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BGFC > Oral Exam Guide > Flashcards

Oral Exam Guide Flashcards

1
Q

What are the three primary flight controls?

A
  1. ailerons
  2. elevator
  3. rudder
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2
Q

What is the function of the alierons?

A

controls the roll about the longitudinal axis

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3
Q

what is the function of the elevator?

A

controls the pitch about the lateral axis

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4
Q

what is the function of the rudder?

A

controls the movement of the airplane about its vertical axis

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5
Q

what is a stabilator?

A

one-piece horizontal stabilizer that pivots from a central hinge point which is extremely sensitive to control inputs and aerodynamic loads

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6
Q

how would you respond if you had a jammed elevator?

A
  1. various combinations of power and flap extensions
  2. trim
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7
Q

what are the secondary flight controls?

A
  1. wing flaps
  2. leading edge devices
  3. spoilers
  4. trim systems
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8
Q

what is the purpose of flaps

A

increases lift and induced drag for any given angle of attack

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9
Q

name four different types of flaps

A
  1. plain
  2. split
  3. slotted
  4. fowler flaps
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10
Q

how are flaps extended and retracted?

A

manually operated through a four-position flap control handled between the two front seats
0 degrees, 10 degrees, 25 degrees, and 40 degrees

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11
Q

what is an asymmetric/split flap condition

A

where one flap deploys or retracts while the other remains in position resulting in a pronounced roll toward the wind with the least flap deployed

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12
Q

name a few different types of aircraft trim systems

A
  1. trim tabs
  2. balance tabs
  3. anti-servo tabs
  4. ground adjustable tabs
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13
Q

what would you use in the event of a trim system or autopilot failure?

A
  1. autopilot disconnect
  2. mode button
  3. circuit breakers
  4. control yoke
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14
Q

what is a reciprocating engine?

A

back and forth movement of the pistons. it is the motion that produces the mechanical energy needed to accomplish work

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15
Q

what is the type of induction systems used in our aircraft?

A

fuel injected - where it mixes the fuel and air immediately before entry into each cylinder or injected fuel directly into each cylinder

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16
Q

what does the term horizontally opposed refer to?

A

always has an even number of cylinders, since a con one side of the crankcase “opposes” a cylinder on the other side

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17
Q

what does the term direct drive mean?

A

the propeller is bolted to and turns at the same speed as the crankshaft.

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18
Q

what does the term normally-aspirated mean?

A

the engine has no supercharger or turbocharger to maintain sea level atmospheric pressure at higher altitude

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19
Q

how is the engine ignition is provided

A

two engine driven magnetos and two spark plugs per cylinder. this system is completely independent of the aircraft electrical system

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20
Q

define manifold pressure

A

absolute pressure of the fuel/air mixture within the intake manifold, usually indicated in inches of mercury

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21
Q

what will the manifold pressure gauge indicate in the following situations
a. on the ground, engine not running
b. on the ground, engine running
c. in the air, engine failure, loss of power

A

a. MP gauge indicates ambient air pressure (29.92)
b. MP gauge indicates will decrease to a value less than ambient pressure (idle at 12in)
c. MP gauge indicates an increase in MP to a value corresponding to the ambient air pressure at the altitude when failure occurred

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22
Q

list some ways that pilots can control engine temperature

A

increase airspeed
enrich the mixture
reduce power
cowl flaps

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23
Q

what are cowl flaps

A

hinged covers that fit over an opening in the engine cowling through which hot air is expelled
engine cold: close cowl flaps
hot engine: open cowl flaps

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24
Q

what is an EGT probe?

A

exhaust gas temp
temp varies with the ratio of fuel to air entering the cylinders and can be used as a Basis for regulating the fuel/air mixture

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25
Q

what is the name of the device that regulates the flow of exhaust gas to the turbine

A

the waste gas

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26
Q

what is a constant-speed propeller

A

whose pitch and blade angle is automatically varied in flight by a governor to maintain a constant RPM in spite of varying air loads

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27
Q

what does the propeller governor do to blade angle, when an airplane is nosed up into a climb from level flight or nosed down into a descent

A

as the airplane enters the climb, the engine will tend to slow down. Since the governor is sensitive to small changes in engine RPM, it will decrease the blade angle just enough to keep the engine speed from falling off.
if the plane is in a nose dive, the governor will increase the blade angele enough to prevent the engine from overseeding

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28
Q

why is it necessary to “exercise” the propellers prior to takeoff

A

to determine whether the system is operating correctly and to circulate fresh warm oil through the propeller governor system

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29
Q

what is a propeller overspeed

A

is a condition in which the propeller speed is higher than the desired speed set on the propeller control.

low pitch, high RPM

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30
Q

if a prop overspeed, what should you do?

A

reduce power on the engine that is overspeeding

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31
Q

what is accomplished when feathering a propeller

A

engine rotation is stopped and the propeller blades are streamlines with the airplanes relative wind, minimizing drag

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32
Q

which direction do the blades move when increasing the oil pressure in the propeller hub

A

increased oil pressure from the propeller governor drives the prop to low pitch, high RPM- away from the feather blade angle

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33
Q

what is the purpose of counterweights on the propeller blades of some multi-engine aircraft

A

assist in driving the prop blades towards feather. the aerodynamics forces alone, acting upon a windmilling prop, tend to drive the blades to low pitch, high RPM

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34
Q

when is oxygen required for crew

A

between 12,500 and 14,000ft after 30 minutes

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35
Q

when is oxygen required for crew above 14,000

A

immediate upon exposure to cabin pressure

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36
Q

when is oxygen required for crew and pax

A

above 15,000ft

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37
Q

what is the recommended procedure for use of the autopilot is possible icing conditions

A

autopilot should not be used in icing conditions

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38
Q

does the static system have any protection from icing

A

areas around static port may be heated with electric heater elements to prevent ice from forming

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39
Q

what is the first indication that ice is accumulating over the normal engine air induction source

A

loss of engine RPM and a loss of MP
- can select alt air source to help with this

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40
Q

describe how deicing equipment works

A

upon pilot actitation, the boots inflate with air from the pneumatic pumps to break off accumulated ice. after a few seconds of inflation, they are deflated back to their normal position with the assistance of a vacuum.

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41
Q

when should anti-icing be activated

A

prior to flight into suspected icing conditions

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42
Q

is an airplane has anti-icing and/or deicing equipment installed, can it be flown into icing conditions

A

need to check the POH/AFM

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43
Q

what is a combustion heater?

A

it is a small furnace that burns gas to produce heated air for the occupants and for windshield defrost

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44
Q

how do you turn the combustion heater off
in air
on ground

A

in air: air intake open for min. of 15 seconds then off
on ground: fan on for 2 min and then turn off

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45
Q

which flight instruments contain gyroscopes

A

attitude indicator
heading indicator
turn coordinator

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46
Q

how does the VSI work

A

changing pressure expands/contracts a diaphragm connected to the indicating needled through gears and levers

** measures the pressure differential as the airplane climbs and descends**

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47
Q

how does the altimeter measure altitude

A

aneroid barometer that measures the absolute pressure of ambient air and displays it in the terms of feet above selected pressure level

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48
Q

what errors are there when using alternate air?
- VSI
- Airspeed
- Altitude

A

VSI: momentarily climb while in straight and level
Airspeed: greater than actual
Altitude: higher than normal

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49
Q

which instruments are connected to the pitot-static system

A

airspeed indicator
altimeter
VSI

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50
Q

how is an autopilot system disabled?

A

hit the red button on the yoke - or select it on the audio panel

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51
Q

how will the loss of a magnetometer affect the AHRS operation

A

heading info will be lost

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52
Q

what display info will be affected when an ADC failure occurs

A

inop :
- airspeed
- altitude
- VSI

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53
Q

what is the function of the magnetometer

A

measures the strength of the earths magnetic field to determine aircraft heading

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54
Q

what is an electrical bus bar

A

power distribution point to which several circuits may be connected

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55
Q

what is the purpose of a voltage regulator

A

controls the rate of charge to the battery by stabilizing the generator / alternator electrical output.
output should be higher than the battery voltage
- difference keeps the battery charged

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56
Q

what does a loadmeter provide

A

scale beginning with zero and shows the load being places on the alt/generator. it reflects the total percentage of the load places on the generating capacity of the electrical system by the electrical accessories and battery

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57
Q

what info does an ammeter provide

A

used to monitor the performance of the aircraft electrical system. shows if the alt/generator is producing an adequate supply of electrical power. also indicates if the battery is receiving enough electrical power or not

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58
Q

alternator v generator

A

alternator:

generator:

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58
Q

what could casuse oil temp gauge to indicate very high or low temp

A

high:
- plugged oil line
- low oil quantity
- blocked oil cooler
- defective temp gauge

Low: improper oil viscosity during cold wx operations

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59
Q

the engine oil system performs several important functions. what are they (5)

A
  1. lubricate engines moving parts
  2. cooling the engine by reducing friction
  3. removing heat from the cylinders
  4. providing a seal between the cylinder walls and Pistons
  5. carrying away containments
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60
Q

how does the condition known as vapor lock occur in a fuel system

A

air enters the fuel system making it difficult to restart the engine.

  • could happen from running the tank dry
  • allowing air to enter the fuel system
    __ fuel injected: fuel may become so hot it vaporizes in the dual line not allowing fuel to reach the cylinders
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61
Q

when will the gear horn sound

A
  • when below 14in of MP and gear is not down and locked
  • gear switch is indicated up while on the ground
  • gear up while flaps are in the 2nd or 3rd position
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62
Q

why doesn’t the propeller blades feather every time when going to shut down the aircraft

A

anit-feathering pins. once RPMs drop below 950RPM, the pin senses a lack of centrifugal force from the prop rotation and falls into place

63
Q

what is an unfeathering accumulator

A

it stores a small reserve of engine oil under pressure from compressed air or nitrogen

the oil flows under pressure to the propeller hub and drives the blasted toward the high RPM

64
Q

how is a propeller brought out of the feather position

A

to unfeather a propeller, the engine must be rotated so that oil pressure can be generated to move the propeller blades from the feathered position

engine is turned on
- throttle : LOW RPM
- propeller : HIGH PRM
starter engaged
** engine will begin to windmill, start, and run as oil pressure moved the blade out of feather

65
Q

three most critical phases of flight

A

takeoff
landing
initial climb

66
Q

discuss p-factor

A

the descending prop blade of each engine will produce greater thrust than the ascending blade when the airplane is operated under power and at positive angles of attack

right engine is at a greater distance from the cg and has a longer moment arm than the descending prop blade of the left engine

67
Q

service ceiling

A

maximum density altitude where the best rate of climb airspeed will produce a 100pfm climb at maximum weight while in a clean configuration with max. continuous power

68
Q

what factors affect the effective service ceiling of a multi

A

wt
pa
temp

69
Q

absolute ceiling

A

altitude at which climb is no longer possible
DA where Vx and Vy are equal

70
Q

single engine service ceiling

A

can no longer climb at a rate greater than 50fpm with one engine inop

71
Q

single engine absolute ceiling

A

airplane can no longer climb with one engine inop
Vxse and Vyse are the same

72
Q

forward CG

A
  • higher stall speed
  • slower cruise speed
  • more stable
  • greater back pressure required
73
Q

aft cg

A
  • lower stall speed
  • higher cruise speed
  • less stable
  • higher Vmc
74
Q

what is Vmc

A

calibrated airspeed at which, when the critical engine is suddenly made inoperative, it is possible to maintain control of the airplane with that engine still inoperative, and thereafter maintain straight and level flight at the same speed with an angle of bank no more than 5 degrees

75
Q

what are the two different types of aircraft stability

A
  1. static
  2. dynamic
76
Q

what are the four forces in flight

A

lift, weight, drag, thrust

77
Q

what are the three types of static stability

A
  1. positive
  2. negative
  3. neutral
78
Q

what is positive static stability

A

the aircraft tends to return to its original position after the disruptive force is removed

79
Q

what is negative stability

A

the aircraft will continue to move away from its original position after the disruptive force is removed

80
Q

what is neutral static stability

A

the aircraft tends to stay in its most recently commanded attitude or condition, WITHOUT oscillations

81
Q

what is dynamic stability

A

the amount of time it takes for it to respond to its static stability after it has been displayed from a condition of equilibrium

82
Q

what are the different types of dynamic stability

A
  1. positive
  2. neutral
  3. negative
83
Q

what is positive dynamic stability

A

tendency of an aircraft to dampen toward its original position once disturbed

84
Q

what is negative dynamic stability

A

tendency of an aircraft to move away from its original position once disturbed

85
Q

what is neutral dynamic stability

A

oscillations that never dampen out

86
Q

what is a METAR

A

meteorological aerodrome report

87
Q

how often is a METAR updated

A

every hour (normally 55 min past the hour)

88
Q

what is a TAF

A

Terminal Aera Forecast

89
Q

how often is a TAF updated

A

every 6 hours (4x daily)

90
Q

what does GFA stand for

A

Graphical Forecasts for Aviation

91
Q

what is a GFA - how long can you see it

A

18 hours in the past to 18 hours in the future

92
Q

what is an AWOS

A

automated weather observation system

93
Q

what is an ASOS

A

automated surface observation station

94
Q

ASOS has been installed by which agency
AWOS has been install by which agency

A

ASOS: Federal
AWOS: state and local gov

95
Q

what is an ATIS

A

Automated terminal information system
- normally updates 55 min past the hour

96
Q

what is spin recovery in the Seminole

A

Power
Rudder
Elevator
Alerion

97
Q

what is go around procedure

A

flap, flap, gear, flap

98
Q

how to fly the backside of the power curve

A

pitch for airspeed
power for altitude

99
Q

what is the flight service frequency

A

122.2

100
Q

what can flight service be used for

A

Wx updates
VFR opening and closing flight plans
search and rescue

101
Q

what is the Lift equation

A

L= Cl x 1/2p v2s

102
Q

what does the Cl mean in the lift equation

A

angle of attack and wing shape

103
Q

what does the 1/2P mean in the lift equation

A

density

104
Q

what is the v2 in the lift equation

A

speed

105
Q

what is the s in the lift equation

A

wing surface area

106
Q

what are the different types of fronts

A

cold
occluded
warm
stationary

107
Q

what are the two pressure systems

A

high and low

108
Q

what direction does a high pressure system flow

A

cw and out

109
Q

what direction does a low pressure system flow

A

ccw and inward

110
Q

what is atmospheric stability

A

refers to the airs tendency to either rise and create storms (instable) or to reside vertical movement (stability)

111
Q

what causes turbulence

A
  • friction between the air and the ground
  • thermal (convective)
  • jet streams
  • thunderstorms
112
Q

how to report turbulence

A

light
mod
severe
extreme

113
Q

what is light turb

A

slight erratic Changes in altitude/attitude

114
Q

what is mod turb

A

similar to light but greater

115
Q

what is severe turb

A

large, abrupt changes in altitude/atttiude

116
Q

what is extreme turb

A

aircraft is violently tosses about and it is practically impossible to control

117
Q

what are the stages of a t.storm

A

cumulus
mature
dissipating

118
Q

how can you avoid a t.storm

A

stay 20nm away

119
Q

what are cold wx operations

A

prime the engines
- cover the engines after flight
- cover the props after flight
- dress correctly
* hat and gloves and coat

120
Q

what are hot weather ops in the summer

A
  • don’t prime the engine (try to avoid vapor lock)
  • dress correctly
  • Drink plenty of water and watch for signs of dehydration
121
Q

what are different types of AIRMETS

A

Sierra
Tango
Zulu

122
Q

tell more about AIRMET Sierra

A

IFR conditions
ceilings less than 1000ft and/or vis less than 3m affecting more than 50% of the area at one time
* extensive mountain obscurations

123
Q

tell me more about AIRMET Tango

A

Turbulence
- moderate turbulence
- sustained surface winds of 30 knots or more at the surface

124
Q

tell me about AIRMET Zulu

A

Icing
- mod icing
- freezing levels

125
Q

AIRMETS are considered to be _____ because they must be affecting or be forecasted to affect an area of at least _________ square miles

A

widespread
affecting at least 3000 square miles at any one time

126
Q

AIRMETS are _________ issued for ____ hour periods

A

routinely issued for 6 hours

127
Q

what is a SIGMET

A

significant meteorological information

128
Q

what are the two categories of SIGMETs

A

non-convective and convective

129
Q

when can a non-convective SIGMET be issued

A

more sever than those of the three types of AIRMETS.
- severe icing
- severe to extreme turb
- dust storms
- sandstorms that lower vis to less than 3miles
- volcanic ash

** hazardous to small aircraft

130
Q

non-convective SIGMETs are ______ and they are issued ________

A

unscheduled
issued as needed

131
Q

when can a convective SIGMET be issued

A

when severe thunderstorms with surface winds of greater than 50 knots
- surface hail more then 3/4 in or larger in diameter
- tornadoes
- embedded t.storms
- line of t.storms
- LLWS

132
Q

when a non-convective SIGMET is issued, it is valid for ______ hours
unless it is related to a hurricane then it is valid for ______ hours

A

valid for 4 hours
hurricane is valid for 6 hours

133
Q

how long is a convective SIGMET valid for

A

valid for 2 hours

134
Q

Convective SIGMETs are ________ issued at ________

A

routine issued at 55 min past the hour

135
Q

what are some types of stalls

A

power on
power off
secondary stall
cross controlled
elevator trim tab

136
Q

what causes an airplane to stall

A

when the aircraft angle of attach surpasses that for maximum lift.
* when the plane reaches or exceeds its critical angle of attack

137
Q

what are some stall recognition

A

buffeting or decay of control effectiveness
sound of stall horn

138
Q

what are the four phases of a spin

A

entry
incipient
development
recovery

139
Q

what iss the aviation security number

A

866-427-3287

140
Q

where are spins most likely to occur

A

when the airplane is slow with a high angle of attack and cross-controlled
(forward slip to land too slow)

excessive rudder is displaced and the winds stall enough

141
Q

what is ground effect

A

increased lift and decreased drag that occurs when the aircrafts wings are close to a fixed surface (ex. the ground)

142
Q

what are three types of icing

A

clear
mixed
rime

143
Q

what is the most dangerous type of ice

A

clear ice - it can be hard to see and can change the shape of the airfoil

144
Q

how to report Ice to ATC

A

rate of accumulation and intensity

145
Q

reporting rate of accumulation to ATC

A

trace - no sign accumulation
light - sign accumulation for prolonged flight
moderate - sign accumulation for shorter periods of flight
severe - rapid and dangerous accumulation of

146
Q

reporting intensity of ice to ATC

A

trace - not hazardous if de-ice is not used
light - occasional use of de-ice removes/prevents accumulation
moderate - short encounters become potentially hazardous and use of de-ice (flight diversion is necessary)
severe - de-ice fails to reduce or control the hazard (immediate flight diversion)

147
Q

what is wind shear

A

change in wind speed and/or direction over a short distance

148
Q

what is a PIREP

A

pilot report

149
Q

what are the two ways that Pilot Reports are classified

A

UA -routine
UUA - urgent

150
Q

what is adverse yaw

A

condition of flight in which the nose of an airplane tends to yaw toward the outside of the turn
- yaw or swing toward the side or direction of the raised wind

151
Q

what is typically used to counteract adverse yaw

A

rudder

152
Q

what are the four left turning tendencies

A

P- factor
slipstream
Gyroscopic procession
Torque

153
Q

explain P-factor

A

downward moving propeller blade takes a bigger “bite” of air than the upward moving blade.

154
Q

explain slipstream for the left turning tendencies

A

happens when your prop is moving fast and your plane is moving slow.
air accelerated behind the prop (known as the slipstream) follows a corkscrew pattern. As it wraps itself around the fuselage of your plane, it hits the left side of your aircraft’s tail, creating a yawing motion, and making the aircraft yaw left.

155
Q

explain gyroscopic procession for left turning tendencies

A

rigidity in space, and precession.

156
Q

explain torque for the left turning tendencies

A

Newton’s third law states that “for every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction”.

BGFC (13 decks)

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