Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Y5 Paediatrics > Paeds New from PassMed > Flashcards

Paeds New from PassMed Flashcards

1
Q

what is the triad in shaking baby syndrome

A

Retinal haemorrhages, subdural haematoma and encephalopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is another word for exomphalos

A

omphalocele

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what occurs in omphalocele

A

Abdo contents protrude THROUGH the umbilical ring

they are covered by sac (amniotic membrane + peritoneum)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what are RF for omphalocele

A

other syndromes (Down’s, Beckwith Wiederman)
low socioecon status
young maternal age
tobacco, alcohol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what occurs in gastroschisis

A

bowel protrudes through defect in anterior abdo wall ADJACENT to umbilicus
no covering

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

how do omphalocele and gastroschisis differ in terms of location

A

omphalocele is THROUGH umbilical ring

gastroschisis is ADJACENT to umbilicus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what metabolic abnormality is pyloric stenosis associated with and why=

A

HYPOCHLORAEMIC HYPOKALAEMIC ACIDOSIS

HYPOCHLORAEMIC: vomiting up stomach contents which is acidic (hydrogen chloride - HCl),

HYPOKALAEMIC: Potassium is also lost in the vomitus.

ACIDOSIS: loss of hydrogen ions due to the vomiting up of stomach acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what is the appearance of the abdomen of a child with a diaphragmatic hernia

A

CONCAVE chest

as all the contents are displaced superiorly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what kind of delivery do you do for omphalocele

A

ECS to prevent sac rupture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What kind of delivery do you do for gastroschisis

A

Attempt vaginal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which one needs an urgent repair, omphalocele or gastroschisis

A

Gastroschisis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

describe the classical presentation of meckel’s diverticulum

A

PAINLESS rectal bleeeding (1-2yo)

LOTS of dark red blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what followup scan can you do if suspecting perthes and hip X ray is negative

A

MRI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what kind of worms commonly cause anal itching in children

A

threadworms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How do you manage faecal impaction in first line and second line

A

1 polyethylene glycol 3350 + electrolytes (Movicol Paediatric Plain) using an escalating dose regimen as the first-line treatment
2. add a stimulant laxative e.g. SENNA if Movicol Paediatric Plain does not lead to disimpaction after 2 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are fts of cows milk protein allergy

A 
regurgitation and vomiting
diarrhoea
urticaria, atopic eczema
'colic' symptoms: irritability, crying
wheeze, chronic cough
rarely angioedema and anaphylaxis may occur
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what are investigations you can get for cows milk prot allergy

A

Dx is clinical (e.g. improvement with cow’s milk protein elimination). Investigations include:
skin prick/patch testing
total IgE and specific IgE (RAST) for cow’s milk protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Describve roseola infantum esp spread of rash

A

high fever > maculopapular rash

  • rash starts on chest
  • spreads to limbs

Nagayama spots: papular spots on the uvula and soft palate

febrile convulsions
diarrhoea and cough

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What virus causes roseola infantum

A

HSV6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is a rare complication of roseola infantum

A

encephalitis and febrile fits (after cessation of the fever)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what are the criteria for admission with bronchioloitis

A
  • Apnoea
  • Oxygen sat <90 in room air
  • Insuff fluid intake <50% normal
  • severe resp distress (grunting, chest recession, resp rate >70)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What age is a child with bronchiolitis

A

<1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what is the condition called where bronchiolitis causes permanent airway damage

and what virus causes it

A

bronchiolitis obliterans

adenovirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What gender is Hirscprungs more common in and by how much

A

MALES 80%

females 20%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What percetage of Hirschprung is assoc with Downs

A

2%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Explain sx of measles

describe spread of rash

A

Prodrome: irritable, conjunctivitis, fever
Koplic spots (white spots on buccal mucosa)
Rash: starts behind ears, then to whole body. Maculopapular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Explain sx of mumps

A

fever, malaise, muscular pain

Parotitis (earache, pain on eating) - unilateral then bilateral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Explain sx of rubella, especially spread of rash\

A

Pink maculopapular rash - initially on face then to whole body
fades in 3-5days

Lymphadenopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Explain rash in Erythema infectiosum

A

Red rash SLAPPED CHEEK (red on both cheeks, white pallor in mouth), spreads to arms and extensor surface

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Explain rash and other symptoms in scarlet fever

A

Fever, malaise, tonsillitis
Strawberry tongue
Rash - fine punctuate erythema around the mouth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Hand, mouth and foot disease sx

A

mild systemic upset
sore throat
fever
vescicles in mouth and soles of feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Explain features of Fragile X

A 
FMR1 gene 
Repeat CGG
Autism 
Giant brain, testes (macrocephaly, macroorchidism) 
Intellectual disability 
Long face, large jaw 
Eveerted yes 
X linked
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Explaain features of Noonan syndrome

A

PEWS

Pulmonary stenosis
Pectus excavatum
Webbed neck
Short stature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Pierre robin sequence

A

Microagnathia
Glossoptisis
Cleft palate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Prader WIlli

A

Hypotonia
Hyopogonadism
Obesity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are features of WIlliams syndrome

A 
Weight low at birth, slow to gain 
Iris (stellate) 
Large philtrum 
Large mouth 
Increased calcium 
Aortic stenosis SUPRAVALVULAR
Mental retardation (learning difficulties, friendly, extrovert) 
Swelling around eyes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Cri du chat syndrome

A 
characteristic cry (due to larynx and neuro problems) 
feeding difficulties, poor weight gain 
learning difficulties 
microcephaly, microagnathism 
hypertelorism (far set eyes)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what is cri du chat due to

A

5p deletion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what are features that occur with de George

A

CATCH 22

Cardiac anomalies (interrupted aortic arch, TOF) 
Abnormal facies
Thymic hypoplasia 
Cleft palate 
Hypocalcaemia
22q11
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what are abnormal facies with diGeorge

A

smooth philtrum

small chin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Explain Turners syndrome (genotype and phenotype)

A

45X

Phenotypically female, with CLOWNS

Cardiac abnormalities 
Low set ears
Ovaries underdeveloped (streak gonads) 
Webbed neck 
Nipples far apart 
Short stature
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

How does Downs syndrome occur

A

Trisomy 21, due to:

  • non-dysjunction
  • translocation
  • mosaic
43
Q

What is the biggest RF for Downs

A

high maternal age

44
Q

What are the most important complications assoc with downs

A

AAAA

duodenal Atrasia, Hirschoprung
Atrioventricular septal defect
AML/ALL
Alzheimers early onset

45
Q

What are the facial features of Downs

A

Upward slanting palpebral fissures, epicantheal folds

Eyes: strabismus, cataracts, hypertelorism, brushfiends spots

Broad, flat nasal bridghe

high arched palate

46
Q

What are other physical features of Downs

A

Transverse palmar creasee
Sandal gap
Short stature

47
Q

What are other non-physical fts of downs

A

Motor and intellectual disability
Milestones reached at double the age of healthy children

Intellectual - also have autism, ADHD, conduct disorder

48
Q

What investigations do you do for Downs

A

screening: combined test / quadruple test
(low hCG, low PAPP-A, high inhibin A. Low oestriol, low AFP)

Confirm with amniocentesis, CVS, umbilical cord sampling > karyotyping

49
Q

what is a reflex anoxic seizure

A

fit resulting from a brief stoppage of the heart through excessive activity of the vagus nerve

syncopal episode (or presyncope) that occurs in response to pain or emotional stimuli.

caused by neurally-mediated transient asystole in children with very sensitive vagal cardiac reflexes.

50
Q

Who do reflex anoxic seizures occur in

A

young children - 6 months to 3 years

51
Q

what are typical features of reflex anoxic seizures

A

very pale
falls to floor
secondary anoxic seizures are common
rapid recovery

52
Q

What is the typical preesentation of pityriasis versicolor

A

lots of light brown macules and confluent patches on back and chest.

more noticeable after spending time in the sun -as healthy skin becomes darker, the white/light brown patches become more prominent.

53
Q

How do you manage pityriasis versicolor

A

ketoconazole shampoo / topical antifungal

54
Q

what are features of a simple febrile seizure

A

< 15 minutes
generalised
no recurrence within 24 hours
complete recovery within an hour

55
Q

what are RF for neonatal hypo

A 
preterm birth (< 37 weeks)
maternal diabetes mellitus
IUGR
hypothermia
neonatal sepsis
inborn errors of metabolism
nesidioblastosis
Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome
56
Q

what heart complication is fragile X associated with

A

mitral valve prolapse

57
Q

what other condition has similar presentation to appendicitis but is not malignant

A

Mesenteric adenitis - inflamed mesenteric lymph nodes

commonly post-viral

needs no mx

58
Q

When do you give VZIG vs acyclovir for chickenpox

A

give VZIG if patient has had exposure but no symptoms yet!! e.g. pregnant/immunosuppr/neonate

give acyclovir if symptomatic

59
Q

what is the method of inheritance of prader willi? explain

A

IMPRINTING

deletion of gene from paternal chromosome

60
Q

what would occur similar to prader willi if the imprinting i.e. gene removal occurred from the mother

A

angleman syndrome

61
Q

what must you do if neonate has glucose <1

A

IMMEDIATE transfer to ICU and 10% dextrose IV

62
Q

How do you manage threadworms

A

oral mebendazole

63
Q

what is the first sign of puberty in boys

A

testicular growth

64
Q

at what age does puberty in boys usually start

A

12

65
Q

what testicular volume indicates onset of pubery

A

> 4ml

66
Q

what are findings for DDH on inspection + gait assessment

A

Inspection: asymmetry of skinfolds, shortening of one leg

Gait: positive trendelenberg (sways towards healthy side), waddle

67
Q

when should you treat DDH

A

ALWAYS - aim to treat EARLY to maximise prognosis

the earlier the child is treated, the better the prognosis

68
Q

what is delayed puberty in boys

A

no testicular growth by age 14

69
Q

when is delayed puberty in girls

A

no breast development age 13

no menarche age 15

70
Q

what are RF for DDH that require USS at 6 weeks

A

Breech >36 weeks regardless of presentation at delivery

Breech delivery <36 weeks

first degree relative with DDH/hip problem

71
Q

what do you need to make a diagnosis of CF

A

ALL THREE

  1. Typical pulmonary and/or gastrointestinal tract manifestations
  2. A family history
  3. A positive ‘sweat-test’
72
Q

OUTLINE the CONSEQUENCES of CF - based on which ORGAN

A

Intestine:

  • meconium ileus (vomiting, abdo distension, failure to pass meconium)
  • rectal prolapse

Pancreas: pancreatic insufficiency (ducts bocked by thick secretions)

  • DM
  • recurrent pancreatitis
  • pancreatic enzyme deficiency, malabsorption

LIVER:

  • chronic hepatitis
  • cirrhosis

NUTRITIONAL:
- failure to thrive

MALE UROGENITAL:
- obstructive azoospermia

73
Q

what is the average life prognosis for CF

A

50-55

74
Q

what is the percentage of caucasians who are CF carriers

A

1:100

75
Q

Summarise Tay Sachs disease

A 
Developmenntal regression in late infancy 
exaggerateed startle responnse to noise 
visual inattention 
sociaal unresponsiveness 
severe hypotonia, enlarged hear 
CHERRY RED SPOT in macula
76
Q

what is Tay Sachs MoI and WHAT POPULATION is it more common in

A

AUTOSOMAL RECESSIVE

ashkenazi jews

77
Q

summarise gaucher disease presentation

A

splenomegaly, hepatomegaly, bone marrow suppression, bone involvement
NORMAL IQ

78
Q

Who is gaucher disease more common in

A

Ashkenazi jews

79
Q

what two diseasees have cherry red spot in macula

A

Tay Sachs

Niemann-Pick

80
Q

what are the 5 types of Autism Spectrum Disorder

A 
Autism 
Asperger's 
Rett
Child Disintegrative DIsorder 
Pervasive Developmental Disorder not Otherwise Specified
81
Q

Which type of ASD is most common

A

Pervasive Developmental Disorder not Otherwise Specified

82
Q

What GI condition has a DOUBLE BUBBLE APPEARANCE

A

duodenal atresia

83
Q

What investigations must you get for Hirschprung’s

A

Full thickness rectal biopsy

Anorectak mamometry / contrast barium study

84
Q

why is meningococcal septicaemia a contraindication for LP

A

apnoea risk

deranged clotting

85
Q

expain most common features of Wilms tumour

A

abdominal mass (most common presenting feature)
painless haematuria
flank pain

86
Q

what are medical conditions ASSOCIATED WITH (not caused by) cystic fibrosis

A 
short stature, delayed puberty
diabetes mellitus
rectal prolapse (due to bulky stools)
nasal polyps
male infertility, female subfertility
87
Q

when in meningitis must you never give corticosteroids?

A

if UNDER 3 MONTHS

88
Q

what is persistent pulmonary HTN of newborn

A

high pulmomary vascular resistance

leads to right to left shunting of blood > cyanosis

89
Q

What are causes of persistent pulmonary HTN of newborn

A

birth asphyxia
meconium aspiration
septicaemia
RDS

90
Q

What investigations for persistent pulmonary HTN of newborn

A

CXR: normal sized heart
Echo: exclude congenital heart defect

91
Q

How do you manage persistent pulmonary HTN of newborn

A
  • inhaled nitric oxide (vasodilator)
  • sildenafil (viagra, also a vasodiltor)
  • high freq oscillatory ventilation
  • extracorporeal membrane oxygenation (ECMO)
92
Q

what is an umbilical granuloma

A

overgrowth of tisue occurring during healing process on belly button
it prevents involutiuon of umbilicus

93
Q

how do you manage umbilical granuloma

A

silver nitrate cream

ligature to stump

94
Q

what sound is indicative of an inhaled foreign body

A

MONOPHASIC WHEEZE

95
Q

what is the centor score used for

A

used to assess likelyhood of bacterial cause of tonsillitis

96
Q

What are criteria of CENTOR score, and what do you do with the results?

A

Each point scores 1:

  • Tonsillar exhudate
  • Tender anterior cervical lymphadenopathy
  • Fever >38
  • no cough

if score 3/4, there is up to 50% chance that it is due to bacteria > prescribe antibiotics

97
Q

what are complications of measles

A

Neuro:

  • febrile convulsions
  • encephalitis
  • subacute sclerosing panencephalitis

Resp:

  • pneumonia
  • otitis media

Cardiac:
- myocarditis

98
Q

what is - subacute sclerosing panencephalitis

A

RARE BUT DEVASTATING

7 years after measles infection
loss of neurological function, dementia, death

99
Q

what med can you use for measles in immunocompromised pt

A

ribavarin

100
Q

What are indications for antibiotics in OM?

A

1 perforated eardrum
2 years old or less, with OM on both sides
3 months old or less
4 days duration or longer

101
Q

how do you confirm constitutional growth delay?

A

hand/wrist X ray to assess bone age

102
Q

What are indications for commencing intensified phototherapy

A
  • serum bilirubin rising >8.5 micromoles/ L/ hour
  • serum bilirubin within 50 micromoles/L below exchange transfusion threshold
  • serum bilirubin levels static or rising after 6 hours of commencing phototherapy.
103
Q

list infective causes of bloody diarrhoea in children

A

CHESS-Y: Champylobacter, histolytica entamoeba, e.coli, shigella, salmonella, yersinia

Y5 Paediatrics (30 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions