P300 System Questions Flashcards

1
Q

Maximum Operating Altitude

A

45000 ft

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2
Q

Max takeoff and landing altitude

A

8300

Or 14000 with AFM Supplement 2

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3
Q

Single pilot operations

A

Must occupy left seat
Operative AP and FD
Headset with boom mic

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4
Q

What is the source of heading information for the IESI

A

AHRS 1

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5
Q

List some items on the EMER Bus

A
PFD 1
AHRS 1
Transponder 1
AFCS
Audio Panel 1
IESI
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6
Q

What is the primary source of Attitude and Heading information

A

AHRS 1 and 2

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7
Q

What does the green circle on airspeed tape indicate

A

1.3 VS

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8
Q

What does the Magenta trend vector indicate on the airspeed tape

A

Where the airspeed will be in 6 seconds

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9
Q

When do the takeoff refs automatically be removed from the speed tape

A

160 kts

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10
Q

What conditions will present a NO TO CONFIG cas message

A

No takeoff

Brake
Flaps
Spoilers
Trim

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11
Q

Yaw Damper OFF airspeed is limited to what speed

A

180 kts

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12
Q

Pushing the TOGA button during a go around does what

A
AP disconnects 
FD commands wing level and pitch up
CDI changes to magenta
Flight Plan cycles to Missed Approach
NAV source changes to FMS
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13
Q

What is the role of battery 2 in the start procedure

A

Engine start

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14
Q

What is the purpose of the QSC

A

Provides surge protection to the avionics during engine start

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15
Q

Why do we start engine 2 first

A

Verifies the right engine HYD pump pressure reaches 2850 psi

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16
Q

Which busses will be powered by battery only

A

Hot bus 1 and 2, DC bus 1 and 2,

Central bus, EMER bus

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17
Q

On a cold dark aircraft what items are powered by the battery bus

A

Baggage and stair lights
Rudder gust lock
Fuel Panel

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18
Q

What is necessary for the Shed bus to come online

A

Single generator online or GPU online

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19
Q

What busses are available in an Electrical Emergency

A

Hot bus 1 and 2
Central bus
EMER bus

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20
Q

What causes an electrical emergency

A

Loss of both generators

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21
Q

What is an ELEC XFR FAIL

A

When dual gen failure has occurred BUT the automatic shedding of DC Bus 1 and 2 and the Shes busses has NOT occurred

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22
Q

Loss of one generator results in

A

Loss of both Shed busses

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23
Q

XFEED knob must be set to OFF during

A

Takeoff and Landing

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24
Q

Explain how fuel is delivered to the engines from the fuel tanks with the engines running

A

Motive flow

1 High pressure fuel from FMU to the
2 Primary ejector pump which
3 Draws fuel from collector tank and
4 Returns fuel to FMU

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25
Q

How many fuel pumps and name them

A

3

Ejector pump,
Scavenger pump,
Electric boost pump

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26
Q

When is the electric boost pump activated if in the auto position

A

Start,
Crossfeed,
Primary ejector pump failure

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27
Q

What is the purpose of the scavenger pump

A

Maintain level of collector tank

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28
Q

When will the FUEL IMBALANCE cas extinguish

A

88lbs

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29
Q

How can the Phenom be fueled

A

Pressure refueling system and over wing gravity system

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30
Q

When will we get a Fuel Lo Level cas

A

310lbs

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31
Q

How many batteries do we have and what are the amps

A

2

34 Ah and 36 Ah

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32
Q

What is the minimum battery temperature for normal operations

A

-10C

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33
Q

Will the total tank quantity indication be lost if only one wing tank quantity indicator fails

A

Yes

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34
Q

While fueling what monitors the fuel quantity in the tanks and controls refueling flow into each tank

A

EFCU

Electronic Fuel Control Unit

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35
Q

What are the two critical tests that should be accomplished on the control panel BEFORE refueling

A

Lamp test

Shut off test

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36
Q

How many hydraulic pumps

A

2 at 3000psi each

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37
Q

What provides additional hydraulic flow when required

A

Accumulator

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38
Q

What isolates the hydraulic fluid from an engine fire situation

A

Fire shutoff valve

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39
Q

If the event of a loss of an hydraulic pump will we still have hydraulic pressure

A

Yes

The remaining pump can power the entire system

40
Q

What is the function of the priority valve

A

Restricts flow to landing gear in the case of multiple subsystem actuations

41
Q

What is powered by the hydraulic system

BLESSS

A
Brakes,
Landing Gear,
Emer parking brake,
Spoilers,
Stick Pusher,
Spring Loaded Rudder Boost
42
Q

When will the Fire Shutoff Valve close (3)

A

SOV switch to Close (manually)

Fire Shutoff button pressed

Both FSV will close automatically in a HI TEMP Conditiom

43
Q

What provides contamination protection to the Hydraulic system

A

Two disposable filters

44
Q

What would happen if the hydraulic filters fail or become blocked

A

Bypass valve will open allowing continued flow to the hydraulic system

45
Q

What is available to indicate that the filters need replacing

A

Red pop up indicator

46
Q

What does a HYD HI TEMP cas indicate

A

Hydraulic fluid is above 235F and both FSOV automatically close

47
Q

What does a HYD SOV Fail cas mean

A

An FSOV was commanded closed but did not close

48
Q

How many weight on wheel sensors are there

A

4

2 in each main gear

49
Q

What holds the gear in the UP position

A

Uplocks

50
Q

What occurs when the landing gear free fall handle is pulled

A

1 Relieves hydraulic pressure in the gear lines

2 Mechanically release gear up locks

51
Q

When will landing gear aural warning NOT be able to be silenced

A

Flaps 3 or Full and gear not down and locked

52
Q

What are the protective features of the Brake system

TAILS

A
Touchdown Protection
Anti Skid
Integrated BIT test
Locked wheel protection
Spin down
53
Q

What is the primary input to the Air - Ground system

A

Weight on wheels

54
Q

Name some systems that utilize WOW signals

FABLE

A

Fadec

Air conditioning

Brake Control

Lights

Electrical System

55
Q

Describe Locked Wheel Protection

A

Prevents main landing gear tire from bursting

Wheel speed is 30 percent or less than other wheel brake pressure

Pressure dump cancelled when locked wheel attains 70 percent

Drop out at 30kts

56
Q

Describe Anti skid

A

Prevents tire from skidding

Subsystem active at 30kts

Deactivates below 10kts

57
Q

Describe Touchdown Protection

A

Prevents brake application prior to airplane touchdown

58
Q

Describe Spindown (Gear retract braking)

A

Stops wheel rotation of wheels prior to entering wheel well

59
Q

What happens if wheel speed input fails

A

Anti skid not available

60
Q

What would BRK FAIL cas indicate

A

Only emergency parking brake available

61
Q

Is Anti-skid available for emergency parking brake

A

No

62
Q

How many applications does the emergency parking brake provide

A

6

63
Q

What are the primary flight controls

A

Aileron
Elevator
Rudder

64
Q

What are the secondary flight controls (5)

FARSH

A
Flaps
Aileron Trim Tab
Rudder Trim Tab
Spoiler
Horizontal stab
65
Q

What do the Flight Control Electrical (FCE) control

A

FCE 1 controls

Pitch Trim backup and flaps

FCE 2 controls

Normal Pitch Trim and Spoilers

66
Q

What are the flap position degrees and airspeed limitations

A

Flap 1 - 8 degrees 180kts

Flap 2/3 - 26 degrees and 170kts

67
Q

What are the 3 functions of spoilers

A

Roll spoiler,
Ground spoiler,
Speed brake

68
Q

What three conditions must be met for ground spoilers to deploy

A
  1. Aircraft on ground
  2. Thrust levers < 24
  3. Ground spoilers armed

Ground spoilers deploy to 35 degrees at approx 1.2 seconds

69
Q

What prevents the spoilers from opening further than their original position in the event of loss of hydraulic fluid

A

HDLV

Hold Down Lock Valve

70
Q

If extended, at what airspeed will the speed brakes retract

A

125kts

71
Q

Will the speed brakes retract if the power is advanced

A

Yes - cas indicates speed brake retraction

Placing the speed brake switch to CLOSE extinguishes the CAS

72
Q

Describe the flaps

A

Four position, four panel Fowler flap

DC electric motor operates 6 flexible shafts which operate the actuators

73
Q

What is the purpose of the Spring Loaded Rudder Boost system

A

Provides force assistance to the pilot in case of thrust assymetry

74
Q

When will the Rudder Boost system be deactivated

A

Asymmetry between the engines is equal to or lower than 250lbs

Airspeed equal to or lower than 50kt

75
Q

What besides the aircraft yaw damper provides yaw damping capability

A

Ventral rudder

76
Q

When does the Ventral rudder activate (2)

A

Automatically with airspeed over 60kt

Anytime the YD is engaged

77
Q

Which trims are commanded by the Trim Actuation system through the trim panel

A

Aileron and Rudder

78
Q

What mitigates spontaneous or commanded movement of the trim surface beyond safe limits

A

3 second timer

After 3 seconds of continuous trimming the actuator will not move requiring the release of the switch prior to commencing further trimming

79
Q

Where is the roll trim actuator installed

A

Left wing tip

80
Q

How would the roll or rudder trim failure be detected

A

Switch activation will not move the trim tab

There is no CAS message

81
Q

What is the difference between Flap 2 and Flap 3

A

None aside from takeoff and landing logic

82
Q

What sub systems are considered pneumatic

CAW

A

Air Conditioning,
Cabin Pressurization,
Wing and stab anti-ice

83
Q

How is the bleed system controlled

A

PRSOV

84
Q

Does a PRSOV automatically close in case of a single engine takeoff condition

A

Yes

85
Q

Can the remaining bleed air then supply all of the bleed air required by the system

A

Yes, via the Cross Bleed Valve (XBV)

86
Q

How can the pilot override the RH PRSOV to the closed position

A

By placing the pneumatic Bleed 2 toggle switch to the OFF position

87
Q

What does turning the ECS knob to the OFF VENT do

A
  1. Opens Ram air valve

2. Closes both FSOVs and PRSOVs

88
Q

For the pressurization system to operate automatically, what input is required by the flight crew prior to departure

A

LFE must be set

89
Q

When would a pilot see a HI FIELD annunciation

A

When a takeoff or landing field is above 9600

90
Q

During a HI FIELD operation, what altitude does the cabin reset too

A

14200ft

91
Q

When will the HI FIELD eicas message disappear and be replaced and a CABIN ALTITUDE HIGH alarm returns to 10000ft cabin altitude

A

If the airplane is above 25000ft

92
Q

In normal mode, at what cabin altitude will CAB ALTITUDE HIGH alarm activate

3 instances

A
  1. 10000ft if the airport is below 8300ft
  2. 11500ft if the airport is above 8300 and below 9600ft
  3. 14200ft during high-field operations (airport is above 9600ft
93
Q

Anti Ice valves open at what speed

A

40kt

94
Q

Wing anti ice valves (AIV) fail safe open or closed

A

Closed

95
Q

Engine anti ice valves fail open or closed

A

Open