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AP > Package 1 > Flashcards

Package 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Name the structural body organization from simple to complex

A

Chemical-cellular-tissue-organ-system-organism

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2
Q

Name six basic characteristics of living human organism

A 
Metabolism
Differentiation
Reproduction
Growth
Movement
Responsiveness
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3
Q

What is an autopsy/necropsy?

A

An autopsy (post-mortem examination, obduction, necropsy, or autopsia cadaverum) is a surgical procedure that consists of a thorough examination of a corpse by dissection to determine the cause, mode, and manner of death or to evaluate any disease or injury that may be present for research or educational purposes.

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4
Q

What is a biopsy?

A

an examination of tissue removed from a living body to discover the presence, cause, or extent of a disease.

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5
Q

What are non invasive examination techniques?

A

Auscultation
Palpation
Percussion
Inspection

PIPA

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6
Q

Compare symptom vs sign

A

Symptom is a subjective description of an ailment

A sign is objective measure of an ailment

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7
Q

Compare disorder vs disease

A

A disorder is any abnormality or structure or function

A disease is specific term for illness characterized by recognizable set of signs and symptoms

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8
Q

Define epidemiology

A

Science on why, when, where and how diseases occur/are transmitted among individuals in a community.

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9
Q

Define pharmacology

A

Science dealing with the effects and uses or drugs in treatment of a disease

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10
Q

Name the four cavities of the body

A

Cranial- Form by cranial bones and contains the brain
Vertebral- Forward by vertebral column and contain spinal cord and the beginnings of spinal nerves
Thoracic cavity- Contains plural and pericardial cavities and the mediastinum
Abdominopelvic cavity- Subdivided into abdominal pelvic cavitations

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11
Q

What is contained within the plural cavity

A

The lungs. The plural cavity is a potential space between the layers of the plural that’s around the lungs

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12
Q

Pericardial cavity

A

A potential space between the layers of the pericardium that surround the heart

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13
Q

Mediastinum

A

Central portion of the thoracic cavity between the lungs. Extends from the sternum to the vertebral column and from the first group to the diaphragm; contains heart, thymus, Oesophagus, trachea and several large blood vessels

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14
Q

What is contained in the abdominal cavity

A

Stomach, spleen, liver, gallbladder, small intestine and most of the large intestine; the serious membrane of the of the abdominal cavity is the peritoneum

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15
Q

What is contained in the pelvic cavity

A

Urinary bladder portions of the large intestine and internal organs of reproduction

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16
Q

What is the difference between the parietal and visceral pleura

A

Visceral lies closest to the organ parietal lies on the outside

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17
Q

Define serous membrane

A

A slippery double layered membrane associated with body cavities that do not open directly to the exterior

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18
Q

Where would you find serous membranes

A

Covering the viscera within the thoracic and abdominal cavities as well as the walls of the thorax and abdomen

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19
Q

Define abdomino pelvic regions

A

Right hypochondriac, epigastric, left hypochondriac, right lumbar, umbilical , left lumbar, right inguinal, hypogastric, left inguinal

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20
Q

What is the name of the superior horizontal line and inferior horizontal line in the abdominal pelvic region subdivision

A

Superior: subcostal line (passes across the lowest level of the 10th costal cartilage)
Inferior: transtubercular line (Passes across superior margin of the iliac crest of the right and left hip bone)

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21
Q

How many abdominal pelvic regions are there in comparison to abdominal pelvic quadrants

A

Regions, nine

Quadrants, four

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22
Q

Name the abdominal pelvic quadrants

A

Right upper quadrant, left upper quadrant, right lower quadrant, left lower quadrant

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23
Q

Define homeostasis

A

Maintenance of relatively stable conditions in the body’s internal environment produced by the interplay of all the bodies regulatory processes

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24
Q

Define plasma and where you would find it

A

Plasmas the Extracellular fluid within the blood vessels

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25
Q

What systems are responsible for homeostasis

A

Endocrine and nervous system. Nervous system to text body changes and sons nerve impulses to counteract changes in controlled environments. The endocrine system regulates homeostasis by secreting hormones

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26
Q

Name the three components in the feedback system

A

Receptors: monitor changes in a control condition and send input to control Centre

Control center: sets the value at which controlled condition should be maintained and evaluate the input it receives from receptors, And generates output commands when they are needed

The factors: receive output from control Centre and produce a response that alters the controlled condition

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27
Q

Describe the path of a nutrient in the body

A

From the external environment into the plasma the other digestive system then into the interstitial fluid and then into the body of a cell

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28
Q

In what abdominal pelvic region would you find the liver? The ascending colon? The urinary bladder? And the small intestine?

A

Liver = epigastric
Ascending colon = right lumbar
Urinary bladder = hypogastric
Small intestine = umbilical

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29
Q

In what quadrant would you expect pain associated with Appendicitis

A

Right lower quadrant

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30
Q

Define stimulus

A

Any disruption that changes a controlled environment

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31
Q

What cavities are considered dorsal and which are ventral

A 
Dorsal = cranial and vertebral /spinal
Central = thoracic and abdominopelvic
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32
Q

What structures are retroperitoneal

A

Kidneys, adrenal glands, pancreas, duodenum, ascending and descending colon, portions of abdominal aorta, inferior vena cava, ureters

8- KAPDCAAIVCU

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33
Q

What is an MRI

A

Magnetic resonance imaging

Two or three dimensional blueprint of cellular chemistry, details for soft tissues but not bones

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34
Q

Define CT scan

A

Computed tomography

For soft tissues and organs in much more detail

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35
Q

What is a pet scan used for

A

Positron emission tomography Reveals how your tissues and organs are functioning. can be use with a tracer

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36
Q

What are chemical elements

A

Chemical elements are made of Atoms which are the smallest unit of matter

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37
Q

How many chemical elements are there in the human body

A

26

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38
Q

Name the major elements lesser elements and trace elements and their percentages in the body

A

Four major elements = 96%-carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen, nitrogen
Eight lesser elements = 3.6% - Calcium, potassium, phosphate, sulfur, sodium, chloride, magnesium, iron
14 trace elements = .4%

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39
Q

Define atom

A

Subatomic particles a.k.a. protons, neutrons, and electrons

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40
Q

What is an anatomic number

A

Number of protons in an atom

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41
Q

What is an atomic mass or weight

A

Average mass of all stable items within an element

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42
Q

What are isotopes

A

Adams of an element that differ in the number of neutrons

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43
Q

What is an ion

A

An atom with a positive or negative charge a.k.a. positive is a Cation, Negative charge is an anion

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44
Q

What is an electrolyte

A

Iconic compound that breaks down into positive and negative ions in a solution

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45
Q

What is a molecule

A

Two or more atoms combine by sharing electrons aka H2O

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46
Q

What is a compound

A

Two or more atoms of different elements combining by sharing electrons

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47
Q

What is the difference between organic and organic compounds

A

In organic compounds black carbon and organic compounds always have carbon

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48
Q

Give an example of organic compounds

A

Carbohydrates, lipids, proteins, nucleic acid

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49
Q

Give an example of an inorganic compound

A

Water, salt, acid, base

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50
Q

What is a free radical

A

An atom or groups of atoms with an unpaired electrons in the outer most valence shell

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51
Q

What is an antioxidant

A

A substance that and activates oxygen derived free radicals aka vitamin C, vitamin E, beta-carotene

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52
Q

What are ionic bonds

A

The force attraction that holds together ions with opposite charges aka sodium and chlorine atoms in table salt

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53
Q

What is a nonpolar covalent bond

A

Two atoms sharing the electrons equally where one atom does not attract the shared electrons more strongly than any other atom

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54
Q

What is a polar covalent bond

A

When the sharing of electrons between two atoms is unequal

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55
Q

Compare exergonic reactions to endergonic reactions

A

Exergonic- Release more energy than they absorb

Endergonic- absorb more energy then they release

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56
Q

Name the types of proteins in the human body

A

Structural, regulatory, contractile, immunological, transport, catalytic

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57
Q

What is a nucleic acid

A

A chain of repeating monomers called nucleotides consisting of a nitrogenous base, A pentose sugar and a phosphate group

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58
Q

Describe the characteristics of DNA

A

Nitrogenous base- Adenine, cytosine guanine, thymine
Sugar –deoxyribose
Two double helix strands

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59
Q

Describe the components of RNA

A

Nitrogenous base- Adenine,cytosine, guanine, uracil
Sugar-ribose
Single-stranded helix

Messenger RNA, transfer RNA, ribosomal RNA

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60
Q

What does ATP stand for and what is it

A

Adenosine triphosphate

Energy currency of all living systems liberated an exergonic catabolic reactions to power cellular activities that require energy a.k.a. muscular contractions, movement of chromosomes during cell division, movement of structures within cells, transport of substances across the cell membrane’s, and synthesis of larger molecules from smaller ones

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61
Q

Compare an anaerobic phase to an aerobic phase

A

Anaerobic- do not require oxygen. Glucose is partially broken down by catabolic reactions in to pyruvic acid, Yielding two molecules of ATP

Aerobic- Using oxygen, glucose is completely broken down into carbon dioxide and water generating heat and 30 or 32 ATP molecules

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62
Q

Define mass number of an atom

A

The sum of its protons and neutrons

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63
Q

What effect do buffer systems have on protons and the overall body?

A

Buffer systems remove or add protons. To help maintain PH homeostasis

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64
Q

Why is the carbonic acid bicarbonate buffer system important?

A

The bicarbonate ion acts as a weak base removing excess hydrogen in the body and the carbonic acid acts as a weak acid to add hydrogen in the body

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65
Q

Name the three groups of carbohydrates

A

Monosaccharides, disaccharides, polysaccharides

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66
Q

What are lipids

A

Lipids are a diverse group of compounds that include fatty acids, triglycerides, phospholipids, steroids, eicosanoids

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67
Q

What are the simplest form of lipids

A

Fatty acids

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68
Q

What is the purpose of fatty acids

A

Used to synthesize triglycerides and phospholipids

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69
Q

What is the importance of triglycerides

A

Protecting insulating and providing energy

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70
Q

What is the purpose of steroids

A

They are a type of lipid that is important in cell membrane structure, regulation of sexual function, maintenance of normal blood sugar level, eating and lipid digestion and it’s option, and helping bone growth

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71
Q

What is the plasma membrane

A

The cells semipermeable and flexible outer surface flexible outer surface separating the cells internal environment from its external environment

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72
Q

Compare the difference between integral and peripheral membrane proteins

A

Integral proteins extend into or through the bilipid layer and are firmly embedded in it, most are transmembrane proteins spanning the entire lipid bilayer

Peripheral proteins are not firmly embedded in the membrane but are attached to the pole or heads of the membrane lipids or two integral proteins at the inner and outer surface of the membrane

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73
Q

Name the integral proteins

A

Ion channels, carrier, receptor, enzyme, linker

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74
Q

Name the types of peripheral proteins

A

Enzyme, linker

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75
Q

Compare hydrostatic pressure to osmotic pressure

A

Hydrostatic Pressure is based on the pressure exerted in a membrane versus osmotic pressure which exerts force based on the concentration of solute particles

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76
Q

Define a hypotonic solution versus a hypertonic solution and what would be the result of a cell placed in the solutions

A

A hypotonic solution is a solution that has a lower concentration of solute’s than the concentration inside a cell causing water to enter the cell faster than it leaves which in turn causes haemodialysis a.k.a. the cell swells and bursts.

A hypertonic solution is when there is a higher concentration of solute outside the cell and therefore water molecules move out of the cell faster than they enter causing the cell to shrink a.k.a. crenation

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77
Q

Describe receptor mediated endocytosis and the steps required

A

Receptor mediated endocytosis is a highly selective type of endocytosis by which cells take up specific like Ligands.
First on the extracellular side of the plasma membrane a particle binds to a specific receptor and then invaginate the edges of the membrane we are the small piece of the membrane pinches off resulting in a vesicle then it on coats and fuses with the endosome.

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78
Q

Name the three types of endocytosis

A

Receptor mediated endocytosis, phagocytosis, bulkphase endocytosis (Pinocytosis)

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79
Q

Name the types of passive processes of materials in and out of cells

A

Passive processes include diffusion (Simple diffusion and facilitated diffusion) And osmosis

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80
Q

Name the types of active processes of transport materials in and out of cells

A

Primary active transport secondary active transport and transport in vesicles

Transport and vesicles include endocytosis and exocytosis and transcytosis

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81
Q

What’s the main difference between endocytosis and exocytosis

A

Endocytosis is movement of substances into cells using vesicles and exocytosis is the movement of substances out of cells in vesicles releasing their contents into the extracellular fluid

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82
Q

Put the following in order from smallest to largest size: Microtubules, microfilaments and intermediate filaments

A

Smallest is microfilaments, intermediate filaments, microtubules

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83
Q

Describe the cell cycle

A

Interphase: G1, S, G2

G1: Replication of organelles and cytosolic components but not DNA. Centrosome replication begins. Cell is metabolically active. 8 to 10 hours.

S: DNA replication. Eight hours.

G2: Cell growth continues, enzymes and other proteins synthesized, centrosome replication complete. 4 to 6 hours.

Miotic phase: PMAT
Prophase: chromatin fibres condense and shorten into chromosomes that are visible under microscope period beginning of miotic spindle.
Metaphase: microtubules of miotic spindle align the centromeres of the chromatid pairs at the exact centre of the miotic spindle, this alignment is called metaphase plate or equatorial plane.
Anaphase: centromere split moving toward opposite poles of Cell. Now coined the term chromosomes. Begin looking like Cleavage.
Tele phase: final stage of mitosis. Nuclear envelope forms, miotic spindle breaks up.

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84
Q

What’s the difference between mitosis and meiosis

A

Mitosis is complete after a single round, meiosis occurs and two successive stages. In meiosis each of the two haploid cells formed during meiosis 1 divides, and then the net result is four haploid gametes that are genetically different from the original diploid starting cell.

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85
Q

What type of cell occurs in mitosis versus meiosis?

A

Mitosis is a somatic cell type and meiosis is a gamete.

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86
Q

What vitamins are fat soluble?

A

Vitamin a, D, E and K.

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87
Q

Name examples of nonpolar hydrophobic molecules

A

That’s all you both vitamins, oxygen, carbon dioxide, nitrogen, steroids.

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88
Q

Name the components of the cytoskeleton of the cell. Bonus: what is the function of the cytoskeleton?

A

Microfilaments, intermediate filaments, microtubules.

The cytoskeleton provides a structural framework for the cell and is responsible for cell movement

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89
Q

What is the function of the rough ER?

A

The rough ER has ribosomes that synthesize proteins as well as processes them and sort them. The rough ER also produces secretory proteins, membrane proteins and organelles proteins. The rough ER forms glycoproteins, synthesizes phospholipids, and attaches proteins to phospholipids.

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90
Q

Describe the purpose of the smooth ER.

A

Synthesize fatty acids and steroids, it activates or detoxifies drugs and other harmful substances, removes phosphate from glucose six phosphate, releases calcium ions that trigger contraction in muscle cells

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91
Q

Where would you find a cistern?

A

Cisterns are found on the Golgi complex, they are term used for the flat and socks on the Golgi complex.

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92
Q

What is the purpose of the Golgi complex?

A

The Golgi complex modify sorts and packages proteins for transport and secretory vesicles, membrane vesicles, for transport vehicles two different cellular destinations

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93
Q

What is the purpose of lysosomes?

A

Lysosomes are membrane enclosed vesicles that contain digestive enzymes. Digestion of worn out organelles, host cell, extracellular digestion.

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94
Q

What is the purpose of peroxisomes?

A

Proxisomes contain oxidized that oxidize amino acids, fatty acids and toxic substances.

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95
Q

What is the purpose of proteasomes?

A

An organelle that continually degrades I needed, damaged, or faulty proteins by cutting them into small peptides

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96
Q

What component of a cell is considered the powerhouse, producing most of the cells ATP and playing in important part in early apoptosis?

A

Mitochondria

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97
Q

Describe the process of translation

A

AnMRNA specifies the amino acid sequence of a protein, it binds to a ribosome, and a specific Amino acid attaches to the tRNA, and anticodons of the tRNA binds to the condons of the mRNA, brain specific amino acids into position of a growing polypeptide. Translation begins at the start codon and ends at the stop codon

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98
Q

What are the three main parts of a cell?

A

Plasma membrane, cytoplasm, nucleus.

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99
Q

What is autophagy?

A

The digestion of worn out organielles by lysosomes

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100
Q

Name the five most important types of cell junctions

A

Tight, adherens, demosomes, Hemidemosomes, gap

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101
Q

What are tight junctions? Where can you find them?

A

Web like strands of transmembrane proteins found in epithelial tissue that lines the stomach intestines and urinary bladder

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102
Q

Adherns Junction’s? Where are they found?

A

Dense layer of proteins inside plasma membrane that contain block. Contains cadherins. Extensive adherens junctions form adhesion belts helping epithelial surface
resisting separation during contractile activities.

Intestines

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103
Q

What are demosomes?

A

Provides stability. Plaque and transmembrane glycoproteins
Attaches cells to eachother via intermediate filaments

Common in epidermis and cardiac mm

Helps resist separation under tension

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104
Q

What are hemidemosomes?

A

Their Glycoproteins are not cadherins, instead Integrins.

Anchor cells to basement membranes.

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105
Q

What are gap junctions?

A

Made of membrane proteins called connections that connect neighbouring cells but are not fused together as tight and are separated by narrow intracellular gaps.

Allow tissues to communication with one another.

Nervous system, cardiac mm contraction, GI tract, uterus.

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106
Q

Define glandular epithelium

A

Makes up the secreting portion of Glen such as a thyroid, adrenal, sweat, digestive glands.

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107
Q

Describe the function of squamous versus cuboidal versus columnar vs transitional cell shapes.

A

Squamous: thin, allows for rapid passage of substances

Cuboidal: wide/tall. May contain microvilli in apical surface and functions in secretion or absorption.

Columnar: more tall than wide. Secretion and absorption through microvilla, but also protect underlying tissue.

Transitional: changes shape as they stretch, urinary bladder.

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108
Q

What is a merocrine gland?

A

Most glands in the body are merocrine. IE: salivary, pancreas.

Secretions are released from the cell in secretory vesicles via exocytosis

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109
Q

What is an apocrine gland?

A

Gland that accumulates secretory product at the apical surface of the secreting cells. The portion of the cell pinches off by exocytosis from the rest of the cell to release the secretion. the cell repairs itself and repeats the process

110
Q

What is a Holocrine gland?

A

Accumulates secretory product in cytosol of cell. Matures, ruptures and becomes the secretory product. The cell ruptures in the motive secretion, the secretion contains large amounts of lipid from the plasma membrane. The cell is replaced by a new one.

Ie: sebaceous gland of skin.

111
Q

What is the most widely abundant type of tissue in the human body?

A

Connective tissue.

112
Q

What is the purpose of connective tissue?

A

Fines, supports, strengthens body tissues.
Protects and insulates internal organs. Compartmentalizes structures such as Skeletal muscles.
Serves as the major transport system within the body.
Primary location of stored energy reserves.
Main source of immune responses

Highly vascular!!!

113
Q

What is a mesenchymal cell?

A

An embryonic cell that turns into connective tissue

114
Q

What are fibroblasts?

A

Large, flat cells present in connective tissue. Most numerous.

115
Q

What are macrophages?

A

Develop from monocytes, type of WBC.

Fixed macrophages stay in a tissue, wandering have ability to move and gather at site of infection or inflammation to carry out phagocytosis.

116
Q

Where are plasma cells found?

A

Most reside in CT.

117
Q

What do mast cells do?

A

Involved in the inflammatory response, the body’s reaction to injury or infection and can bind to, ingest and kill bacteria

118
Q

What type of fat is found in adipose?

A

Triglycerides

119
Q

Neutrophilis vs eosinophils purposes.

A

Neutrophils- infection

Eosinophils- allergic/parasitic response

120
Q

Where would you find loose connective tissue?

A

Areolar, adipose, reticular CT.

121
Q

Interstitial growth vs appositional growth.

A

Interstitial: growth within the tissue. Cartilage increases rapidly in size due to the division of existing chondrocytes and the continuous deposition of increasing amounts of extracellular matrix by the chondrocytes.

Puberty growth.

Appositional: growth on outer surface of tissue. Cells of inner cellular layer of perichondrium become chondroblasts and turn into chondrocytes as they mature. Growth in width.

Starts in adolescence, after interstitial growth

122
Q

What substances are found in the ground substance?

A

Water, polysaccharides, proteoglycans, adhesion proteins.

123
Q

What is the importance of the basement membrane?

A

Provides physical support for the epithelial tissue, plays a part in growth and wound healing, restriction of molecular movement between tissues, and blood filtration inthe kidneys

124
Q

What type of gland is a salivary gland?

A

Merocrine

125
Q

What type of gland is a sebaceous oil gland?

A

Holocrine

126
Q

What are the main type of membranes in the human body?

A

Epithelial and synovial.

Epithelial can be broken down further into mucus, serous and cutaneous

127
Q

What types of connective tissue are found in an embryo versus an adult?

A

Adult: Loose, Dense, Cartilage, bone, blood

Embryo: mesenchyme, mucous

128
Q

What are the two major layers of the skin?

A

Epidermis and dermis

129
Q

Name the type of cells that are considered epidermal?

A

Keratinocytes, melanocytes, intraepidermal macrophages a.k.a. langerhans cells, and tactile epithets cells aka Merkle cells

130
Q

Name the layers of the skin

A

Corneum, lucidum, granulosum, spinosum, basale

131
Q

What is the dermis made of?

A

Connective tissue layer Containing collagen and elastic fibers. The superficial portion of the papillary layer contains dermal papillae and the deeper portion is the reticular layer

132
Q

What types of tissue are found in the hypodermis?

A

Hypodermis a.k.a. subcutaneous layer is made of areolar and adipose tissue

133
Q

Describe the difference between the three types of hair

A

Lanugo- wooly, covers fetus
Vellus-widespread/peach fuzz
Terminal- thick and coarse, pubic/beard

134
Q

Describe the stages of hair growth

A

Growth stage: cells of the hair matrix divide and are added to the base of the hair root, existing cells of the hair root are pushed upward and the hair grows longer. The hair becomes keratinized and dies. 2 to 6 years

Regression stage: hair follicle atrophy’s and hair stops growing, cells of the hair matrix stop dividing.
2 to 3 weeks.

Resting stage colon old hair route falls out and has pushed out of the hair folic you’ll’s new hair begins to grow in its place. Three months.

135
Q

In what layer of the skin can keratinocytes be found?

A

Epidermis

136
Q

Where do Langerhans cells come from and where did they go to?

A

Arise from the red bone marrow and migrate to the epidermis

137
Q

What happens in the granulosum layer of the skin?

A

3 to 5 layers of flattened keratinocytes are undergoing apoptosis. This is the defining layer between metabolically active strata and dead cells.
The mellow granules are found hear that release lipid rich secretions acting as a water repellent, retarding the loss an entry of water and entry of foreign materials

138
Q

Where are melanocytes most plentiful?

A

In the epidermis of the penis, nipples of the breast, Areolae, face, limbs

139
Q

What causes Albinism?

A

Inability to produce melanin a.k.a. have Melanocytes that are unable to synthesize tyrosinase

140
Q

Vitiligo?

A

Partial or complete loss of melanocytes from patches of skin producing irregular white spots and related to an immune system malfunction in which antibodies attack the melanocytes

141
Q

What is the difference between apocrine sweat glands and Eccrine sweat glands

A

Apocrine- Larger ducts, located in the lower dermis or upper subcutaneous and excrete into hair follicles. Found mainly in the armpit, groin, nipple, beard. Contains same components but also contains lipids and proteins. Do not begin to function until puberty. Does not play a role in thermal regulation but please a role in emotional and sexual sweating

142
Q

Name the stages of deep wound healing

A

Four phases.

Inflammatory phase: blood clot forms And inflammation occurs.

Migratory phase: clock becomes a scab, fibre glass migrate along the fibrin threads and begin to synthesize scar tissue. Granulation tissue occurs in the stage.

Proliferative phase: extensive growth of epithelial cells beneath the scab, deposition by fibroblasts collagen fibres in random patterns.

Maturation phase: Scab comes off and epidermis for stores to normal thickness. Collagen fibres are more organized, fibroblast decrease in number.

143
Q

What’s the most common type of skin cancer?

A

Basal cell carcinoma

144
Q

What’s the difference between intramembranous and endochondral ossification?

A

Intramembranous ossification is the simpler method. Forms a flat bones of the skull facial bones medial part of the clavicle.

1- Development of ossification centre
2- Calcification
3-Formation of trabeculae
4- Development of Periosteum

Endochondral ossification is the replacement of cartilage by phone. Best observed in long bone.

1- Development of Cartilage model
2- Growth of Cartilage model
3- Development of primary ossification centre
4- Development of the medullary cavity
5- Development of secondary ossification centre
6- Formation of articular Cartlidge and Epiphyseal growth plate

145
Q

Describe the four zones in the epiphyseal growth plate

A

Zone of resting Cartlidge: closest to the epiphysis consists of small scattered chondrocytes

Zone of proliferating cartilage: interstitial growth occurs here, chondrocytes in this zone divide to replace those that die at the diaphyseal side of the epiphyseal plate.

Zone of hypertropic cartilage: large, maturing chondrocytes arranged in columns

Zone of calcified cartilage: final zone of the growth plate, mostly chondrocytes that are dead because the extracellular matrix has calcified. This area becomes the new diaphysis

146
Q

Name the stages of repair regarding a bone fracture.

A

Reactive phase: this is the early inflammatory phase. This is where mass of blood called a fracture haematoma forms usually 6 to 8 hours after injury. Ask your class begin to remove the dead or damaged tissue. Stage lasts up to several weeks.

Reparative stage: fibrocartilage callus forms (3 weeks) and then a boney callus forms (3-4 months)

Bone remodelling phase: final phase of fracture repair. Broken bone is reabsorbed by osteoclasts. Compact bone replaces spongy bone around the fracture. Usually a thickened area on the surface of the bone remains.

147
Q

What is a pott fracture?

A

Fracture to the distal end of the lateral leg bone a.k.a. fibula. Includes serious injury of distal tibia articulation

148
Q

What is a Colles fracture?

A

Fracture of the distal end of the radius.

149
Q

What does PTH do?

A

Stimulates the formation of Calcitrol, promoting absorption of calcium from the G.I. into the blood. Helps elevate blood calcium levels.

150
Q

What does calcitonin do?

A

Calcitonin stops osteoclasts. Promotes bone formation a.k.a. osteoblast, decrease blood Calcium level

151
Q

What does calcium affect?

A

Heartbeat, respiration, nerve cell functioning, & functioning and blood clotting

152
Q

What is the NMJ?

A

The contact point between a muscle cell and the synaptic end bulb of a motor neuron

153
Q

What are the three ways muscle can power the contraction cycle?

A

Creatine phosphate, anaerobic glycolysis, cellular respiration

154
Q

What factors contribute to muscle fatigue?

A

Insufficient ACh at the Neuro muscular Junction, lack of nutrients, O2, creatine phosphate, buildup of lactic acid and ADP, and inadequate release of calcium from the SR

155
Q

What is facia?

A

Dance sheet of a regular connective tissue lining the body wall and body

156
Q

What’s the term used for the plasma membrane of a muscle cell?

A

Sarcolemma

157
Q

Why are T tubules Important?

A

Transverse tubules are tiny invaginations of the sarcolemmq helping to spread muscle action potential is quicker to the muscle fibre a.k.a. promoting accessibility

158
Q

Where is calcium released from to trigger a muscle contraction?

A

Calcium is released from the terminal cisterns is at the sarcoplasmic reticulum

159
Q

What type of proteins are myosin and actin considered?

A

Contractile proteins. Actin is in the thin filament and myosin is in the thick filaments aiding in the sliding filament model.

160
Q

Describe the purpose of the two projections of the myosin molecule?

A

The myosin projections are called myosin heads.

there are two binding sites, the actin binding site and an ATP binding site.

161
Q

What is dystrophin?

A

A keystructural proteins in skeletal muscle, Reinforcing the sarcolemma and helping transmit the tension generated by sacromeres to the tendon

162
Q

Name the regulatory proteins of skeletal muscle and where they would be found.

A

Tropomyosin, troponin. Both are found as components of the thin filament.

163
Q

Name the level of organization with an a skeletal muscle from smallest to largest

A

Filament- Myofibril- muscle fibre/cell- fascicles - mm

164
Q

What process for ATP production is unique to muscle fibers?

A

Creatine phosphate. All body cells can make ATP by the reaction of anaerobic glycolysis and aerobic respiration.

165
Q

Where is creatine synthesized?

A

Creatine is a small amino acid like molecule synthesized in the liver, kidneys, and pancreas.

166
Q

Describe how ATP is created to power a muscle contraction

A

Essentially a muscle continues working due to creatine phosphate but when there’s no more of that then it depends on if there’s oxygen or no oxygen present. If there is no oxygen, The glucose will become lactic acid and then anaerobic glycolysis will happen but if there is oxygen then it’ll create pyruvic acid using the Krebs cycle

167
Q

Where does glycolysis occur?

A

The cytosol of the cell

168
Q

What’s another term for oxygen debt and what does it mean?

A

Another term is recovery oxygen uptake and it is a term used to refer to the extra oxygen that is used to pay back or restore metabolic conditions to the resting level after exercise by either converting lactic acid back into glycogen stores in the liver, resynthesizing creatine phosphate and ATP in muscle fibers, or replacing the oxygen that was removed from the myoglobin

169
Q

What has a longer refractory period; skeletal muscle or cardiac muscle?

A

Cardiac muscle has a longer refractory period of about 250 ms where skeletal muscle has a short refractory period of about 1 ms

170
Q

What is a wave summation?

A

This is a phenomenon where stimuli arrives at different times to a muscle causing a larger contraction. This is when a second stimulus occurs after the refractory period of the first stimulus is over but before the skeletal muscle has relaxed

171
Q

Describe the difference between isotonic and isometric contractions

A

Isotonic contractions are when the tension in a muscle is constant but the length changes. Examples are concentric and eccentric where concentric shortens the muscle and eccentric lengthens the muscle. Isometric contractions are when the length does not change

172
Q

Describe a slow oxidative fibre

A

Dark red because they contain a lot of myoglobin and their fibres are generally thinner then FOG fibers.

Contain many large mitochondria.

Another term is slow twitch fibres because the ATP hydrolyzes slowly and therefore they’re resistant to fatigue and capable of prolonged sustained contraction for many hours. An example would be good for marathon running

173
Q

What is a fast oxidative glycoltic fibre

A

A FOG contains large amounts of myoglobin and also have a dark red appearance. Moderately high resistance to fatigue. Considered fast because ATP is hydrolyzed faster than slow oxidative fibres but not as fast as fast glycolytic fibres. Good for sprinting and walking

174
Q

What is a fast glycolytic fibre

A

Fast glycolytic fibres are also known as fast twitch or white fibres as they have low myoglobin content, the blood capillaries, few mitochondria and appear white in color. The fibres are thicker than slow oxidative fibers. Great for intense anaerobic movements of short duration such as weightlifting.

175
Q

What is the difference between a spasm and a cramp?

A

A spasm is a pro long to muscle contraction and a cramp is a painful spasmodic contraction of the muscle.

176
Q

What is the prime function of muscle?

A

Changing chemical energy into mechanical energy to perform work

177
Q

Name the four special properties of muscular tissue

A

Electrical excitability, contractility, extensibility, and elasticity

178
Q

What type of neuron sends nerve impulses to skeletal muscles?

A

Somatic motor neuron

179
Q

What zones in sack Romare disappear during muscle contraction and which do not change?

A

The I and H zones disappear, but the length of thin and thick filaments do not change

180
Q

What are the two main sub division of the nervous system?

A

The central and peripheral nervous system’s

181
Q

What is the central nervous system?

A

Consisting of the brain and spinal cord, processing many different kinds of incoming sensory information. Source of thoughts, emotions, and memories. The CNS is responsible for many signals that stimulate muscles to contract and glands to secrete.

182
Q

What is the peripheral nervous system?

A

All nervous tissue outside of the CNS. It can be further divided into sensory and motor divisions.

183
Q

What does the motor division of the PNS do?

A

Conveys output from the CNS to muscles and glands. It is made up of the somatic and autonomic nervous system.

Peripheral NS—> motor division (somatic + autonomic)

184
Q

What is the somatic nervous system and what does it do?

A

The somatic nervous system is a division of the peripheral nervous system. It is a voluntary and consciously controlled conveyance of output from the CNS to skeletal muscles.

185
Q

What is the autonomic nervous system and what does it do?

A

The autonomic a.k.a. visceral nervous system is an involuntary subdivision of peripheral nervous system. It can be his output from the CNS to the smooth Muscle, cardiac Muscle and glands. It can be further divided into sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system’s

186
Q

What’s the main difference between the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system’s?

A

The parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous system’s are both part of the peripheral nervous system and furthermore but part of the autonomic nervous system which is a subdivision of the peripheral nervous system. However the sympathetic nervous system is responsible for the flight or fight innovations and the parasympathetic nervous system takes care of the rest and digest activities.

187
Q

What is a nissl body?

A

Free ribosomes and prominent clusters of rough endoplasmic reticulum within a neuron cell body.

It’s purpose is to synthesize proteins.

188
Q

What is Lipofuscin?

A

A pigment that occurs as clams of yellowish brown granules in the cytoplasm of ageing neurons. It doesn’t seem to harm the neuron but can slow it down

189
Q

What shape of neuron is a motor neuron?

A

Multi polar neurons

190
Q

What classification of neuron is generally found in the brain and spinal cord?

A

Multi polar

191
Q

Where would you find a bipolar neurons?

A

Retina, inner ear, olfactory area of the brain

192
Q

Where would you find unipolar neurons?

A

Most unipolar neurons are located in the ganglia of spinal and cranial nerves.

193
Q

What is the purpose of an Oligodendrocyte?

A

Formation and maintenance of the Myelin sheath around CNS axons

194
Q

What is the purpose of a Schwann cell

A

A Schwann cell is like a oligodendrocyte of the PNS.

It forms the myelin sheath around axons for the PNS

195
Q

What is the term used to describe the gaps in the myelin sheath

A

Nodes of Ranvier

196
Q

Name the types of ion channels that are in neurons

A

Leak channels: gated channels that randomly open and close and are found in nearly all cells.

Ligand gated channels: gated channels that open in response to binding of chemical stimulus. Found on the dendrites of some sensory neurons as well as the dendrites and cell bodies of interneurons and motor neurons.

Mechanically gated channels: gated channels that open in response to mechanical stimuli. Found on the dendrites of some sensory neuron such as touch, pressure, and pain receptors.

Voltage gated channels: gated channels that open response to voltage stimulus, which is a change in membrane potential. Found on the axons of all types of neurons.

197
Q

What is the resting membrane potential of a neuron?

A

Generally -40 to -90 mV, typically -70 mV

198
Q

What does it mean when something is depolarized versus polarized?

A

Depolarized means that the membrane is less polarized or inside is less negative than the outside

199
Q

What does decremental conduction mean?

A

When the graded potential die out as they spread along the membrane

200
Q

What are the phases of an action potential?

A

An action potential has two stages: the depolarizing phase and a repolarizing phase.

201
Q

What factors affect the speed of an action potential?

A

Amount of myelination, axon diameter, and temperature

202
Q

How is a neurotransmitter removed from the synaptic cleft? why is this important question?

A

Removal of the neurotransmitter from the synaptic cleft is essential for normal synaptic function. It can be removed through diffusion, enzymatic degradation, or uptake by cells.

203
Q

What is a catecholamine?

A

Catecholamines are types of Neurotransmitters. Examples include norepinephrine, dopamine, and epinephrine. They are all synthesized from the amino acid tyrosine.

204
Q

Where would you find serotonin?

A

Serotonin is concentrated in the neurons in the part of the brain called the raphe nucleus

205
Q

What is the role of serotonin?

A

It is a neurotransmitter thought to be involved in sensory perception, temperature regulation, control of mood, appetite, and the induction of sleep.

206
Q

What neuropeptides are coined with the term the body’s natural painkillers?

A

Endorphins and dynorphin’s. They are opioid peptides.

207
Q

What is substance P?

A

Substance P is a neuropeptide found in the central nervous system which enhances the perception of pain. Enkephalin and Endorphin suppress the release of substance P.

208
Q

What affect does endorphin have on substance P?

A

It’s suppresses the release of substance P, thus decreasing the number of nerve impulses being relayed to the brain for pain sensations.

209
Q

What affect does aldosterone have on the kidneys?

A

It increases the rate of salt and water reabsorption by the kidneys

210
Q

Where can you find CCK and what is its role?

A

Found in the brain and the small intestine; may regulate feeding as a stop eating signal. As a hormone it regulates pancreatic enzymes secretion during digestion and the contraction of smooth muscle in the Gastrointestinal tract.

211
Q

Name the various types of neural circuits

A

Simple series, diverging, converging, reverberating, and parallel after discharge

212
Q

Based on size what classes can neurotransmitters be divided into?

A

Small molecule neurotransmitters, and neuropeptides.

213
Q

What is the function of microglia?

A

In the central nervous system they act as phagocytes

214
Q

Where do you find Purkinje cells?

A

In the cerebellum

215
Q

Where do you find pyramidal cells?

A

In the cerebral cortex

216
Q

Name the four types of neuroglia Found in the CNS

A

Astrocytes: blood brain barrier
Oligodendrocytes: CNS axon myelination
Microglia: Scavengers/macrophages
Ependymal cells: Production of cerebral spinal fluid at choroid Plexes within the ventricles of the brain

217
Q

Name the type of neuroglia that are found in the PNS

A

Schwann cells: PNS axon myelination

Satellite cells: protect ganglia which contain sensory neuron cell bodies

218
Q

What’s the difference between graded potential and action potential?

A

Graded potential is an electrical signal that occurs in the dendrites and cell bodies, summation can occur here.

Action potentials occur as electrical signals only in the axon, beginning at the trigger zone. No summation as possible but there is a refractory period

219
Q

Name the three types of possible neuronal repair in the PNS

A

Only possible at the cell body is intact.

Chromatolysis, wallerian degeneration, formation of regeneration tube

220
Q

What are the three general functions of blood?

A

Transportation of oxygen and nutrients as well as heat and waste products. Regulation of pH, body temperature, osmotic pressure. Protection against excessive loss from the cardiovascular system, for example blood clot.

221
Q

How much blood is in the human body and what is its pH value?

A

Approximately 5 L of blood in the human body with a pH value ranging from 7.35 to 7.45

222
Q

What is blood made up of?

A

Blood is 55% blood plasma and 45% elements.

Blood plasma is mainly water, but also contains albumins, globulins, fibrinogen and Antibodies.

The formed elements of blood in clued red blood cells, white blood cells and platelets.

223
Q

What is a hematocrit?

A

The haematocrit is a measurement, the percentage of total blood volume that is occupied by red blood cells.

224
Q

What is the effect that erythropoietin has on red blood cells?

A

Erythropoietin is a hormone that stimulates the production of red blood cells.

225
Q

What stimulates erythropoietin?

A

Testosterone. This is why there is a higher volume of haematocrits in males.

226
Q

What does polycythemia mean?

A

It means that the percentage of red blood cells is abnormally high with the haematocrit figure being 65% or higher. This raises the viscosity of blood which makes it harder for the blood to be pumped by the heart.

227
Q

What is hemopoiesis?

A

Haemopoiesis or haematopoiesis is the process in which formed elements of the blood develop. The primary site of this process is red bone marrow.

228
Q

What is a pluripotent stem cell?

A

Are pluripotent stem style or a haemocytoblast it’s a red bone marrow cell that can develop or differentiate into many types of cells.

229
Q

What type of stem cell does a pluripotent stem cell turn into?

A

Pluripotent stem cell can turn into a myeloid stem cell or a lymphoid stem cell.

230
Q

How are ruptured red blood cells removed from circulation?

A

They are phagocytized by macrophages in the spleen, liver, or red bone marrow.

231
Q

How long do red blood cells last?

A

Red blood cells live only 120 days because of wear and tear.

232
Q

Define Bilverdin, bilirubin, urobilinogen, urobilin, and stercobilin.

A

Biliverdin: The non-iron portion of heme which appears as a green pigment.

bilirubin: A yellow orange pigment derived from biliverdin
urobilinogen: The product of bilirubinafter it’s converted by bacteria in the large intestine
urobilin: A yellow pigment that’s excreted in urine
stercobilin: Brown pigment eliminated in feces

233
Q

What’s the difference between a granular or an agranular white blood cell?

A

A granular white blood cell contains vesicles where an agranular white blood cell does not.

234
Q

Name the types of granular leucocytes a.k.a. white blood cells.

A

Neutrophil, eosinophil and basophil.

BEN

235
Q

Name the types of agranular leukocytes

A

Lymphocytes, and monocytes

236
Q

What is the lifespan of a platelet?

A

A plate that has a lifespan of 5 to 9 days. Aged and dead platelets are removed by fixed microphages in the spleen and liver.

237
Q

What is haemostasis?

A

Sequence of responses that help stop bleeding. It includes a vascular spasm, platelet plug formation and blood clotting. It prevents hemorrhaging.

238
Q

What is haemolytic disease of the newborn?

A

This is an RH incompatibility. It is when the mother is Rh negative and the baby is Rh positive. This can be combatted be on anti-Rh antibody injection.

239
Q

What’s the difference between B and T lymphocytes?

A

B: become plasma cells that produce antibodies as a response to the presence of foreign substances called antigens

T: Destroy foreign invaders directly.

240
Q

Where is the most common site for bone marrow transplant removal?

A

The iliac crest

241
Q

Name the three reaction stages In the process of blood clotting.

A

Formation of prothrombinase, Conversion of prothrombin into thrombin, And conversion of soluble fibrinogen into insoluble fibrin.

242
Q

Does vitamin K play a role in the cardiovascular system?

A

Yes although it does not cause clotting itself, it is required to create clotting or coagulation

243
Q

What is transferrin?

A

It is a plasma protein that transports iron in the blood

244
Q

What’s the difference between serum and blood plasma?

A

Serum is blood plasma without the clotting proteins.

245
Q

What is leukopoiesis?

A

It is the development of white blood cells.

246
Q

What body system is the spleen part of and what quadrant of the abdomen is it located in?

A

Lymphatic and ULQ

247
Q

Which type of membrane would you expect to find a goblet cell?

A

Mucous membrane

248
Q

Which type of exocrine gland accumulates secretory product in the cytosol the cell until the cell ruptures and becomes part of the secretary product itself?

A

Holocrine

249
Q

Give an example of apocrine gland.

A

Mammary gland

250
Q

What is a polysaccharide commonly found in the ground substance of connective tissue?

A

Hyaluronic acid

251
Q

What is the main function of dense regular connective tissue?

A

Providing strong attachments between structures like a muscle and bone a.k.a. dense regular connective tissue is tendons and ligaments

252
Q

What does the extracellular matrix of connective tissue consist of?

A

Protein fibres and ground substance

253
Q

What is the most abundant protein in the human body?

A

Collagen

254
Q

What are the principal layers of the skin?

A

Epidermis and dermis

255
Q

What is the best way to describe the cells that are found in the stratum corneum?

A

Keratinocytes that are metabolically inactive

256
Q

What structure found in the skin helps prevent water loss and inhibit bacterial growth on the surface of the skin?

A

Sebaceous glands

257
Q

What would not be found in adult long bone?

A

Keratin

258
Q

And what type of bone does bone remodelling occur at a faster rate?

A

Spongy

259
Q

What hormone is most important for calcium regulation?

A

Parathyroid hormone

260
Q

Which layer of connective tissues around the skeletal muscle cell?

A

Endomysium- cell
Perimysium- fascicles
Epimysium- full muscle

261
Q

What region of a sarcomere contains thin filaments?

A

I and A

Although the I band contains only thin filaments. The A band contains both.

262
Q

What plasma proteins plays a role in disease resistance?

A

Globulins

263
Q

Name of phagocytic blood cell

A

Neutrophil

264
Q

What is an anticoagulant produced by mast cells and basophils?

A

Heparin.

Both also produce histamine.

265
Q

What is aplastic anaemia?

A

Aplastic anemia is a condition that occurs when your body stops producing enough new blood cells.

266
Q

What is megaloblastic anemia?

A

Megaloblastic anemia is a condition in which the bone marrow produces unusually large, structurally abnormal, immature red blood cells (megaloblasts). Bone marrow, the soft spongy material found inside certain bones, produces the main blood cells of the body -red cells, white cells, and platelets.

267
Q

What is pernicious anemia?

A

Pernicious anemia is a decrease in red blood cells that occurs when the intestines cannot properly absorb vitamin B12.

268
Q

What is Bilirubin?

A

The non-iron portion of heme is degraded into the waste product biliverdin, a green pigment, and then into another waste product, bilirubin, a yellow pigment.

269
Q

What is the most common type of yeast infection?

A

Candidiasis

270
Q

What is the name of the group of inhibitory interneurons in the ventral horn of the spinal cord?

A

Renshaw cells are inhibitory interneurons found in the gray matter of the spinal cord, and are associated in two ways with an alpha motor neuron. They receive an excitatory collateral from the alpha neuron’s axon as they emerge from the motor root, and are thus “kept informed” of how vigorously that neuron is firing.

271
Q

What type of matters in the ventral horn of the spinal cord?

A

Gray

272
Q

At what region on a motor neuron is there the highest concentration of voltage gated sodium and potassium channels?

A

Nodes of Ranvier

AP (5 decks)

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