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BGFC > pa44-180 : POH 7 > Flashcards

pa44-180 : POH 7 Flashcards

systems

1
Q

how many occupants can this aircraft hold

A

4

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2
Q

what is the luggage compartment capacity

A

200 lbs

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3
Q

what is the nose cone made out of?

A

fibreglass

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4
Q

are aerobatics prohibited in this aircraft?

A

yes

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5
Q

what is the fuselage

A

a semi-monocoque structure

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6
Q

what kind of wing do we have?

A

semi-tapered design

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7
Q

what are the four different types of wings

A

plain flaps
split flaps
slotted flaps
fowler flaps

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8
Q

describe the plain flap

A

is a simple hinged portion of the trailing edge that is forced down into the airstream to increase the camber of the airfoil

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9
Q

describe the split flap

A

is a plate deflected from the lower surface of the airfoil. Creates a lot of drag because of the turbulent air between the wing and deflected surface

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10
Q

describe slotted flap

A

similar to the plain flap, but moved away from the wing to open a narrow slot between the flap and wing for boundary layer control.
- may cause a slight increase in wing area, but the increase in lift is insignificant

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11
Q

describe the fowler flap

A

is used extensively on larger airplanes.
when extended, it moves down, increasing the camber, and aft, casuing a significant increase in wing area as well as opening one or more slots for boundary layer control

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12
Q

what makes up the empennage

A

vertical stabilizer
all-moveable horizontal stabilator
rudder

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13
Q

where is the stabilizer mounted

A

on top of the vertical fin and it incorporates an anti-servo tab that is longitudinal stability and trim

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14
Q

what kind of engines does this aircraft have

A

Lycoming four cylinder, direct drive, horizontally opposed fuel injected engines

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15
Q

what is each engine rated as

A

180 hp @ 2700 RPM @ sea level

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16
Q

how are the engines cooled

A

air cooled and equipped with oil coolers with low temp bypass

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17
Q

which direction does the left engine rotate? right rotate?

A

left : clockwise
right : counterclockwise

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18
Q

should the alternate air be used while on the ground?

A

no, it would allow for dust and other contaminates to enter the system

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19
Q

what source of air should always be used for takeoff

A

the primary (filtered) induction source

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20
Q

what kind of propellers does this aircraft have?

A

counter-rotating

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21
Q

how many blades is each of the props

A

two blades

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22
Q

what kind of propellers does this aircraft have

A

two blades
constant speed
controllable pitch
feathering

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23
Q

where are the propellers mounted to

A

directly to the crankshaft

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24
Q

pitch is controlled by

A

oil and nitrogen pressure

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25
Q

what drives the propeller toward the high RPM or unfeather position

A

oil pressure

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26
Q

what drives the propeller towards the low RPM or feather position

A

nitrogen pressure and a large spring

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27
Q

what does the prop governor control

A

engine speed by varying the pitch of the propeller to match load torque to engine torque in response to changing flight controls

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28
Q

where does the unfeathering accumulators store engine oil

A

under pressure from the governors, which is then released back to the governors for propeller unfeathering when the propeller control lever is moved out of the feathered position

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29
Q

what is a feathering lock operated by

A

centrifugal force

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30
Q

what prevents feathering during engine shutdown by making it impossible to feather any time the engine speed falls below 950rpm

A

feathering lock

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31
Q

the controls (throttle, mixture and propellers) utilize what kind of controls

A

leflon-lined control cables to reduce friction and binding

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32
Q

throttle levers are used to adjust

A

engine mp

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33
Q

when is a CAS caution triggered

A

higher than 400ft AGL
manifold pressure lower than 14”
landing gear not down and locked and flaps in the 2nd or 3rd notch

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34
Q

when is a CAS warning triggered

A

lower than 400ft AGL
manifold pressure lower than 14”
landing gear not down and locked and flaps in the 2nd or 3rd notch

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35
Q

the propeller control levers are used to adjust

A

propeller speed from high RPM (low pitch) to feather (high pitch)

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36
Q

when the alternate air lever is in the down (open) position

A

the engine is operating on unfiltered, heated air

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37
Q

what are cowl flaps used for

A

regulate colling air for the engines

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38
Q

the primary flight display displays

A

airspeed
attitude
altitude
heading information

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39
Q

what is the primary function of the PFDs

A

provide attitude and heading data for from the AHARS and ADC

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40
Q

what does the ADC provide

A

airspeed
altitude
vertical speed
air temp

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41
Q

warning messages

A

repeating triple chime

42
Q

caution messages

A

non-repeating triple chime

43
Q

advisory message

A

non-repeating single chime

44
Q

what does the warble tone mean when we are preflighting and starting the aircraft

A

the autopilot disconnect and preflight test complete

45
Q

what kind of gear does this aircraft have

A

hydraulically operated, fully retractable, tricycle landing gear

46
Q

on takeoff, landing gear should be retreated before an airspeed of

A

109 kias is exceeded

47
Q

the landing gear may be lowered at any speed up to

A

140 kias

48
Q

hydraulic pressure for gear operation is furnished by an

A

electrically powered, reversible hydraulic pump

49
Q

how is the landing gear pump activated

A

by a 2-position gear selector switch

50
Q

when hydraulic pressure is exerted in one direction the gear is,?
and when it is exerted in the other direction the gear is ?

A

retracted
extended

51
Q

how long does gear extension or retraction normally take

A

between 6-10 seconds

52
Q

landing gear down indications

A

solid green

53
Q

landing gear up indications

A

hollow white circles

54
Q

landing gear is transit indications

A

crosshatches square

55
Q

landing gear abnormal / unknown gear position indications

A

solid red circles

56
Q

what determines when the gear are in the full up or down and locked positions

A

microswitches in the landing gear system

57
Q

when is the check gear cas message activated

A

when gear is not down and locked when the mp is below 14” on either one or both engines
when the gear selector switch is in the UP position when the airplane is on the ground
when the gear is not down and locked when the wing flaps are extended to the second or third kotch positions

58
Q

Check gear aural alter triggered by flap position can only be silenced by

A

retracting the flaps or by extending the landing gear

59
Q

where is the squat switch located

A

on the left main gear

60
Q

what does the squat switch do

A

prevent the hydraulic pump from actuating when the battery master switch is turned on

61
Q

if the landing system loses it hydraulic pressure, what helps the gear come down

A

gravity

62
Q

if you have to emergency extend the gear, what must you do before doing so

A

you must put the landing gear switch in the down position to prevent the pump from trying to raise the gear

63
Q

where is the hydraulic reservoir for the landing gear operation

A

through a panel in the baggage compartment

64
Q

the nose gear is steerable how many degrees

A

30 degrees arc on either side

65
Q

the struts for the landing gear are

A

air-oil assemblies

66
Q

what are all normal braking needs

A

two single disc
double puck brake assemblies

67
Q

what is the purpose of flaps

A

reduce landing speeds and glide path control

68
Q

how much fuel is stored in each nacelle

A

55 gallons

69
Q

how much fuel is unusable per nacelle

A

1 gallon

70
Q

what is the total usable fuel for this aircraft

A

108 gallons

71
Q

what is the minimum fuel octane

A

100

72
Q

the fuel tank vents are what kind of feature

A

anti-icing design to precent the formation of blocking the fuel tank vent lines

73
Q

are there back up fuel pumps

A

yes, there are auxiliary electric fuel pumps

74
Q

what are the auxiliary fuel pumps controlled by

A

rocker switches

75
Q

what positions do the electric fuel pumps should be

A

on during takeoff and landing

76
Q

before each flight, fuel must be drained from

A

the low points in the fuel system

77
Q

when the fuel tanks are on XFEED, it will draw fuel from

A

the tank on the opposite side

78
Q

how many volts and amps is the alternator

A

28 volts 65amps

79
Q

an overvoltage relay in each alternator circuit prevents

A

damage to electrical and avionics equipment by taking it offline if it exceeds 32 volts

80
Q

how many volts and amp is the battery

A

24 volts 13.6amps

81
Q

where is the battery located

A

in the nose of the aircraft

82
Q

what does the emergency bus power

A

standby instruments
PFD functions (except Com2 and Nav2)

83
Q

the emergency bus is sized to provide this functionality for a minimum of

A

30 minutes

84
Q

the emergency battery is

A

diode isolated from the electrical power which allows for the system to charge the emergency battery during normal operations

85
Q

what is the emergency battery voltage

A

23.3 volts prior to flight

86
Q

the essential bus overcurrent protection is provided by a

A

70 amp batt circuit breaker

87
Q

each alternator overcurrent protection is provided by a

A

80 amp tie bus L altr and R altr circuit breakers

88
Q

avionics bus overload protection is provided by

A

25 amp avionics bus circuit breaker

89
Q

overload protection is provided by what for the non essential bus

A

70 amp non-ess bus

90
Q

anti-collision lights should not be operating when flying

A

through cloud, fog, or has

91
Q

where is the single pitot head installed

A

bottom of the left wing

92
Q

a partially or completely blocked pitot head will

A

give erratic or zero readings on the instruments

93
Q

what kind of heater do we have on the aircraft

A

a janitrol combustion heater

94
Q

which tank does the heater pull from and how much

A

the left tank at about 1/2 gallon per hour

95
Q

how to turn the heater off on the ground

A

turn the three-postion switch to FAN for two minutes with the air intake lever in the open position

96
Q

how to turn the heater off in flight

A

leave the air intake lever open for a minimum of fifteen seconds after turning the switch to off

97
Q

how big in the baggage compartment

A

24 cubic ft

98
Q

when is the STALL….STALL aural alert activated

A

between 5-10 knots above stall speed

99
Q

where are the lift detectors located

A

on the leading edge of the left wing, outboard of the engine nacelle

100
Q

when are the inboard detector activated

A

when the flaps are in the 25 and 40 degrees position

101
Q

when are the outboard detector activated

A

when the flaps are in positions less than 10 degrees

102
Q

the ELT test should be conducted

A

only the first five minutes of any hour limited to three audio sweeps

BGFC (13 decks)

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