age > 50
high fat diet, obesity, sedentary lifestyle
Smoking & ETOH overconsumption
Family HX

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

S/S of colorectal cancer

A

blood in stool

change in bowel habits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Best Tx for colorectal cancer

A

high-fiber diet & lifestyle changes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Chronic disorder characterized by inflammation of the lining/walls of the intestines

A

Inflammatory bowel disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

2 main types of IBD

A

Crohn’s & ulcerative colitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Inflammation in IBD causes:

A

bloody diarrhea & abdominal cramps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Possible causes if IBD include:

A

infectious agents
Links to familial occurrence
Autoimmune response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Form of IBD in which all layers of the bowel are involved

A

Crohn’s dz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Crohn’s dz may involve ___ of the GI tract

A

any portion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

S/S specific to Crohn’s in addition to inflammation

A

malabsorption, malnutrition, weight loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Form of IBD found only in the colon

A

ulcerative colitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Main difference in ulcerative colitis vs Crohn’s

A

more severe risk of dehydration

Less risk for nutritional deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

An occlusion of either the small or large intestine that can be partial or complete

A

Intestinal obstruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Pathogenesis of intestinal obstruction

A

obstruction > sequestration of gas & fluid > abdominal distention > pain, N/V, constipation or diarrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Loss of peristaltic motor activity in the intestine

A

paralytic ileus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Twisting of the intestine with occlusion of blood supply

A

Volvulus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Telescoping of one portion of the bowel into another

A

intussusception

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Scar tissue from surgery or from chronic inflammation

A

Adhesions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Paralytic ileus is associated with ___

A

immobility, post-anesthesia, surgery, peritonitis, electrolyte imbalances, spinal trauma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

herniations or saclike outpouchings of mucosa that protrude from the muscle layer of the intestine

A

diverticulum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Diverticulum most commonly occur in the ___

A

sigmoid colon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Asymptomatic diverticular dz

A

diverticulosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Inflammation most often caused y fecal matter getting trapped, causing pain and rebound tenderness

A

appendicitis

57
Q

Upper GI bleeding occurs from bleeding in the:

A

esophagus, stomach, duodenum

58
Q

Lower GI bleeding occurs in the:

A

jejunum, ileum, colon

59
Q

Most common causes of Upper GI bleeding

A

acute hemorrhagic gastritis
Esophageal varices
Peptic ulcers

60
Q

Signs that bleeding is coming from UGI

A

Hematemesis & blood in stools

61
Q

GI bleeding can be ___ or ___

A

frank or occult

62
Q

Loose, dark, tarry stools

A

Melena

63
Q

Most common causes of LGI bleeding:

A

IBD
Diverticulitis
Neoplasms

64
Q

___ is the product of RBC breakdown

A

Bilirubin

65
Q

Deposition of bilirubin in pathological places in the body is called:

A

jaundice

66
Q

3 categories of jaundice

A

prehepatic, hepatic, posthepatic

67
Q

Post-hepatic jaundice is also known as:

A

obstructive jaundice

68
Q

Prehepatic jaundice results in __ levels of indirect bilirubin and ___ levels of direct bilirubin in the blood

A

high; normal

69
Q

Prehepatic jaundice is caused by:

A

increase in unconjugated bilirubin

70
Q

Increased unconjugated bilirubin occurs when:

A

the rate of hemolysis (spleen) exceeds the liver’s ability to conjugate it

71
Q

Decreased RBCs due to excess destruction

A

hemolytic anemia

72
Q

Posthepatic jaundice occurs because of

A

increased conjugated bilirubin in the blood

73
Q

Posthepatic jaundice occurs when there is:

A

a problem with the flow of bilirubin causing it to back up into the blood

74
Q

posthepatic jaundice is caused by:

A

an obstruction and/or inflammation

75
Q

Hepatic jaundice occurs because of:

A

increased unconjugated bilirubin

76
Q

Hepatic jaundice results in ___ levels of indirect bilirubin and ___ levels of direct bilirubin in the blood

A

high; low

77
Q

Posthepatic jaundice results in ___ levels of indirect bilirubin and ___ levels of direct bilirubin in the blood

A

normal; high

78
Q

Inflammation of the gall bladder

A

cholecystitis

79
Q

Cholecystitis is almost always caused by:

A

irritation of stones Innside the gall bladder

80
Q

Stones in the common bile duct

A

choledocholithiasis

81
Q

Gall stones are caused by ___ or ___

A

increased cholesterol or decreased water in the body (dehydration)

82
Q

Large stones that completely block the common bile duct may result in:

A

posthepatic (obstructive) jaundice

83
Q

Severe, life threatening disorder associated with escape of pancreatic enzymes into the pancreas & the surrounding tissues

A

pancreatitis

84
Q

Known potent stimulator of pancreatitis

A

alcohol

85
Q

Pancreatitis can eb diagnosed baby the presence of elevated ___

A

serum amylase & lipase

86
Q

4th leading cause of death in US

A

pancreatic cancer

87
Q

Frequently presenting symptom of pancreatic cancer

A

jaundice

88
Q

Malfunction of a gene that causes abnormality in the chloride channel is a pathologic finding in ___

A

cystic fibbrosis

89
Q

Cystic fibrosis is a ____ dz

A

autosomal recessive

90
Q

Pancreatic complication of CF

A

viscous secretions disable the pancreas’ ability to release pancreatic enzymes

91
Q

Causes of hepatitis include:

A

autoimmune problems, microbes, idiopathic

92
Q

Strain of hepatitis that is usually mild with full recovery

A

HAV

93
Q

HAV has a ___ onset

A

acute

94
Q

HBV & HCV have a ___ onset

A

insidious

95
Q

State of irreversible damage to hepatocytes

A

cirrhosis

96
Q

Cirrhosis causes ___ to cease

A

normal hepatocyte function

97
Q

Alcohol’s tacit metabolites gradually destroy ___ and replace them with ___

A

hepatocytes; fibrotic tissue & fat cells

98
Q

Impaired production of bile salts causes:

A

vitamin deficiency & weight loss

99
Q

Protein depletion problems of cirrhosis include:

A

generalized edema & ascites

100
Q

Pathologic iron deposits on the liver that can cause Cirrhosis

A

hemochromatosis

101
Q

Dz involving copper deposits on the liver

A

Wilson’s dz

102
Q

Impaired metabolism of cortisol from cirrhosis can lead to:

A

Cushing’s dz

103
Q

Decreased metabolism of ammonia can lead to:

A

hepatic encephalopathy & asterixis

104
Q

Impaired metabolism of aldosterone can lead to:

A

fluid retention > edema

105
Q

Splenomegaly in a cirrhosis PT will typically be secondary to:

A

portal HTN

106
Q

A jaundiced patient has a higher than normal direct bilirubin. The mechanism most likely responsible for this is ___, and a likely responsible disease process is ___.

A

posthepatic obstruction; cholelithiasis

107
Q

Digested blood from a duodenal ulcer will present with:

A

melena stools

108
Q

Diverticuli is a problem associated with the ___ GI tract

A

lower

109
Q

Increased destruction of WBCs due to hypersplenism will result in:

A

greater susceptibility to infections

110
Q

Inflammation of the common bile duct and stones within it

A

choledocholithiasis

111
Q

gynecomastia & hirsutism are signs of ___ in a cirrhosis PT

A

problems metabolizing sex hormones

112
Q

2 major problems related to cirrhosis

A

diminished hepatocyte function & portal HTN

113
Q

Inflammation that affects gastric mucosa & can cause erosions in the mucosa

A

Gastritis

114
Q

3 Problems that occur as a result of portal HTN

A

acites
Splenomegaly
Verices (hemorrhoidal & esophageal)

115
Q

Possible lab findings in pancreatitis

A

elevated serum amylase, lipase, & WBCs

116
Q

S/S of pancreatitis

A

severe, radiating epigastric pain after ingesting food or ETOH
jaundice

117
Q

___ is found only in the colon, not in the small intestines

A

ulcerative colitis

118
Q

Ulcerative colitis carries a greater risk of ___ due to the location it occurs (colon)

A

dehydration

119
Q

Use of ___ ___ and/or ___ put a person at greater risk for PUD

A

ASA, NSAIDs, chronic steroid use

120
Q

Occlusion of the small or large intestine that can be partial or complete in nature

A

intestinal obstruction

121
Q

Pain from cholecystitis is made worse by ___

A

eating high fat meals

122
Q

3 main causes of UGI bleed

A

acute hemorrhagic gastritis
esophageal varices
peptic ulcers

123
Q

Increased risk of infection from cirrhosis is due to ___

A

improperly functioning Kupffer cells & leukopenia from splenomegaly

124
Q

Liver enzymes that may eb elevated with cirrhosis

A

AST, ALT, ALP

125
Q

Most common causes of LGI bleed

A

IBDB, diverticulitis, neoplasms

126
Q

Inflammation, possible autoimmune etiology, and potential problems including obstruction, inflammation, and scarring are common to:

A

Crohn’s and ulcerative colitis dz

127
Q

Portal hypertension is caused by:

A

venous back pressure due to fibrotic liver tissue becoming resistant to normal venous flow

128
Q

Potentially deadly bleeding from the esophagus is caused by:

A

esophageal varices

129
Q

___ bilirubin is water soluble

A

direct/conjugated

130
Q

Tests used to assess the GI system

A

endoscopy
X-ray
Hemoccult test

131
Q

Caused by an abnormality in the chloride channel that causes thickened secretions in various systems

A

Cystic Fibrosis

132
Q

CF can affect which systems?

A

lungs and pancreas

133
Q

Epigastric or periumbilical pain that migrates to the RLQ may be sign of:

A

appendicitis

134
Q

Locations where Jaundice may bee seen:

A

skin, sclera, sublingual, oral palate

135
Q

___ may cause prehepatic jaundice

A

hemolytic conditions

136
Q

__ is very important to prevent paralytic ileus

A

encouraging movement early

137
Q

3 symptoms specific to Crohn’s dz

A

malabsorption, malnutrition, weight loss

138
Q

Lab results for cirrhosis would reveal:

A

elevated indirect bilirubin

elevated liver enzymes

Pathophysiology (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions