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Micropathology > Packet 1 (Quiz 1) > Flashcards

Packet 1 (Quiz 1) Flashcards

1
Q

define ataxia

A

without/no coordination

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2
Q

What is etiology?

A

-why a disease occurs
-theory for the cause of disease
-scientific focus of disease

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3
Q

What are some causes of high BP?

A

-smoking
-lack of exercise
-stress
-diet high in salt or fat

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4
Q

What is pathogenesis?

A

-how a disease develops
-the development of disease or disorder and the chain of events or steps leading to the disease or disorder

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5
Q

What is morphology?

A

changes in the gross or microscopic appearance of cells and tissues including shape, structure, size, and form

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6
Q

What neurotransmitter is produced by substania nigra?

A

dopamine

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7
Q

Damage to the substantia nigra will cause what disease?

A

Parkinsons

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8
Q

What is hemiballismus?

A

L sub-thalamic nucleus damage would result in R side motor issues in the arm, leg, or both

R sub-thalamic nucleus damage would result in L side motor issues

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9
Q

What is clinical expression?

A

-multiple signs and symptoms
-what you see is what you get/have
-involving or relating the signs and symptoms seen in various pathologies
-the first detectable sign or symptom of a particular disease

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10
Q

What are the symptoms of Parkinson’s disease (basal ganglia disorder)?

A

-bradykinesia (slow movement)
-muscle rigidity/stiffness
-resting tremor
-decreased blink rate

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11
Q

Which part of the brain works together with the basal ganglia to control our movements?

A

cerebellum

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12
Q

What are the 3 components of the basal ganglia?

A

1) substantia nigra
2) sub-thalamic nucleus
3) caudate nucleus

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13
Q

A damaged sub-thalamic nucleus would cause?

A

hemiballismus

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14
Q

A damaged caudate nucleus would cause?

A

Huntington’s disease

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15
Q

Huntington’s disease shows up around 30-40 y/o and will result in apoptosis of caudate nucleus and cause mental decline. Huntington’s disease is genetic. How?

A

due to 39+ CAG repeats (39 is the golden number for someone to not get HD)

so bc its genetic, theres a 50% chance to pass onto kids

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16
Q

All diseases have to have 4 things. What are they?

A

1) etiology
2) pathogenesis
3) morphology
4) clinical expression

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17
Q

T/F: everyone has the Huntington’s gene

A

true

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18
Q

What is pathology?

A

defined as the study of nature, effects, causes and consequences of disease

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19
Q

path/o= ?

A

disease or suffering

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20
Q

What is micropathology?

A

The branch of pathology dealing with the microscopic study of changes that occur in tissues and cells during disease

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21
Q

What is histopathology?

A

-the study of changes in tissues caused by disease
-changes from normal in both cells and cellular products
-seen with light microscopy

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22
Q

What is histochemistry?

A

-the identification and distribution of the chemical constituents of tissues by means of stains, indicators, and microscopy
-involves techniques for staining and demonstrating different inclusions within cells
-many stains were developed empirically by trial and error

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23
Q

What is the sudan black stain used for?

A

fat, fat will stain black

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24
Q

What is the prussian blue stain used for?

A

hemosiderin (stains hemoglobin breakdown products blue)

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25
Q

When are antigens stained?

A

for immunofluorescence

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26
Q

define symptom and give an example

test q

A

abnormality noted by the patient and is subjective

ex: stomach hurts, headache, etc

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27
Q

define sign and give an example

test q

A

abnormality noted by an observer, something that can be observed or measured (objective)

ex: temp., vomit, blood pressure, etc

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28
Q

MRIs are used to see what?

A

soft tissue

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29
Q

What is a lesion?

A

anything that is abnormal (latin for injury)
-the term is generally used for structural changes but can be functional also
-wound or injury (ulcer, abscess, tumor, sores, cataracts)
-pathologic changes in tissues
-one of the individual points or patches of a multifocal disease (ex: MS has patches of demyelination in the CNS)

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30
Q

What are some examples of lesions?

A

-plaques from fluoride (fluorosis)
-brain lesion (damage to any part of the brain due to disease, trauma, birth defects, etc)
-tuberculosis (TB, lung lesion)
-space occupying lesion (SOL, a lesion with a definite volume and structure which may encroach on nearby structures like a disc herniation)

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31
Q

What are biochemical lesions?

A

-any biochemical change, such as the absence or inactivation of an enzyme that diminishes the fitness of an organism or leads to a pathological condition
-example: PKU/phenylketonuria is an inborn error of metabolism (IEM) that results in decreased metabolism of the AA phenylalanine. Untreated PKU can lead to brain damage, intellectual disabilities, behavioral symptoms, or seizures. All 50 states require newborn birth screenings. Phenylalanine is found in aspartame which is found in all diet beverages, mountain dew, and anything sugar free

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32
Q

What does pathognomonic mean?

A

-sign or symptom on which a diagnosis can be made
-1 key sign or symptom

examples: KNOW THESE EXAMPLES
-measles can be easily diagnosed with Koplik spots (clustered white lesions in the mouth)
-lyme disease with a bulls eye rash (can still have lyme disease w/o rash)
-purpura lesions (platelet destruction or malfunction) due to blood clotting disorders, vit C def, aspirin, steroids, rocky mountain spotted fever, systemic lupus erythematous, HIV, or hep C

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33
Q

Purpuric lesions are discoloration of the skin or mucous membranes due to hemorrhage from small blood vessels. What are the 3 types of purpuric lesions?

A

1) petechia
-tiny red, pink, or purple dots/small patches just under the skin
-smaller than 2 mm and usually flat

2) purpura
-small red, pink, or purple patches just under the skin
-larger than 2 mm and can usually be felt due to inflammation of the blood vessels

3) ecchymosis
-purple, black, or blue patch under the skin
-larger than 1 cm
-basically fancy term for bruise

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34
Q

What is the most elementary form of microscope and is usually used with compound microscope?

A

light/bright field microscope

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34
Q

What are the 3 main branches of microscopy?

A

1) optical- light field, dark field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and immunofluorescent
2) electron
3) scanning probe

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35
Q

Which microscope is this?
-specimen is dark and contrasted by the surrounding bright viewing field
-visible light is passed through a specimen
-lenses reflect the light resulting in magnification
-can be used to view fixed or live specimens
-since many organic specimens are transparent or opaque, staining is used

A

light/bright field microscope

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36
Q

Fuchsin is used to stain….

A

smooth muscle cells

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37
Q

Methylene blue is used to stain….

A

cell nuclei

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38
Q

Zeihl Neelsen stain (uses both fuchsin and methylene blue) and is used to stain….

A

acid fast organisms like TB

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39
Q

Gram stain is used on….

A

bacteria (it gives rise to the name gram pos or gram neg bacteria based on the bacterias reaction to the stain)

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40
Q

Which microscope is used to observe live spirochetes such as those that cause syphilis (Treponema pallidum)?

Test q

A

dark field microscope

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41
Q

Which microscope is this?
-contains a special condenser that scatters light and causes it to reflect off the specimen at an angle
-a light object is seen on a dark background
-no dyes or stains are used since staining kills specimens

A

dark field microscope

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42
Q

Which microscope is this?
-optical contrast technique used for making unstained objects (ex: flat cells) visible under a microscope
-cells which appear inconspicuous and transparent in bright field can be viewed in high contrast and rich detail in phase contrast
-this microscope contains special condensers that throw light “out of phase” and cause it to pass through the object at different speeds
-live, unstained organisms and internal cell parts such as mitochondria, lysosomes, and the golgi body can be seen clearly

A

phase contrast microscope

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43
Q

Which microscope is this?
-uses UV light
-when UV light hits the object, it excites the objects electrons and they give off light in various colors
-since UV light is used, the resolution of the object increases

A

fluorescent microscopy

(immuno-fluorescent testing is similar- it is also called fluorescent-antibody technique and employs fluorescent dyes and antibodies to help identify unknown bacteria)

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44
Q

fluorescent treponemal antibody (FTA) is for what bacterial disease?

A

syphilis

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45
Q

fluorescent antinuclear antibody (FANA), also known as anti-nuclear antibody (ANA), is for what autoimmune disorders?

Test q

note: this is important for boards

A

-most commonly for systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE/lupus)
-rheumatoid arthritis
-scleroderma
-sjogren’s

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46
Q

Lupus can affect the joints, skin, kidneys, blood cells, brain, heart and lungs. These periodically get worse, especially with heat, and are called “flare-ups” and then improve. The body produces antibodies which attack its own cells and tissues. What are the symptoms?

A

-extreme fatigue
-joint pain
-swelling
-butterfly rash
-fever

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47
Q

The immune system (B cells) makes proteins called antibodies (Ab) which recognizes and fights infectious organisms in the body. When an Ab recognizes the foreign proteins of an infectious organism, it recruits other proteins. This cascade of attack is called….

A

inflammation

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48
Q

Sometimes Abs make a mistake and recognize a normal, naturally occurring protein in our body as foreign and dangerous. These are called ________________ because they start the cascade of inflammation which causes the body to attack itself

A

autoantibodies

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49
Q

The Ab that targets “normal” proteins within a nucleus of a cell are called _______________________

A

antinuclear antibodies (ANA)

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50
Q

T/F: Most of us have small amounts of antinuclear antibodies (ANA) but large amounts of ANA indicate autoimmune disease

A

TRUE

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51
Q

How does the antinuclear antibodies (ANA) test work?

note: this is important for boards

A

-a blood sample is taken from a patient
-the blood is then mixed and incubated with a known ANA antigen
-if the patient’s blood contains antinuclear antibodies (ANAs), an antigen-antibody complex forms
-in order to visually see the Ag-Ab complex, it is then incubated with a fluorescent tag which binds to Ag-Ab complex and illuminates when visualized under a fluorescent microscope
-a positive ANA test often indicates an autoimmune disorder, it will tell you that you have inflammation but not why/from what

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52
Q

What are the 2 processes occurring in immuno-fluorescence testing?

A

1) specificity between the Ag-Ab binding particles
2) contrast gets amplified by the fluorescence

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53
Q

How does immuno-fluorescence work?

A

-antibodies are molecules having high specificity for interaction with microbial antigens= 1 Ab will combine/react with 1 Ag
-A fluorescent dye can be linked or tagged with the antibody (conjugation)
-used for slow growing bacteria such as Bordetella pertussis, chlamydia, and legionella

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54
Q

Which microscope is this?
-used for obtaining high resolution images of biological and non-biological specimens
-used to research detailed structures of tissue, cells, organelles, and macromolecular complexes
-electrons are used to illuminate structures
-these images provide key info on the structural basis of cell function and of cell disease

A

electron microscope

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55
Q

What are the 2 types of electron microscopes?

A

1) transmission electron microscopy (TEM)
2) scanning electron microscopy (SEM)

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56
Q

What is a transmission electron microscope (TEM) used for?

A

view thin specimens like tissue sections or molecules through which electrons can pass generating a projection image

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57
Q

What is a scanning electron microscope (SEM) used for?

A

used to look at the surface of a specimen

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58
Q

What are the 3 steps for examining tissue by microscopy?

A

1) obtain tissue samples
2) prepare tissue samples
3) stain tissue samples

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59
Q

There are 2 main methods to obtain tissue samples. What are they?

A

1) biopsy
2) autopsy/necropsy

60
Q

What is a biopsy?

A

collect tissue sample from a living organism

61
Q

What is an incisional biopsy?

A

remove a small sample of tissue

62
Q

What is an excisional biopsy?

A

remove entire lump or suspicious area

63
Q

What is a needle biopsy?

A

sample of tissue or fluid is removed with a needle

64
Q

bi/o= ?

A

life

65
Q

necr/o =?

A

death

66
Q

aut/o=?

A

self

67
Q

What is an autopsy or necropsy?

A

-examination of an organism after death
-performed post-mortem to determine the cause of death
-autopsy is a term used for humans
-necropsy is a term used for animals

68
Q

There are 2 ways to prepare tissue samples. What are they?

A

1) frozen sections
2) paraffin sections (infiltrate the specimen with wax to allow thin sections to be cut from it)

69
Q

A _________ is a device used to preserve frozen tissue samples while a ___________ cuts the tissue into slices thin enough to be observed under a microscope

Test q

A

cryostat, microtome (mounted in the cryostat)

70
Q

What are the advantages of frozen tissue sections?

note: theres 4 advantages

A

1) fast, takes 2-3 min
2) does not remove lipids like paraffin sections
3) enzymes can stay active
4) proteins stay so antigens/immunoglobulins can be studied

71
Q

What are the 6 paraffin tissue section preparation steps?

test q, know the jist

A

1) fixation (specimen is placed in a liquid fixing agent for 6-24 hours, formalin is a formaldehyde solution that is the most commonly used, and it penetrates the tissue causing it to harden and protect the tissue)
2) dehydration (water must be removed, so the specimen is immersed in a series of ethanol (alcohol) solutions before it can be infiltrated with wax (hydrophobic)
3) clearing (a solvent will displace the ethanol in the tissue and then be displaced by molten paraffin wax, xylene is a commonly used solvent)
4) wax infiltration (specimens are infiltrated with molten paraffin wax with various additives such as polyethylene, and the wax is cooled to become solid)
5) embedding (once infiltrated with wax, the specimen is formed into a “block” which can be clamped into the microtome for section cutting
6) sectioning (thin slices of the specimen are cut with a myotome)

72
Q

What are the advantages of paraffin tissue sections?

note: theres 4 advantages

A

1) stops all cell processes
2) preserves specimen for months
3) inhibits enzyme activity
4) many cell components are insoluble

73
Q

staining tissue samples is commonly used to diagnose or locate what?

A

tumors

74
Q

What is the most commonly used nuclear stain?

A

hematoxylin and eosin stain (H&E stain)
-hematoxylin is a blue, basic dye that complexes with nucleic acids (DNA and RNA in the nucleus and RNA in cytoplasm) or other negatively charged molecules
-nuclei stain blue
-structures that bind hematoxylin are basophilic (base loving)
-eosin is a red, acidic dye which stains membranes and most proteins
-cytoplasmic structures such as macrophages, vesicles with lysosomes, collagen, elastin, actin stain pink-red
-structures that bind eosin are eosinophilic or acidophilic

75
Q

Which stain stains chromatic (nucleus) blue-black and cytoplasm pink-red?

A

hematoxylin and eosin stain (H&E stain)

76
Q

What stain is this?
-2nd most common stain
-used to demonstrate glycogen primarily
-any carb converts to aldehydes and then stains
-ex: von Gierke’s glycogen storage disease

A

Schiff-McManus (PAS: periodic acid-schiff rxn)

77
Q

What is von Gierke’s glycogen storage disease?

A

-hepatic form of glycogen storage
-lacks glucose 6 phosphatase
-this interferes with correct storage of glycogen and prevents it from being broken down to glucose
-complications= enlarged liver and hypoglycemia

78
Q

Fat stains red with….

A

scarlet red (frozen section)

79
Q

Fat stains black with….

A

osmic acid (paraffin section) or Sudan III/sudan black (frozen section)

80
Q

Wright’s stain is used for what?

A

blood cells (eosin and methylene blue are used)

81
Q

The human body is formed from the division of a single cell following the union of 2 cells: sperm and ovum. As __________ continues, daughter cells exhibit altered structure and function which leads to differentiation and maturation

A

mitosis

82
Q

Bacteria like rickettsiae are prokaryotic or eukaryotic?

A

prokaryotic

83
Q

plants and animals are prokaryotic or eukaryotic?

A

eukaryotic

84
Q

Ectoderm is the outermost germ layer. What does it give rise to?

test q

A

-integumentary system including hair, nails, and epidermis
-epithelia of the nose, mouth, eye, nervous system, and inner ear

85
Q

Mesoderm is the middle germ layer. What does it give rise to?

test q

A

-musculoskeletal system
-circulatory system
-most of the excretory system
-gonads
-muscular and connective tissue in the digestive and respiratory system

86
Q

Endoderm is the inner germ layer. What does it give rise to?

test q

A

-epithelial linings of the digestive and respiratory tracts including the lungs
-pancreas
-thyroid
-bladder
-urinary tracts
-parts of the liver

87
Q

What are the 4 primary types of animal tissues?

A

1) epithelial
2) connective
3) muscle
4) nervous

88
Q

What is the function of all simple epithelium?

A

to secrete and absorb something

89
Q

What is the function of all stratified epithelium?

A

protect against abrasion

90
Q

What does connective tissue originate from?

A

mesoderm which gives rise to mesenchyme and then connective tissue (and also blood vessels and lymphatic tissue)

91
Q

How are epithelium and connective tissue different?

A

location, but also epithelial tissue has cells packed tightly while connective tissue has cells scattered throughout an ECM of fibrous proteins and glycoproteins attached to a basement membrane

92
Q

What are the primary elements of connective tissue?

A

1) fibers
2) cells
3) ground substance

93
Q

connective tissue fibers and matrix are synthesized by specialized cells called…

A

fibroblasts

94
Q

Fibroblasts secrete 3 main types of fibers. What are they?

A

1) collagen fibers
2) reticular fibers
3) elastin fibers

95
Q

Which fiber is this?
-long straight fibers which are flexible but have great tensile strength
-resist stretching
-give ligaments and tendons their characteristic resilience and strength
-hold connective tissues together, especially during movement

A

collagen fibers

96
Q

Which fibers would make up….
-tendons
-ligaments
-skin
-cornea
-cartilage
-bone
-blood vessels
-gut
-IVDs?

test q

A

collagen fibers

97
Q

Which fibers would make up….
-arteries
-lungs
-intestines
-skin
-elastic ligaments of the vertebral column?

test q

A

elastin fibers

98
Q

Which fiber is this?
-a narrow branching network of fibers found throughout the body by most abundant in the reticular tissue of soft organs such as liver and spleen where they anchor and provide structural support and scaffolding to the parenchyma

A

reticular fibers

99
Q

Which fiber would make up…
-liver
-bone marrow
-lymphatic tissue?

test q

A

reticular fibers

100
Q

What fibers are needed for wound repair and remodeling?

test q

A

collagen, elastin, and reticular fibers

101
Q

What are the 4 main types of connective tissue?

A

1) connective tissue proper (loose and dense connective tissue)
2) cartilage
3) bone
4) blood

note: lymph is also a connective tissue but is not a main one

102
Q

What are the 2 types of connective tissue proper?

A

loose connective tissue and dense connective tissue

103
Q

What is the most common type of connective tissue?

A

loose CT

104
Q

Which CT is this?
-few fibers in lots of ground substance
-acts as a filling, shock absorber, reservoir for salt and fluid
-under epithelia of skin, mucous membranes, capillaries, and surrounding organs (spleen, lymph nodes, and bone marrow)

A

loose CT

105
Q

Which CT is this?
-composed of tightly packed collagen fibers with little ground substance
-found in tendons and ligaments- help attach muscles to bones and link bones together at joints
-thicker and stronger than loose CT
-forms a protective capsule layer around organs (liver and kidneys)
-a part of the dermis layer of the skin
-elastic type is found in arteries, vocal cords, trachea, and bronchial tubes in lungs and vertebral ligaments

A

dense CT

106
Q

What is the most common type of cartilage and is moderately flexible? It is found in the trachea, ribs, and nose

A

hyaline cartilage

107
Q

Which cartilage is the strongest and most inflexible? It is found between vertebrae, some joints, and heart valves

A

fibrocartilage

108
Q

Which cartilage is the most flexible type and found in the ear and larynx?

A

elastic cartilage

109
Q

Bone is a mineralized CT containing collagen and calcium phosphate (gives bones firmness). There are 2 types of bones. What are they?

A

1) spongy bone (1st type formed during bone formation)
2) compact bone (strong, dense and forms the hard outer bone surface)

110
Q

What is plasma membrane made from?

A

proteins and lipids

111
Q

What represents 1/2 of the volume of eukaryotic cells?

A

cytoplasm/cytosol

112
Q

Which organelle is necessary to maintain the sodium pump?

A

mitochondria

113
Q

Which organelle is responsible for protein production and assembly?

A

ribosomes

114
Q

Which organelle functions as a manufacturing and packing system?

A

ER

115
Q

What are the essential functions of the ER?

A

-protein synthesis and processing
-lipid synthesis
-calcium storage and release

116
Q

Do RBCs have an ER?

A

no

117
Q

Cells which synthesize and release a lot of proteins, like a cell from the pancreas or liver, have substantial amounts of which organelle?

A

ER

118
Q

What similarity do RER and SER have in common?

A

both have double membranes that are tubular or saclike channels called cisternae

119
Q

Which ER type acts as a storage organelle and a “shipping” area for ER products to be sent to other parts of the cell?

A

smooth ER

120
Q

What does the SER synthesize?

A

-lipids such as phospholipids and cholesterol which are used to produce new cell membranes
-steroid hormones from cholesterol
-in brain cells, the SER synthesizes male and female hormones from cholesterol
-in liver cells, the SER synthesizes enzymes which help detoxify certain drugs and chemicals

121
Q

Which organelle modifies proteins and lipids/fats that have been built in the ER and prepares them for export outside of the cell or for transport to other locations in the cell?

A

golgi apparatus/ golgi body

122
Q

Lysosomes are organelles that contain degradative, _______________ enzymes. They recycle the cell’s organic material (cellular material which has exceeded its lifetime or is no longer useful) by digesting them in a process called ___________. Lysosomes also isolate and destroy substances toxic to the cell and break large molecules into smaller molecules

A

hydrolytic (hydrolases), autophagy

123
Q

-phagy =?

A

eat

124
Q

What is autophagy?

A

a cell destroys its own damaged or senescent organelles by sequestering them in vacuoles within the cell which are then fused with lysosomes

125
Q

What is heterophagy?

A

a cell destroys exogenous material that has been taken in through endocytosis, creating a newly formed vacuole which then fuses with lysosomes

126
Q

Lysosomes break down large proteins into….

A

AAs

127
Q

Lysosomes break down large carbs into…

A

simple sugars

128
Q

Lysosomes break down large lipids into….

A

single fatty acids

129
Q

Lysosomes are found in all cells but are most numerous in…..

A

disease fighting cells like WBCs

130
Q

What are the 2 types of endocytosis?

A

phagocytosis and pinocytosis

131
Q

What is phagocytosis?

A

“to eat”

a cells uses its plasma membrane to engulf a large particle, giving rise to an internal compartment called a phagosome. It fuses with lysosomes and the engulfed material is digested

132
Q

What is pinocytosis?

A

“to drink”

the ingestion of liquid into a cell by the budding of small vesicles from the cell membrane. It fuses with lysosomes and the engulfed material is digested

133
Q

Centrioles are cylindrical, barrel shaped organelles composed of microtubules located near the nucleus. They are only active during…..

A

cell division

134
Q

T/F: centrioles are found in both plant and animal cells

A

false, only in animal cells

135
Q

Microtubules are rigid, hollow tubes that form the ______________ that give shape and structure to eukaryotic cells and are the major components of cilia and flagella (cell locomotion). Microtubules also participate in the formation of the spindle during mitosis (cell division)

A

cytoskeleton

136
Q

Does the nucleolus have a membrane?

A

no

137
Q

Which organelle assembles the cell’s ribosomal RNA?

A

nucleolus

138
Q

Does the nucleolus contain chromosomes?

A

no

139
Q

Which organelle is the “shipping/receiving department” bc it regulates what enters and leaves the cell?

A

plasma membrane

140
Q

Which organelle is the “CEO” bc it controls all cell activity and determines what proteins will be made?

A

nucleus

141
Q

Which organelle is the “factory floor” bc it contains all of the organelles and is the site of most cellular activity?

A

cytoplasm

142
Q

Which organelle is the “assembly line” bc its where the ribosomes do the work?

A

ER

143
Q

Which organelle is the “workers in an assembly line” bc it builds the proteins?

A

ribosomes

144
Q

Which organelle is the “finishing/packaging department” bc it prepares proteins for use or export?

A

golgi apparatus

145
Q

Which organelle is the “maintence crew” bc it is responsible for breaking down and absorbing material taken in by the cell?

A

lysosomes

146
Q

Which organelle is the “support beam” bc it maintains the cell shape?

A

cytoskeleton

147
Q

Which organelle is the power plant bc it transforms one form of energy into another?

A

mitochondria/ chloroplasts

Micropathology (9 decks)

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