Pain Flashcards

1
Q

What is pain?

A

Unpleasant sensory and emotional experience associated with actual or potential tissue damage or described in terms of such damage.

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2
Q

What is nocireceptive pain?

A

Pathological process arising from somatic or visceral nociceptors.

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3
Q

What is neuropathic pain?

A

The abnormal functioning of the somatosensory nervous system.

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4
Q

What is psychogenic pain?

A

This pain has psychological, psycho-social or psychiatric origin.

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5
Q

Explain the difference between chronic and acute pain?

A

Chronic pain is usually persistent and lasts longer than 3 months -may be due to illnesses and it difficult to treat. Treated with paracetamol and opioids, dull, aching, can have a profound social effect.
Acute pain - related to injury and is sudden in onset - normally can be treated. Treated with opioids, sudden onset, sharp and localised.

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6
Q

How does the inflammatory process affect the pain receptors?

A

The chemical mediators (prostaglandin / histamines) and the mechanical pressure of the oedema will stimulate the nociceptors.

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7
Q

In the inflammatory process, increased capillary permeability results in what response?

A

Pain and swelling.

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8
Q

In the inflammatory process, arteriolar dilation results in what response?

A

Heat and redness.

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9
Q

The sensory pathway consists of 3 neurons. What are they and where do they start?

A

First / second and third neuron.
Starting from the place where sensory is recieved to the brain.

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10
Q

Where does the first neuron originate and what type of receptors does it have?

A

Originates in PNS - afferent neuron and comes from the site of origin of the sensation (skin / organ).
The receptors (thermo / chemo / nocio) on the dendrites of these neurons must be stimulated to generate an electrical impulse.

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11
Q

Where does the second neuron originate and what is its function?

A

Located in spinal cord - multipoplar neuron.
The axon of this neuron crosses to the opposite side of the body - this may be at the level where the neuron enters the spinal cord or medulla.

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12
Q

Where is the third neuron and what its function?

A

Radiates from the thalamus to the sensory cortex and other relevant areas of the brain.

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13
Q

What is transduction in the pain pathway?

A

The conversion of one type of stimuli or energy into another form. In the pain pathway a chemical trigger is changed into an electrical impulse.

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14
Q

In the pain pathway, the damaged body cells release chemicals into the interstitial fluid. One is a prostaglandins, what are four others?

A

Histamines
Bradykinins
Potassium
Nitric oxide

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15
Q

True or false. The pain threshold does not vary much between people, it is the physiological component of pain.

A

True.

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16
Q

What is pain transmission?

A

It is the electrical impulse conduction along the pain pathway from the site to the brain.

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17
Q

In the sequence of first, second and third neurons. What role does the thalamus play?

A

The 2nd neuron synapses with the 3rd neuron in the thalamus. From here it radiates from the thalamus to the sensory cortex and other areas for processing and perception.
Also, it is involved in basic interpretation of pain.

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18
Q

In the pain pathway, define perception of pain?

A

Refers to the processing and interpreting of the information. It can involve multiple neurons and many association areas in the brain.

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19
Q

In what part of the brain does the identification of the source and location of the pain occur?

A

In the sensory cortex of the cerebrum.

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20
Q

What is the sensory-discriminative dimension of the pain pathway?

A

Determines the severity of the pain occurs in the sensory cortex and reticular activating system.

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21
Q

True or false. The affective motivation component is the reference to the meaning and emotional component. This occurs in the limbic system and amygdala.

A

True.

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22
Q

What is the difference between pain tolerance and pain threshold?

A

Pain tolerance is the point at which pain becomes unbearable to the person - is subjective and varies widely among individuals. Pain tolerance can be affected by ethnicity, genetics, gender and culture.
Pain threshold is the point at which the pain pathway is initiated by tissue damage and does not vary much between different people.

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23
Q

What is pain modulation?

A

The bodies normal response of modifying the pain perception. This can involve a variety of processes, - altering the transmission or perception process.

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24
Q

Gate theory (which is used in massage therapy) is one example of modulation. What are two others?

A

CNS depression - endogenous modulators
Descending inhibitory pathways are activated in hypnosis or TENS or morphine administration.
Gate therapy - massage therapy or TENS (trans cutaneous electrical nerve simulation (or acupuncture).

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25
Q

How can we assess pain in a clinical environment?

A

Numeric pain scale
PQRSTU - provocative or palliative / quality or quantity / region or radiation / severity / timing or treatment / understanding
OLDCART - Onset (acute or gradual) / location / duration / characteristics / aggravating factors / relieving factors / treatments (response) / severity

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26
Q

What are some associated sights and symptoms of pain?

A

Tachycardia / hypertension / hyperventilation / nausea / vomiting / fear / anxiety.

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27
Q

What does the abbreviation 5-HT stand for?

A

serotonin

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28
Q

How many neurons does the ascending pathway consist of?

A

Three.

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29
Q

With which of the sensory neurons does the the descending pathway synapse?

A

2nd -spinal

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30
Q

Can the mechanoreceptor fibres and nociceptor fibres transmit impulse to the spinal cord fibres at the same time?

A

No - which ever nerve impulse gets there first, will inhibit the other.

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31
Q

What is the role of nor-adrenaline and opiates at the synapse between primary and secondary sensory neurons?

A

Both inhibit pain transmission = modulation of pain.

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32
Q

Can we use pethidine for treating a cough or diarrhoea?

A

No

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33
Q

Convulsive states and pre-eclampsia are contraindication for the use of pethidine?

A

True

34
Q

All pethidine metabolites are inactive?

A

False, norpethidine is an active metabolite.

35
Q

Pethidine may cause a respiratory depression in a neonate?

A

True

36
Q

True or false. Pethidine is a vagolytic and can also be called parasymatholytic?

A

It inhibits the parasympathetic nervous system.

37
Q

Due to its addictive potential, pethidine is only prescribed short term. What is the reccommended dose time?
a. 1-2hours
b. 6-12hours
c. 24-36hours
d. 5-7days

A

24-36 hours

38
Q

The duration of action of oral oxycodone is?

A

3-4 hours.

39
Q

Oxycodone is x10 more potent that codeine?

A

Yes.

40
Q

You should consider the renal function before administering oxycodone to a patient?

A

True.

41
Q

Convulsive states and pre-eclampsia are contraindication for the use of pethidine?

A

True

42
Q

True or false. One of the addictive properties of oxycodone is euphoria?

A

True.

43
Q

What are the pharmacodynamics of oxycodone?
a. a full mu-agonist.
b. kappa antagonist.
c. high affinity for delta receptors.
d. irreversible beta-agonist.

A

A full mu-agonist.

44
Q

Is oxycodone bioavailability subject due to the low first pass liver effect?

A

Yes - less metabolism means more bioavailability.

45
Q

True or false. Tramadol is not an opioid but is more like a reuptake inhibitor or serotonin and noradrenaline?

A

True. Tramadol is chemically not related to opiods.

46
Q

Tramadol is a prodrug, what does this mean?

A

It needs to be activated.

47
Q

What routes of administration can fentanyl be administered?

A

IV, IM, topical or patch and sublingual.

48
Q

Fentanyl has higher efficacy than morphine?

A

Yes, x100 more efficacy.

49
Q

True or false. Fentanyl works by changing the way the brain and nervous system respond to pain?

A

True.

50
Q

If codeine has a low affinity for opioid receptors, what does this result in?

A

A low therapeutic effect.

51
Q

Codeine is analgesic and a…
a. antipyretic
b. antitussive
c. laxative
d. all of the above

A

b. Antitussive - stops coughing.

52
Q

As antidote to narcotics, how can naloxone be administered?

A

All routes are acceptable, IV, SC or IM.

53
Q

Is naloxone an opioid agonist or antagonist?

A

It is an antagonist - codeine and morphine are opioid agonists.

54
Q

True or false. Naloxone has benefits over methadone in treating opioid addicts because it is not a restricted medication.

A

True.

55
Q

What are two ways that pain can be relieved in a patient?

A

Eliminating the source of the pain or preventing the pain receptors from reacting.
Other ways could be to interrupt impulse conduction or decrease / alter the person’s perception and interpretation of the pain.

56
Q

Pain is an unpleasant sensation due to tissue damage. In order for it reach the brain for interpretation, the pathway consists of 4 phases. Transduction is the first phase, what are the next three?

A

Transduction
Transmission
Perception
Modulation

57
Q

How many synapses are there in a typical pain pathway?

A

2 synapses

58
Q

Which of the following are natural modulation processes?
a. gate theory
b. endogenous opioids
c. adrenaline
d. all of the above

A

All of the above.

59
Q

True or false. An alternative term of non-narcotic medications is non-opioid medications?

A

True.

60
Q

Which COX enzyme should be blocked to prevent pain transduction?
COX-1
COX-2
COX-3

A

COX-2 inflammation and peripheral effect
COX-1 - costitutive blood and stomach
COX-3 - CNS effect.

61
Q

Which prostaglandin in the pain pathway do NSAIDs inhibit?
a. F2
b. D3
c. E2
d. A1

A

E2

62
Q

There are cautions with the use of the ibuprofen or indomethacin during pregnancy because they may?
a. prevent implantation.
b. be tocolytic
c. cause oligophrenias
d. all are possible.

A

all are possible.

63
Q

True or false. Ibuprofen is a non-selective reversible COX inhibitor?

A

True.

64
Q

What is a common adverse reaction with NSAID use?
a. gastric irritation
b. fever
c. hypotension

A

Gastric irritation

65
Q

Diclofenac has a rapid onset of action (1 hour), how many weeks does it take to produce an anti-inflammatory effect?

A

3 weeks.

66
Q

Diclofenac is not teratogenic in rats. Is this the case in humans?

A

No, it has been shown to cause cleft palate and intrauterine growth retardation.

67
Q

True or false. Diclofenac has a greater COX-2 effect than ibuprofen and indomethacin.

A

True.

68
Q

Paracetamol is extensively metabolised in the liver. How much is excreted unchanged?
a. 1%
b. 5%
c. 20%
d. 35%

A

5%

69
Q

Where in the brain is the temperature regulating centre located?

A

Hypothalamus

70
Q

Paracetamol falls into the pregnancy safety classification of?
a. A
b. B
c. D
d. X

A

A classification.

71
Q

Common medication that interacts with paracetamol are:
a. warfarin
b. metaclopramide
c. narcotic analgesics
d. all of them.

A

All of them.

72
Q

What are three absolute contraindications for the use of aspirin?

A

Active gastric ulcer
haemorrhagic disease
first trimester pregnancy.

73
Q

True or false. Administration of aspirin to children under the age of 12 years is not recommended.

A

True

74
Q

Does aspirin enhance the effect of the following medications?
Warfarin
Heparin
Metformin
Methotrexate

A

Yes. It decreases the effect of antacids and ibuprofen.

75
Q

True or false. Lignocaine hydrochloride is dissolved in water. The solution also contains sodium chloride.

A

True

76
Q

The dose of the local anaesthesia depends on:
a. the number of neural segments to be blocked.
b. the area to be aneathetised.
c. the vascuarity of the area.
d. all are important variables.

A

All are important variables.

77
Q

What of the following needs to be monitored in clients with epidural anaesthesia?
a. BP
b. HR
c. allergic reactions
d. all of the above

A

All of them.

78
Q

Topical lignocaine comes in 1% solution. How many grams of medication per 100ml of fluid -ointment?
a. 0.1
b 1
c. 10
d. 100

A

1

79
Q

The medication that contains cortisol is called?
a. prednisone
b. hydrocortisone
c. dexamethasone.

A

b. hydrocortisone

80
Q

A side effect from longterm glucocorticoid administration is weight gain due to?
a. fluid and sodium retention
b. anti-inflammatory effect
c. increased glucose metabolism
d. lipolysis

A

Fluid and sodium retention due to overlapping mineralocortiocid effect.