Oral Exam Guide Flashcards
What are the three primary flight controls?
- ailerons
- elevator
- rudder
What is the function of the alierons?
controls the roll about the longitudinal axis
what is the function of the elevator?
controls the pitch about the lateral axis
what is the function of the rudder?
controls the movement of the airplane about its vertical axis
what is a stabilator?
one-piece horizontal stabilizer that pivots from a central hinge point which is extremely sensitive to control inputs and aerodynamic loads
how would you respond if you had a jammed elevator?
- various combinations of power and flap extensions
- trim
what are the secondary flight controls?
- wing flaps
- leading edge devices
- spoilers
- trim systems
what is the purpose of flaps
increases lift and induced drag for any given angle of attack
name four different types of flaps
- plain
- split
- slotted
- fowler flaps
how are flaps extended and retracted?
manually operated through a four-position flap control handled between the two front seats
0 degrees, 10 degrees, 25 degrees, and 40 degrees
what is an asymmetric/split flap condition
where one flap deploys or retracts while the other remains in position resulting in a pronounced roll toward the wind with the least flap deployed
name a few different types of aircraft trim systems
- trim tabs
- balance tabs
- anti-servo tabs
- ground adjustable tabs
what would you use in the event of a trim system or autopilot failure?
- autopilot disconnect
- mode button
- circuit breakers
- control yoke
what is a reciprocating engine?
back and forth movement of the pistons. it is the motion that produces the mechanical energy needed to accomplish work
what is the type of induction systems used in our aircraft?
fuel injected - where it mixes the fuel and air immediately before entry into each cylinder or injected fuel directly into each cylinder
what does the term horizontally opposed refer to?
always has an even number of cylinders, since a con one side of the crankcase “opposes” a cylinder on the other side
what does the term direct drive mean?
the propeller is bolted to and turns at the same speed as the crankshaft.
what does the term normally-aspirated mean?
the engine has no supercharger or turbocharger to maintain sea level atmospheric pressure at higher altitude
how is the engine ignition is provided
two engine driven magnetos and two spark plugs per cylinder. this system is completely independent of the aircraft electrical system
define manifold pressure
absolute pressure of the fuel/air mixture within the intake manifold, usually indicated in inches of mercury
what will the manifold pressure gauge indicate in the following situations
a. on the ground, engine not running
b. on the ground, engine running
c. in the air, engine failure, loss of power
a. MP gauge indicates ambient air pressure (29.92)
b. MP gauge indicates will decrease to a value less than ambient pressure (idle at 12in)
c. MP gauge indicates an increase in MP to a value corresponding to the ambient air pressure at the altitude when failure occurred
list some ways that pilots can control engine temperature
increase airspeed
enrich the mixture
reduce power
cowl flaps
what are cowl flaps
hinged covers that fit over an opening in the engine cowling through which hot air is expelled
engine cold: close cowl flaps
hot engine: open cowl flaps
what is an EGT probe?
exhaust gas temp
temp varies with the ratio of fuel to air entering the cylinders and can be used as a Basis for regulating the fuel/air mixture
what is the name of the device that regulates the flow of exhaust gas to the turbine
the waste gas
what is a constant-speed propeller
whose pitch and blade angle is automatically varied in flight by a governor to maintain a constant RPM in spite of varying air loads
what does the propeller governor do to blade angle, when an airplane is nosed up into a climb from level flight or nosed down into a descent
as the airplane enters the climb, the engine will tend to slow down. Since the governor is sensitive to small changes in engine RPM, it will decrease the blade angle just enough to keep the engine speed from falling off.
if the plane is in a nose dive, the governor will increase the blade angele enough to prevent the engine from overseeding
why is it necessary to “exercise” the propellers prior to takeoff
to determine whether the system is operating correctly and to circulate fresh warm oil through the propeller governor system
what is a propeller overspeed
is a condition in which the propeller speed is higher than the desired speed set on the propeller control.
low pitch, high RPM
if a prop overspeed, what should you do?
reduce power on the engine that is overspeeding
what is accomplished when feathering a propeller
engine rotation is stopped and the propeller blades are streamlines with the airplanes relative wind, minimizing drag
which direction do the blades move when increasing the oil pressure in the propeller hub
increased oil pressure from the propeller governor drives the prop to low pitch, high RPM- away from the feather blade angle
what is the purpose of counterweights on the propeller blades of some multi-engine aircraft
assist in driving the prop blades towards feather. the aerodynamics forces alone, acting upon a windmilling prop, tend to drive the blades to low pitch, high RPM
when is oxygen required for crew
between 12,500 and 14,000ft after 30 minutes
when is oxygen required for crew above 14,000
immediate upon exposure to cabin pressure
when is oxygen required for crew and pax
above 15,000ft
what is the recommended procedure for use of the autopilot is possible icing conditions
autopilot should not be used in icing conditions
does the static system have any protection from icing
areas around static port may be heated with electric heater elements to prevent ice from forming
what is the first indication that ice is accumulating over the normal engine air induction source
loss of engine RPM and a loss of MP
- can select alt air source to help with this
describe how deicing equipment works
upon pilot actitation, the boots inflate with air from the pneumatic pumps to break off accumulated ice. after a few seconds of inflation, they are deflated back to their normal position with the assistance of a vacuum.
when should anti-icing be activated
prior to flight into suspected icing conditions
is an airplane has anti-icing and/or deicing equipment installed, can it be flown into icing conditions
need to check the POH/AFM
what is a combustion heater?
it is a small furnace that burns gas to produce heated air for the occupants and for windshield defrost
how do you turn the combustion heater off
in air
on ground
in air: air intake open for min. of 15 seconds then off
on ground: fan on for 2 min and then turn off
which flight instruments contain gyroscopes
attitude indicator
heading indicator
turn coordinator
how does the VSI work
changing pressure expands/contracts a diaphragm connected to the indicating needled through gears and levers
** measures the pressure differential as the airplane climbs and descends**
how does the altimeter measure altitude
aneroid barometer that measures the absolute pressure of ambient air and displays it in the terms of feet above selected pressure level
what errors are there when using alternate air?
- VSI
- Airspeed
- Altitude
VSI: momentarily climb while in straight and level
Airspeed: greater than actual
Altitude: higher than normal
which instruments are connected to the pitot-static system
airspeed indicator
altimeter
VSI
how is an autopilot system disabled?
hit the red button on the yoke - or select it on the audio panel
how will the loss of a magnetometer affect the AHRS operation
heading info will be lost
what display info will be affected when an ADC failure occurs
inop :
- airspeed
- altitude
- VSI
what is the function of the magnetometer
measures the strength of the earths magnetic field to determine aircraft heading
what is an electrical bus bar
power distribution point to which several circuits may be connected
what is the purpose of a voltage regulator
controls the rate of charge to the battery by stabilizing the generator / alternator electrical output.
output should be higher than the battery voltage
- difference keeps the battery charged
what does a loadmeter provide
scale beginning with zero and shows the load being places on the alt/generator. it reflects the total percentage of the load places on the generating capacity of the electrical system by the electrical accessories and battery
what info does an ammeter provide
used to monitor the performance of the aircraft electrical system. shows if the alt/generator is producing an adequate supply of electrical power. also indicates if the battery is receiving enough electrical power or not
alternator v generator
alternator:
generator:
what could casuse oil temp gauge to indicate very high or low temp
high:
- plugged oil line
- low oil quantity
- blocked oil cooler
- defective temp gauge
Low: improper oil viscosity during cold wx operations
the engine oil system performs several important functions. what are they (5)
- lubricate engines moving parts
- cooling the engine by reducing friction
- removing heat from the cylinders
- providing a seal between the cylinder walls and Pistons
- carrying away containments
how does the condition known as vapor lock occur in a fuel system
air enters the fuel system making it difficult to restart the engine.
- could happen from running the tank dry
- allowing air to enter the fuel system
__ fuel injected: fuel may become so hot it vaporizes in the dual line not allowing fuel to reach the cylinders
when will the gear horn sound
- when below 14in of MP and gear is not down and locked
- gear switch is indicated up while on the ground
- gear up while flaps are in the 2nd or 3rd position
why doesn’t the propeller blades feather every time when going to shut down the aircraft
anit-feathering pins. once RPMs drop below 950RPM, the pin senses a lack of centrifugal force from the prop rotation and falls into place
what is an unfeathering accumulator
it stores a small reserve of engine oil under pressure from compressed air or nitrogen
the oil flows under pressure to the propeller hub and drives the blasted toward the high RPM
how is a propeller brought out of the feather position
to unfeather a propeller, the engine must be rotated so that oil pressure can be generated to move the propeller blades from the feathered position
engine is turned on
- throttle : LOW RPM
- propeller : HIGH PRM
starter engaged
** engine will begin to windmill, start, and run as oil pressure moved the blade out of feather
three most critical phases of flight
takeoff
landing
initial climb
discuss p-factor
the descending prop blade of each engine will produce greater thrust than the ascending blade when the airplane is operated under power and at positive angles of attack
right engine is at a greater distance from the cg and has a longer moment arm than the descending prop blade of the left engine
service ceiling
maximum density altitude where the best rate of climb airspeed will produce a 100pfm climb at maximum weight while in a clean configuration with max. continuous power
what factors affect the effective service ceiling of a multi
wt
pa
temp
absolute ceiling
altitude at which climb is no longer possible
DA where Vx and Vy are equal
single engine service ceiling
can no longer climb at a rate greater than 50fpm with one engine inop
single engine absolute ceiling
airplane can no longer climb with one engine inop
Vxse and Vyse are the same
forward CG
- higher stall speed
- slower cruise speed
- more stable
- greater back pressure required
aft cg
- lower stall speed
- higher cruise speed
- less stable
- higher Vmc
what is Vmc
calibrated airspeed at which, when the critical engine is suddenly made inoperative, it is possible to maintain control of the airplane with that engine still inoperative, and thereafter maintain straight and level flight at the same speed with an angle of bank no more than 5 degrees
what are the two different types of aircraft stability
- static
- dynamic
what are the four forces in flight
lift, weight, drag, thrust
what are the three types of static stability
- positive
- negative
- neutral
what is positive static stability
the aircraft tends to return to its original position after the disruptive force is removed
what is negative stability
the aircraft will continue to move away from its original position after the disruptive force is removed
what is neutral static stability
the aircraft tends to stay in its most recently commanded attitude or condition, WITHOUT oscillations
what is dynamic stability
the amount of time it takes for it to respond to its static stability after it has been displayed from a condition of equilibrium
what are the different types of dynamic stability
- positive
- neutral
- negative
what is positive dynamic stability
tendency of an aircraft to dampen toward its original position once disturbed
what is negative dynamic stability
tendency of an aircraft to move away from its original position once disturbed
what is neutral dynamic stability
oscillations that never dampen out
what is a METAR
meteorological aerodrome report
how often is a METAR updated
every hour (normally 55 min past the hour)
what is a TAF
Terminal Aera Forecast
how often is a TAF updated
every 6 hours (4x daily)
what does GFA stand for
Graphical Forecasts for Aviation
what is a GFA - how long can you see it
18 hours in the past to 18 hours in the future
what is an AWOS
automated weather observation system
what is an ASOS
automated surface observation station
ASOS has been installed by which agency
AWOS has been install by which agency
ASOS: Federal
AWOS: state and local gov
what is an ATIS
Automated terminal information system
- normally updates 55 min past the hour
what is spin recovery in the Seminole
Power
Rudder
Elevator
Alerion
what is go around procedure
flap, flap, gear, flap
how to fly the backside of the power curve
pitch for airspeed
power for altitude
what is the flight service frequency
122.2
what can flight service be used for
Wx updates
VFR opening and closing flight plans
search and rescue
what is the Lift equation
L= Cl x 1/2p v2s
what does the Cl mean in the lift equation
angle of attack and wing shape
what does the 1/2P mean in the lift equation
density
what is the v2 in the lift equation
speed
what is the s in the lift equation
wing surface area
what are the different types of fronts
cold
occluded
warm
stationary
what are the two pressure systems
high and low
what direction does a high pressure system flow
cw and out
what direction does a low pressure system flow
ccw and inward
what is atmospheric stability
refers to the airs tendency to either rise and create storms (instable) or to reside vertical movement (stability)
what causes turbulence
- friction between the air and the ground
- thermal (convective)
- jet streams
- thunderstorms
how to report turbulence
light
mod
severe
extreme
what is light turb
slight erratic Changes in altitude/attitude
what is mod turb
similar to light but greater
what is severe turb
large, abrupt changes in altitude/atttiude
what is extreme turb
aircraft is violently tosses about and it is practically impossible to control
what are the stages of a t.storm
cumulus
mature
dissipating
how can you avoid a t.storm
stay 20nm away
what are cold wx operations
prime the engines
- cover the engines after flight
- cover the props after flight
- dress correctly
* hat and gloves and coat
what are hot weather ops in the summer
- don’t prime the engine (try to avoid vapor lock)
- dress correctly
- Drink plenty of water and watch for signs of dehydration
what are different types of AIRMETS
Sierra
Tango
Zulu
tell more about AIRMET Sierra
IFR conditions
ceilings less than 1000ft and/or vis less than 3m affecting more than 50% of the area at one time
* extensive mountain obscurations
tell me more about AIRMET Tango
Turbulence
- moderate turbulence
- sustained surface winds of 30 knots or more at the surface
tell me about AIRMET Zulu
Icing
- mod icing
- freezing levels
AIRMETS are considered to be _____ because they must be affecting or be forecasted to affect an area of at least _________ square miles
widespread
affecting at least 3000 square miles at any one time
AIRMETS are _________ issued for ____ hour periods
routinely issued for 6 hours
what is a SIGMET
significant meteorological information
what are the two categories of SIGMETs
non-convective and convective
when can a non-convective SIGMET be issued
more sever than those of the three types of AIRMETS.
- severe icing
- severe to extreme turb
- dust storms
- sandstorms that lower vis to less than 3miles
- volcanic ash
** hazardous to small aircraft
non-convective SIGMETs are ______ and they are issued ________
unscheduled
issued as needed
when can a convective SIGMET be issued
when severe thunderstorms with surface winds of greater than 50 knots
- surface hail more then 3/4 in or larger in diameter
- tornadoes
- embedded t.storms
- line of t.storms
- LLWS
when a non-convective SIGMET is issued, it is valid for ______ hours
unless it is related to a hurricane then it is valid for ______ hours
valid for 4 hours
hurricane is valid for 6 hours
how long is a convective SIGMET valid for
valid for 2 hours
Convective SIGMETs are ________ issued at ________
routine issued at 55 min past the hour
what are some types of stalls
power on
power off
secondary stall
cross controlled
elevator trim tab
what causes an airplane to stall
when the aircraft angle of attach surpasses that for maximum lift.
* when the plane reaches or exceeds its critical angle of attack
what are some stall recognition
buffeting or decay of control effectiveness
sound of stall horn
what are the four phases of a spin
entry
incipient
development
recovery
what iss the aviation security number
866-427-3287
where are spins most likely to occur
when the airplane is slow with a high angle of attack and cross-controlled
(forward slip to land too slow)
excessive rudder is displaced and the winds stall enough
what is ground effect
increased lift and decreased drag that occurs when the aircrafts wings are close to a fixed surface (ex. the ground)
what are three types of icing
clear
mixed
rime
what is the most dangerous type of ice
clear ice - it can be hard to see and can change the shape of the airfoil
how to report Ice to ATC
rate of accumulation and intensity
reporting rate of accumulation to ATC
trace - no sign accumulation
light - sign accumulation for prolonged flight
moderate - sign accumulation for shorter periods of flight
severe - rapid and dangerous accumulation of
reporting intensity of ice to ATC
trace - not hazardous if de-ice is not used
light - occasional use of de-ice removes/prevents accumulation
moderate - short encounters become potentially hazardous and use of de-ice (flight diversion is necessary)
severe - de-ice fails to reduce or control the hazard (immediate flight diversion)
what is wind shear
change in wind speed and/or direction over a short distance
what is a PIREP
pilot report
what are the two ways that Pilot Reports are classified
UA -routine
UUA - urgent
what is adverse yaw
condition of flight in which the nose of an airplane tends to yaw toward the outside of the turn
- yaw or swing toward the side or direction of the raised wind
what is typically used to counteract adverse yaw
rudder
what are the four left turning tendencies
P- factor
slipstream
Gyroscopic procession
Torque
explain P-factor
downward moving propeller blade takes a bigger “bite” of air than the upward moving blade.
explain slipstream for the left turning tendencies
happens when your prop is moving fast and your plane is moving slow.
air accelerated behind the prop (known as the slipstream) follows a corkscrew pattern. As it wraps itself around the fuselage of your plane, it hits the left side of your aircraft’s tail, creating a yawing motion, and making the aircraft yaw left.
explain gyroscopic procession for left turning tendencies
rigidity in space, and precession.
explain torque for the left turning tendencies
Newton’s third law states that “for every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction”.
