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AP > Package 2 > Flashcards

Package 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Name the layers of the heart wall from inner to outer

A

Endocardium, myocardium, epicardium

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2
Q

What is another name for the epicardium of the heart wall

A

Visceral pericardium

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3
Q

Where does the right atrium receives deoxygenated blood from and where does it send it to?

A

It receives deoxygenated blood from the superior and inferior vena cava as well as the coronary sinus.

It sends it through the tricuspid valve into the right ventricle where it is sent to the lungs through the pulmonary arteries

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4
Q

How does the left atrium receives oxygenated blood from the lungs?

A

It receives oxygenated blood from the lungs via the pulmonary veins

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5
Q

What separates the left ventricle and the aorta?

A

The bicuspid valve

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6
Q

What’s another name for the bicuspid valve

A

Mitral valve

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7
Q

Name the two type of circulation’s that are present in the heart?

A

Double circulation: pulmonary circulation and systemic circulation

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8
Q

How does the myocardium of the heart receives blood?

A

Through coronary arteries which is a branch off of the ascending aorta

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9
Q

What type of junctions are found in the inter-calculated discs of the heart?

A

Gap and desmosomes

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10
Q

Define an SA node

A

SA node also known as a sinus node also known as the natural pacemaker sets the fundamental rhythm of the heart

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11
Q

What’s another name for an AV node and what does it do?

A

The atrioventricular node or AV node is a part of the electrical conduction system of the heart that coordinates the top of the heart. It electrically connects the atria and ventricles.

The bundle of his is the av bundle which enlarges near the coronary sinus to become the AV node

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12
Q

How does cardiac muscle generate ATP?

A

Through aerobic cellular respiration and creatine phosphate

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13
Q

Defined the P-wave

A

Atrial depolarization

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14
Q

Defined the QRS complex

A

Onset of ventricular depolarization

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15
Q

Defined the S to T segment

A

This is the segment where the maximum ventricle muscle fibres are depolarized

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16
Q

What is the T wave

A

Ventricular repolarization

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17
Q

Why do you not see tetanus in cardiac muscles?

A

Due to their longer refractory period

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18
Q

Define cardiac cycle

A

The contraction and relaxation of both atria rapidly followed by the systole and diastole of both ventricles

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19
Q

Define cardiac output

A

The volume of blood that’s ejected from the left or right ventricle into the aorta or pulmonary trunk each minute

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20
Q

What is stroke volume?

A

The amount of blood that is pumped out of the ventricle in a beat

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21
Q

What are the three factors that regulate the stroke volume?

A

Preload, contractility, after load

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22
Q

How much of the heart lies to the left of the body’s midline?

A

2/3rds

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23
Q

In what direction is the apex of the heart?

A

It is anterior, inferior, and to the left

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24
Q

What’s the purpose of the auricles of the heart and where can they be found?

A

They are found on the anterior surface of each atrium, looks like a wrinkled pouch, slightly increases the capacity of the atrium so it can hold a greater volume of blood.

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25
Q

What separates the left and right ventricles?

A

The anterior and posterior interventricular sulci.

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26
Q

What’s the name of the partition dividing the right and left atrium?

A

Interatrial septum

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27
Q

What is the prominent feature found on the interatrial septum and why is it important?

A

It is called the fossa ovalis in an adult. It is the remnants of the foreman ovale in a fetal heart that closes after birth

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28
Q

From left to right name the branches off of the arch of the aorta

A

Left subclavian artery, left common carotid artery, brachiocephalic trunk

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29
Q

What is the name of the temporary blood vessel that shunts blood from the pulmonary trunk into the aorta during fetal life?

A

Ductus arteriosus

In an adult it is closed and is known as the ligamentum arteriosum which connects the arch of the aorta and pulmonary trunk

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30
Q

What ventricle is thicker in the heart? Why?

A

The left ventricle is thicker. It pumps blood greater distances to all parts of the body at a higher pressure and therefore it works much harder than the right side.

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31
Q

What is another name for the tricuspid and bicuspid valves?

A

They are termed atrioventricular valves.

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32
Q

What is another name for the aortic and pulmonary valves?

A

These are called semi lunar valve’s because they’re made up of three crescent moon shaped cusps.

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33
Q

When do semi lunar valve’s open?

A

They open when the pressure of the ventricle exceeds the pressure in the arteries that they’re connected to.

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34
Q

Describe what the lubb dubb sound is?

A

This refers to the two heart sounds.

The first sound is caused by blood associated with the closing of the AV valves: ventricular systole.

The second sound is caused by blood turbulence associated with the closure of the semi lunar valve: ventricular diastole.

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35
Q

Define preload.

A

The degree of stretch on the heart before contracts.

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36
Q

Define contractility.

A

The forcefulness of contraction of individual ventricular muscle fibers.

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37
Q

Define afterload.

A

The pressure that must be succeeded before ejection of blood from the ventricles can occur.

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38
Q

What is tetralogy of fallot?

A

Combination of for development defects: interventricular septum all defect, they ordered that emerges from both ventricles instead of from the left ventricle only, stenosed pulmonary valve, and an enlarged right ventricle.

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39
Q

List the blood vessel wall layers starting from the outer to the inner

A

Tunica externa, tunica media, tunic interna/intima

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40
Q

What is the tunica media made up of?

A

Smooth muscle and elastic fibres

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41
Q

Name the types of shock

A

Hypovolemic: Due to decreased blood volume
Cardiogenic: Due to poor heart function
Vascular: Due to inappropriate Vasodilation
Obstructive: Due to obstruction of blood flow

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42
Q

What is the most common cause of hypovolaemic shock?

A

Acute sudden haemorrhage

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43
Q

What comes off of the brachiocephalic trunk?

A

The right common carotid in the right subclavian

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44
Q

Put in the order bone cell lineage

A

Gen— blast— cyte— clast

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45
Q

What types of pressure promote filtration?

A

Blood hydrostatic pressure and interstitial fluid osmotic pressure

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46
Q

Name and to find the three types of capillaries

A

Continuous: most capillaries. Continuous tube that is interrupted only by intercellular clefts.
Fenestrated: Found in the kidneys, villi of small intestines, choroid plexus of ventricles in the brain, most endocrine glands. Have many small pores.
Sinusoid: Have incomplete or absent basement membrane, very large fenestrations. Wider and more winding than other capillaries. Found in the liver, spleen, anterior pituitary, parathyroid and adrenal glands.

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47
Q

What is transcytosis?

A

Tiny pinocytic vesicles enclosed substances in the blood plasma to enter cells by endocytosis and move across the cell and exits via exocytosis. Method of transport for large lipid insoluble molecules.

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48
Q

What does the umbilical vein become after birth?

A

It collapses and becomes the ligamentum teres a.k.a. round ligament

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49
Q

What is considered a normal blood pressure?

A

120/80

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50
Q

What is considered pre-hypertension blood pressure?

A

120-139/80-89

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51
Q

What is considered stage one hypertension blood pressure?

A

140-159/90-99

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52
Q

What is considered stage two hypertension blood pressure?

A

160+/100+

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53
Q

What is the result of prolonged hypertension?

A

Thickening of the tunica media, acceleration of the development of her atherosclerosis and coronary artery disease, Increase of systemic vascular resistance. Hypertension increases the afterload which forces the ventricles to work harder to check blood.

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54
Q

What structure regulates the blood flow through the capillaries?

A

Precapillary sphincters

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55
Q

Anatomically speaking, what’s the difference between veins and arteries?

A

Same three layers, but beans have a thinner tunica media and interna. The lumen of a vein is larger.

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56
Q

What’s the difference between a baroreceptor and a chemoreceptor?

A

Baroreceptor monitors blood pressure and a chemoreceptor monitors blood levels of oxygen, carbon dioxide, and hydrogen ions.

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57
Q

What is auto regulation?

A

It is the Local and automatic Adjustments of blood flow in a given region to meet a particular tissues needs.

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58
Q

What is the definition of shock?

A

Failure of the cardiovascular system to deliver enough oxygen and nutrients to meet the metabolic needs of a cell.

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59
Q

Name subdivisions of the system of circulation.

A

Coronary/cardiac circulation, and hepatic portal circulation.

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60
Q

Where does the abdominal aorta begin?

A

The abdominal aorta begins at the aortic hiatus in the diaphragm

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61
Q

At what level does the abdominal aorta end and what does it become?

A

The abdominal aorta ends at level or L4 and divides to become the common iliac arteries

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62
Q

Name the components of the lymphatic system.

A

Lymphatic organs and tissues, lymph, lymphatic vessels and bone marrow.

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63
Q

What is the function of the lymphatic system?

A

It drains interstitial/tissue fluid, transports dietary fats and fat soluble vitamins, and carries out immune responses.

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64
Q

Describe the flow of lymph.

A

ISF —> lymph capillaries —-> lymph vessels —> lymph trunks—> lymph ducts—> superior veins cava

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65
Q

What are the primary lymphatic organs?

A

Red bone marrow and thymus

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66
Q

What are the secondary lymphatic organs?

A

Spleen, lymph nodes, lymphatic modules (MALT)

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67
Q

What is a MALT?

A

Lymphatic nodules that are scattered throughout the laminate propria of a mucous membrane lining the gastrointestinal tract, urinary, and reproductive tract as well as the respiratory airways

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68
Q

What’s another name for Innate immunity?

A

Nonspecific resistance

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69
Q

Describe what is adaptive immunity and the two types.

A

Specific emphasize the combat pathogens in foreign substances. Cell mediated immunity (T) and antibody mediated or humoral immunity (B)

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70
Q

What is the most abundant class of immunoglobin and what type of immunity does it represent?

A

IgG- 80%, only class they can cross percent from mother to fetus

Antibody mediated immunity

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71
Q

What type of immuno globin is found in milk?

A

IgA

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72
Q

What is chyle?

A

It is lymph that drains from the small intestine that has lipids in it that causes it to appear creamy white. This happens in specialize lymphatic capillaries called lacteals.

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73
Q

What is a lacteal?

A

A specialized lymphatic Capillary found in the small intestine that carries dietary lipids into lymphatic vessels and then eventually into the blood

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74
Q

What’s another name for the thoracic duct?

A

Left lymphatic duct

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75
Q

What are thymic corpuscles?

A

Aka hassalls corpuscles, are concentric layers of degenerated cells that appear as clusters. They may serve as a sight of T cell death in the medulla.

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76
Q

Where would you find the thymus?

A

In the mediastinum between the sternum and aorta

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77
Q

Describe the anatomy of a lymph node.

A

There is a superficial cortex in a deep medulla. The cortex can be divided into an outer and inner cortex. Outer cortex is where lymphatic nodules are present. Inner cortex does not contain lymphatic-nodules.

Outer cortex- lymphatic nodules, B cells
Inner cortex- lymphatic nodules, T cells and dendritic cells

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78
Q

How many tonsils are there and what are they called

A

1X- pharyngeal/adenoid
2x- palatine (tonsillectomy)
2x- lingual

5 total

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79
Q

What are the components of the first line of defense?

A

Skin and mucous membranes

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80
Q

What are the components of the second line of defense?

A

Internal defenses.

Anti-microbial substances, Phagocytes , natural killer cells, inflammation and fever.

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81
Q

What are the five phases of phagocytosis

A

1) chemotaxis
2) adherence
3) ingestion
4) digestion
5) killing

CAIDK

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82
Q

What are the signs/symptoms associated with inflammation?

A

PRISH

Pain, redness, immobility, swelling, heat

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83
Q

What to T cells and B cells need to develop before they were able to carry out adaptive immune responses?

A

Immunocompetence: developing distinctive proteins known as antigen receptors

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84
Q

What are the two types of T cells?

A

Helper T: aka CD4

Cyotoxic T: aka CD8

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85
Q

What is colonial selection and what does it produce?

A

Process by which lymphocytes divide and form more highly specialized cells in response to a specific antigen. This gives rise to effector and memory cells

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86
Q

What is a cytokine and where is it found?

A

A cytokines is a protein hormone that helps a cell grow and differentiate.

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87
Q

What’s another name for an allergic reaction?

A

Hypersensitivity reaction.

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88
Q

Name the four types of hypersensitivity reactions.

A

Type 1- anaphylactic
Type 2- cytotoxic
Type 3- immune-complex
Type 4- cell mediated

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89
Q

Define and describe a type one hypersensitivity reaction

A

Anaphylactic

Most common, response occurs within minutes of exposure.

Response is vasodilation, increased blood capillary permeability, increased smooth muscle contraction in the airway of the lungs and increased mucous secretion.

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90
Q

Describe and define type 2 hypersensitivity reactions

A

Cytotoxic

Cussed by antibodies directed against antigens.

Incompatible blood transfusion reactions

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91
Q

Describe and define type III hypersensitivity reactions

A

Immune complex

Antigens, antibodies and a complement.

Immune complexes become trapped in basement membrane and cause inflammation. Examples include Rheumatoid Arthritis and Glomerulonephritis.

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92
Q

Describe and define type 4 hypersensitivity reactions

A

Cell mediated

Delayed hypersensitivity reactions occur in 12 to 72 hours after exposure

Tuberculosis skin testing, poison ivy toxin.

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93
Q

What is a complement?

A

A group of proteins that complement immune responses and help clear antigens from the body

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94
Q

Describe the functions of white and red pop in the spleen.

A

White pulp functions and immunity and red pulp performs functions related to blood cells

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95
Q

Name the structural divisions of the respiratory system and what is its contents

A

1- Upper respiratory system
Nose, pharynx and associated structures

2- Lower respiratory system
Larynx, trachea, bronchi, bronchiolesand lungs containing alveoli

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96
Q

Name the functional definitions of the respiratory system and where they start and end

A

Conducting zone
Trachea until terminal bronchioles

Respiratory zone
Respiratory bronchioles to alveoli

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97
Q

What’s another term for alveolar microphages

A

Dust cells

98
Q

What muscles are inhalation?

A

Sternocleidomastoid, scalene’s, external intercostals and diaphragm

99
Q

What muscles are primarily used in exhalation?

A

Internal Intercostals

Also external and internal oblique, transversus abdominis and rectus abdominis

100
Q

What factors affect ventilation a.k.a. breathing

A

Pressure, surface tension, elastic recoil and compliance

101
Q

Describe how carbon dioxide is carried through the blood

A

Most carbon dioxide is transported in the blood plasma as bicarbonate while less than a fourth of it (23%~) is bound to haemoglobin as carbaminohaemoglobin

102
Q

Where are the respiratory centres of the body?

A

In the medulla oblongata and pons of the brain

103
Q

Where are the chemo receptors for respiration in the body?

A

Located on the carotid arteries and aorta the chemoreceptors are called the carotid bodies and aortic bodies

104
Q

What is the name of the outer most layer of the pericardium and what does it consist of in terms of tissue type

A

Fibrous pericardium.

Dense inelastic irregular connective tissue

105
Q

How are cardiac muscle fibres electrically connected to neighbouring fibers?

A

Via gap junctions

106
Q

Stimulation of which nerve reduced heart rate?

A

Vagus

107
Q

What would an increase in potassium levels in the blood plasma due to the heart rate up an individual?

A

It would decrease the heart rate

108
Q

What type of blood vessel plays a key role in regulating blood flow into the capillaries?

A

Arterioles

109
Q

What is the most important method of capillary exchange?

A

Diffusion

110
Q

Name three structures that aid in the venous return of the blood to the heart.

A

Skeletal muscle pump, respiratory pump, and venous valves

111
Q

What to concepts does cardiac output depend on?

A

Heart rate and stroke volume

112
Q

What blood vessel is commonly used as grafts in a coronary bypass surgery?

A

The great saphenous vein

113
Q

What category would an individual with a blood pressure of 145/95 be placed in?

A

Stage one hypertension

114
Q

Where would you find the spleen, and organ of the immune system?

A

Left upper quadrant

115
Q

The main duct for return of lymph back to blood be the left subclavian vein is called what?

A

Thoracic duct a.k.a. left lymphatic duct

116
Q

What respiratory system disease is caused by inhalation of coal dust?

A

Pneumoconiosis

117
Q

What class of antibody is mainly found in sweat tears breastmilk and G.I. secretions?

A

IgA

118
Q

What respiratory system is located anterior to the esophagus?

A

Trachea

119
Q

What lung has three lobes?

A

Right

*its greater to be right

120
Q

What cytokine release by macrophages acts on the hypothalamus to raise the body temperature during the fever?

A

Interleukin-1

121
Q

Describe the difference between interleukin 1 and 2.

A

interleukin-1 raises body temperature, spurs the production of interferon, and stimulates growth of disease-fighting cells, among other functions.

Interleukin-2 is a protein that regulates the activities of white blood cells (leukocytes, often lymphocytes) that are responsible for immunity.

122
Q

What auto immune disease causes a butterfly shaped rash on the cheeks and bridge of the nose?

A

Systemic lupus erythrmatosus

123
Q

What type of shocking because due to dehydration, hemorrhage, or severe burns?

A

Hypovolaemic

124
Q

Would hyperproteinaemia lead to edema?

A

No

125
Q

What is a lung disease marked by abnormally few but large alveoli?

A

Emphysema

126
Q

What structure of the heart attaches papillary muscle to the atrioventricular valves?

A

Chordae tendineae

127
Q

Name the components of the gastrointestinal tract

A

Mouth, pharynx, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine, rectum, anal canal, and anus

128
Q

What are the accessory organs of the digestive system?

A

Teeth, tongue, salivary gland’s, liver, gallbladder, and pancreas

129
Q

Name the six digestive processes

A

Ingestion, secretion, motility, digestion, absorption, and defecation

130
Q

Name the four basic layers of the digestive tract (inner to outer)

A

Mucosa, submucosa, muscularis, serosa

131
Q

What is the mucosal layer of the digestive track made up of?

A

Epithelium, lamina propria, muscularis mucosae

132
Q

Name the two types of reflexes that are part of the enteric nervous system

A

Myenteric reflex- Auerbach plexus

Submucosal reflex- meissners plexus

133
Q

Name the components of the structure of a tooth

A

Crown, neck, root, enamel, dentin, cementum, pulp

134
Q

What is deglutition and what structures are involved in it?

A

Deglutition is the act of swallowing and it is done by the mouth, pharynx and oesophagus

135
Q

What are the three phases of swallowing?

A

Voluntary, pharyngeal, and oesophageal

136
Q

Name the three zones of the pharynx

A

Nasopharynx, oropharynx, laryngopharynx

137
Q

Name the three salivary gland’s and what their function is.

A

Parotid, submandibular and sublingual. They produce saliva

138
Q

What is the cranial nerve innervation for the parotid gland?

A

Cranial nerve nine- Glossopharyngeal nerve

139
Q

What is the cranial nerve innervation for the submandibular and sublingual gland’s?

A

Cranial nerve seven- facial nerve

140
Q

What is the purpose of the esophagus?

A

To pass bolus from the pharynx to the stomach. Peristalsis begins here

141
Q

What are the names of the sphincters that border the esophagus?

A

Upper oesophageal sphincter and lesser oesophageal sphincter/cardiac sphincter

142
Q

What structure controls peristalsis?

A

The mendulla oblongata

143
Q

What type of epithelium would you define the adventitia as?

A

Nonkeratinized stratified squamous

144
Q

Name the components of the stomach

A

Cardia, fundus, body, pyloric atrium, pyloric canal, pyloric canal, pyloric sphincter

145
Q

How does the stomach receive blood?

A

Via the celiac artery

146
Q

What is unique about the muscularis externa of the stomach?

A

It consists of three different types of smooth muscle, oblique, circular, and longitudinal

147
Q

In what layers of the stomach can you find rugae and what is the purpose?

A

They are found in the submucosa and mucosa of the stomach and are vital in expanding the stomach as well as creating more surface area for better absorption of nutrients

148
Q

What type of epithelium is the mucosa of the stomach?

A

Simple columnar epithelium

149
Q

What did chief cells produce?

A

Pepsinogen and gastric lipase

150
Q

What do parietal produce?

A

Hydrochloric acid and intrinsic factor

151
Q

What do you mucus cells produce?

A

Mucous a.k.a. goblet cells produce mucus

152
Q

Define chyme

A

Partially digested food mixed with gastric juices

153
Q

What do G cells produce?

A

The hormone gastrin.

Gastrin stimulates the release of hydrochloric acid by parietal cells causing the contraction of the lower oesophageal sphincter. It increases gastric movement and relaxes the pyloric sphincter.

154
Q

Name the three phases of digestion

A

Cephalic, gastric, and intestinal

155
Q

What type of cell is the exocrine gland of the pancreas? What does it produce and why?

A

Exocrine part: pancreatic acinar cells

Secretes pancreatic juice that is rich in sodium bicarbonate and enzymes to help break down carbs, proteins and lipids

156
Q

What enzyme secreted by the pancreas helps break down carbohydrates?

A

Pancreatic amylase

157
Q

What enzymes produced by the pancreas helps break down proteins?

A

Trypsin, chymotrypsin, elastase, carboxypeptidase

158
Q

What enzyme secreted from the pancreas helps break down lipids?

A

Pancreatic lipase

159
Q

What hormones are produced by the endocrine gland of the pancreas?

A

Insulin, glucagon, pancreatic polypeptide and somatostatin

All are produced by the islets of Langerhans

160
Q

How are the four lobes of the liver classified?

A

They are classified as right, left, quadrate and caudate

161
Q

What are cells of the liver referred to as?

A

Hepatocytes

162
Q

What structures form the hepatic portal Triad?

A

The hepatic artery, the hepatic portal vein and the common bile duct

163
Q

What organ makes bile?

A

The liver

164
Q

What organ stores, concentrates and releases bile? To where does the organ release it and how?

A

The gallbladder. Releases into cystic duct when stimulated by CCK

165
Q

What is bile and what does it do?

A

Paul is a combination of bilirubin excretion and bile salts and it emulsifies dietary fats

166
Q

What vitamins are stored in the liver?

A

All fat soluble vitamins plus B 12

167
Q

Name the components, from beginning to end, of the small intestine.

A

Duodenum, jejunum, and ileum

168
Q

Where can you find brush border enzymes?

A

The small intestine

169
Q

What secretions play an important role in gastric secretion regulation?

A

Secretin and CCK

170
Q

Where would you expect to find a large number of goblet cells in the G.I. tract?

A

In the ileum of the small intestine and in the large intestine

171
Q

What’s another name for the laryngopharynx?

A

Hypopharynx. It begins at the hyoid bone

172
Q

Describe the difference between type one and type two alveolar cells.

A

Type 1- Squamous pulmonary epithelial that form continuous lining of the alveolar walls

Type 2- Septal cells. Fewer in number and found between type one cells. Main site of gas exchange. Cuboidal with free surfaces containing micro villi that secrete alveolar fluid keeping the surfaces between cells and air moist.

173
Q

Why is surfactant important in the lungs and what is it made of?

A

Lower surface tension of fluid, reducing the tendency for the alveoli to collapse. Made up of phospholipids and Lipoproteins

174
Q

Define the term eupnea

A

Normal pattern of quiet breathing consisting of shallow, deep, or combined shallow and deep breathing. Shallow chest breathing is also called costal breathing and deep breathing is diaphragmatic breathing.

175
Q

Name the components of total lung capacity.

A

Inspiratory reserve volume + tidal volume + expiratory reserve volume + residual volume

176
Q

Define vital capacity

A

Vital capacity is inspiratory reserve volume + tidal volume + expiratory reserve volume

177
Q

What is the greater omentum?

A

Longest peritoneal fold.

Drapes over the Transverse colon and coils of the small intestine like a fatty apron

Double sheet that falls back onto itself – giving it a total of four layers

178
Q

What is the falciform ligament?

A

A ligament that is sickle shaped and attaches the liver to the anterior abdominal wall and diaphragm. The liver is the only digestive organ that is attached to the anterior abdominal wall.

179
Q

What is the lesser omentum?

A

Arising as an anterior fold in the serosa of the stomach and duodenum, connects the stomach and duodenum to the liver. Contains the hepatic portal vein, common hepatic artery, and bile duct.

180
Q

What is the mesentery?

A

Fan shaped fault of the peritoneum binding the jejunum and ileum of the small intestine to the posterior abdominal wall.

181
Q

What is the mesocolon?

A

Two separate folds of peritoneum, binding the transverse colon and the sigmoid colon of the large intestine to the posterior abdominal wall.

182
Q

What is the term used to describe when peritoneal cavity becomes distended by the accumulation of litres of fluid?

A

Ascites

183
Q

What is the periodontal ligament’s?

A

Dense fibrous connective tissue that anchors the teeth to the socket walls and acts as a shock absorber during chewing

184
Q

What forms the majority of the tooth?

A

Dentin- Calcified connective tissue. Higher content of hydroxyapatite than bone

185
Q

How many teeth do babies have compared to that of an adult?

A

Babies have 20 primary teeth aka deciduous teeth.

Adults have 32 permanent a.k.a. secondary teeth

186
Q

What’s the term used to define when a part of the stomach protrudes above the diaphragm through the oesophageal hiatus?

A

Hiatus hernia

187
Q

What is needed for the absorption of vitamin B 12 and what produces it?

A

Intrinsic factor is required for absorption of vitamin B 12 and it is secreted by the parietal cell

188
Q

What’s another name for the chief cell?

A

Zymogemic cell

189
Q

What is uglier, the pancreas or the appendix?

A

The appendix because not only is it gross looking but it also gathers feces.

190
Q

What’s another name for the pancreatic duct and what is its anatomical position?

A

Duct of wirsung

Larger of the two pancreatic ducts.

Joins the common bile duct (from the liver and gallbladder) Enters the duodenum as a dilated common duct called the hepatopancreatic ampulla or the ampulla Of Vater.

191
Q

What’s another name for the hepatopancreatic ampulla

A

Ampulla of vater

192
Q

What’s another name for the accessory duct

A

Duct of Santorini. It is not present in all individuals

193
Q

What’s another term for the sphincter of the hepatopancreatic ampulla

A

The sphincter of Oddi

194
Q

What is the ratio of exocrine to endocrine glands in the pancreas?

A

99% are exocrine secreting pancreatic juice a.k.a. bicarbonate and digestive enzymes. 1% are pancreatic islet a.k.a. highlights of Langerhans, the endocrine portion of the pancreas secreting hormones such as glucagon, insulin, somatostatin and Pancreatic polypeptide

195
Q

What enzymes found in the pancreas are nucleic acid digesting enzymes?

A

Ribonuclease and deoxyribonuclease

196
Q

Why does the pancreas have to produce in active forms of enzymes such as pepsin instead of pepsinogen?

A

So that the enzymes do not digest the cells of the pancreas itself.

197
Q

How are chymotrypsinogen, procarboxypeptidase, and proelastase activated and where?

A

Enterokinase Is an enzyme in the brush border of the small intestine. This enzyme interacts with trypsinogen And make it become the active form, trypsin. Trypsin then activates the other enzymes turning them active in the small intestine

198
Q

What is enterokinase? Why is it important?

A

It is an enzyme found in the brush border of the small intestine and it is important because it is what activates trypsinogen to become trypsin which then starts a domino effect for the other protein digesting enzymes that are in active in the small intestine; chymotrypsinogen, procarboxypeptidase, and proelastase.

199
Q

Is the liver an organ or a gland?

A

It is both.

200
Q

What divides the left and right lobe of the liver?

A

Falciform ligament which is a fold of the mesentery

201
Q

What are the left and right coronary ligaments?

A

These are extensions of the parietal peritoneum that connect the liver and the diaphragm

202
Q

How are gallstones formed?

A

If file does not contain enough bile salts or lecithin, Or has too much cholesterol in it then the cholesterol can crystallize to form gallstones. This obstructs the flow of bile from the gallbladder into the duodenum.

203
Q

What is the name of the procedure that entails removal of the gallbladder and its contents?

A

Cholecystectomy

204
Q

What are the functions of the liver?

A

Secretion of bile, metabolism of macromolecules, processing of drugs and hormones, excretion of Bilirubin, Synthesis of bile salts, Storage of vitamins and minerals, phagocytosis, and activation of vitamin D

205
Q

What is a Stellate Reticuloendothelial cell and what does it do?

A

Also known as a kupffer cell, Stellate reticuloendothelial cell Is found in the liver and Phagocytizes aged red blood cells, white blood cells and some bacteria

206
Q

What is the active form of vitamin D?

A

Calcitrol

207
Q

What is a Paneth cell and where is it found?

A

Found in the small intestine a panic cell secretes lysozyme and is capable of phagocytosis

208
Q

What is another name for the intestinal glands?

A

Crypts of Lieberkuhn

209
Q

What do the Crypts of Lieberkuhn or intestinal glands contain?

A

They contain absorptive cells, goblet cells, Paneth cells and enteroendocrine cells.

210
Q

What enteroendocrine cells are found in the intestinal glands of the small intestine?

A

S cells, CCK cells and K cells

211
Q

Where are S cells found and what do they do?

A

They are found in the intestinal glands of the small intestine and They secrete the hormone secretin

212
Q

Where are CCK cells found and what do they do?

A

They are found in the intestinal glands of the small intestine and they secrete Cholecystokinin

213
Q

What are K cells and where are they found and what do they do?

A

K cells are enteroendocrine cells found in the intestinal glands of the small intestine and they secrete glucose-dependent insulinotropic peptide

214
Q

Where would you find solitary lymphatic nodules?

A

They are found most numerously in the distal part of the ileum

215
Q

What is a peyers patch and where is it found?

A

Groups of lymphatic nodules referred to as aggregated lymphatic follicles that are found in the ileum.

216
Q

What is another name for the duodenal glands that are found in the submucosa of the duodenum?

A

They are called Brunner’s glands

217
Q

What to the duodenal a.k.a. Brunner’s glands do? And where are they found?

A

They are found in the duodenum, specifically the submucosa of the duodenum, and they secrete an alkaline mucus to neutralize the gastric acid in chyme.

218
Q

Is the duodenum retroperitoneal?

A

Yes

219
Q

What enzymes are found in the brush border of the small intestine?

A

Peptides, Maltase, Sucrase, and lactase. Also to nucleotide digesting enzymes, nucleosidase and phosphatase

220
Q

What governs segmentations and migrating motility complexes in the small intestine?

A

These mechanical digestion movements are governed by the myentric plexus

221
Q

What is the migrating motility complex and what does it do?

A

This is the type of peristalsis that occurs in the small intestine that is governed by the myentric plexus. It starts in the lower portion of the stomach and goes to the end of the ileum.

222
Q

How long does chyme remain in the small intestine?

A

3-5 hours

223
Q

What is sucrose?

A

It is a disaccharide, made up of two monosaccharides; glucose and fructose

224
Q

What is lactose?

A

Lactose is a disaccharide, made up of two monosaccharides; glucose and galactose.

225
Q

What is Maltose?

A

It is a disaccharide, made up of two molecules of glucose. If there are three molecules of glucose it is called maltotriose.

226
Q

Why do Females and Asian males develop higher blood alcohol levels and therefore experience greater intoxication in comparison to males of comparable size?

A

Alcohol dehydrogenase is an enzyme present in gastric mucosal cells that break down alcohol to a non-intoxicating state. Asian men have a lower levels of this gastric enzyme, and the activity of gastric alcohol dehydrogenase is 60% lower in females than men.

227
Q

What attaches the large intestine to the abdominal wall?

A

The mesocolon

228
Q

What are the four major regions of the large intestine?

A

The cecum, colon, rectum, and anal canal

229
Q

What’s another name for the appendix?

A

Vermiform appendix

230
Q

What are the four sections of the colon?

A

The ascending colon, transverse colon, descending colon, and the sigmoid colon

231
Q

Is the anal sphincter voluntary or involuntary?

A

This is a trick question. The internal anal sphincter is involuntary smooth muscle and the external anal sphincter is voluntary skeletal muscle

232
Q

Why does more absorption occurs in the small intestine and large intestine?

A

Because the small intestine has structural adaptations that increase surface area such as circular folds and villi, unlike the large intestine.

There are microvilli present on the absorptive cells of the large intestine which is why some absorption occurs here.

233
Q

Why does the colon look puckered?

A

It’s puckered appearance is because of the pouches called haustra

234
Q

What does gastrin due to the ileocecal sphincter?

A

Gastrin, secreted by G cells, relaxes the Illiocecal sphincter forcing chyme into the caecum

235
Q

What is mass peristalsis and where is it found?

A

Mass peristalsis is found in the colon of the large intestine; it is a strong wave that begins in the middle of a transverse colon driving the contents of the colon into the rectum rapidly.

236
Q

What is feces?

A

It is basically chyme, That has become solid or semi solid because of water absorption. It consists of water, inorganic salts, epithelial cells from the mucosa of the gastrointestinal tract, bacteria, products of bacterial decomposition, and absorb digested materials, and indigestible parts of food.

237
Q

What does the defaecation reflex do?

A

Increases pressure within the rectum and opens the internal anal sphincter

238
Q

What type of fibre slows down the passage of material in the digestive tract and which type speeds it up?

A

Soluble fibre slows down the passage of material through the track because it forms a gel. Insoluble fibre speeds up the passage.

239
Q

Describe the cephalic phase of digestion

A

Smell, sight, thought, or initial taste activates neural centres in the cerebral cortex, hypothalamus, and brain stem. This stimulates salivary gland to secrete saliva as well as the Vagus nerve stimulating gastric glands to secrete gastric juice

240
Q

Describe the gastric phase of digestion

A

The gastric phase of digestion begins when the food reaches the stomach, neural and hormonal mechanisms promote gastric secretion and motility. This includes the secretion of gastrin

241
Q

Describe the intestinal phase of digestion

A

Intestinal phase of digestion begins when the food enters the small intestine. Instead of reflexes stimulating activity, the intestinal phase has inhibitory effects that slow the exit of chyme from the stomach to prevent the dog them from being overloaded.

AP (5 decks)

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