P300 System Questions Flashcards
1
Q
Maximum Operating Altitude
A
45000 ft
2
Q
Max takeoff and landing altitude
A
8300
Or 14000 with AFM Supplement 2
3
Q
Single pilot operations
A
Must occupy left seat
Operative AP and FD
Headset with boom mic
4
Q
What is the source of heading information for the IESI
A
AHRS 1
5
Q
List some items on the EMER Bus
A
PFD 1 AHRS 1 Transponder 1 AFCS Audio Panel 1 IESI
6
Q
What is the primary source of Attitude and Heading information
A
AHRS 1 and 2
7
Q
What does the green circle on airspeed tape indicate
A
1.3 VS
8
Q
What does the Magenta trend vector indicate on the airspeed tape
A
Where the airspeed will be in 6 seconds
9
Q
When do the takeoff refs automatically be removed from the speed tape
A
160 kts
10
Q
What conditions will present a NO TO CONFIG cas message
A
No takeoff
Brake
Flaps
Spoilers
Trim
11
Q
Yaw Damper OFF airspeed is limited to what speed
A
180 kts
12
Q
Pushing the TOGA button during a go around does what
A
AP disconnects FD commands wing level and pitch up CDI changes to magenta Flight Plan cycles to Missed Approach NAV source changes to FMS
13
Q
What is the role of battery 2 in the start procedure
A
Engine start
14
Q
What is the purpose of the QSC
A
Provides surge protection to the avionics during engine start
15
Q
Why do we start engine 2 first
A
Verifies the right engine HYD pump pressure reaches 2850 psi
16
Q
Which busses will be powered by battery only
A
Hot bus 1 and 2, DC bus 1 and 2,
Central bus, EMER bus
17
Q
On a cold dark aircraft what items are powered by the battery bus
A
Baggage and stair lights
Rudder gust lock
Fuel Panel
18
Q
What is necessary for the Shed bus to come online
A
Single generator online or GPU online
19
Q
What busses are available in an Electrical Emergency
A
Hot bus 1 and 2
Central bus
EMER bus
20
Q
What causes an electrical emergency
A
Loss of both generators
21
Q
What is an ELEC XFR FAIL
A
When dual gen failure has occurred BUT the automatic shedding of DC Bus 1 and 2 and the Shes busses has NOT occurred
22
Q
Loss of one generator results in
A
Loss of both Shed busses
23
Q
XFEED knob must be set to OFF during
A
Takeoff and Landing
24
Q
Explain how fuel is delivered to the engines from the fuel tanks with the engines running
A
Motive flow
1 High pressure fuel from FMU to the
2 Primary ejector pump which
3 Draws fuel from collector tank and
4 Returns fuel to FMU
25
How many fuel pumps and name them
3
Ejector pump,
Scavenger pump,
Electric boost pump
26
When is the electric boost pump activated if in the auto position
Start,
Crossfeed,
Primary ejector pump failure
27
What is the purpose of the scavenger pump
Maintain level of collector tank
28
When will the FUEL IMBALANCE cas extinguish
88lbs
29
How can the Phenom be fueled
Pressure refueling system and over wing gravity system
30
When will we get a Fuel Lo Level cas
310lbs
31
How many batteries do we have and what are the amps
2
34 Ah and 36 Ah
32
What is the minimum battery temperature for normal operations
-10C
33
Will the total tank quantity indication be lost if only one wing tank quantity indicator fails
Yes
34
While fueling what monitors the fuel quantity in the tanks and controls refueling flow into each tank
EFCU
Electronic Fuel Control Unit
35
What are the two critical tests that should be accomplished on the control panel BEFORE refueling
Lamp test
| Shut off test
36
How many hydraulic pumps
2 at 3000psi each
37
What provides additional hydraulic flow when required
Accumulator
38
What isolates the hydraulic fluid from an engine fire situation
Fire shutoff valve
39
If the event of a loss of an hydraulic pump will we still have hydraulic pressure
Yes
The remaining pump can power the entire system
40
What is the function of the priority valve
Restricts flow to landing gear in the case of multiple subsystem actuations
41
What is powered by the hydraulic system
BLESSS
```
Brakes,
Landing Gear,
Emer parking brake,
Spoilers,
Stick Pusher,
Spring Loaded Rudder Boost
```
42
When will the Fire Shutoff Valve close (3)
SOV switch to Close (manually)
Fire Shutoff button pressed
Both FSV will close automatically in a HI TEMP Conditiom
43
What provides contamination protection to the Hydraulic system
Two disposable filters
44
What would happen if the hydraulic filters fail or become blocked
Bypass valve will open allowing continued flow to the hydraulic system
45
What is available to indicate that the filters need replacing
Red pop up indicator
46
What does a HYD HI TEMP cas indicate
Hydraulic fluid is above 235F and both FSOV automatically close
47
What does a HYD SOV Fail cas mean
An FSOV was commanded closed but did not close
48
How many weight on wheel sensors are there
4
2 in each main gear
49
What holds the gear in the UP position
Uplocks
50
What occurs when the landing gear free fall handle is pulled
1 Relieves hydraulic pressure in the gear lines
| 2 Mechanically release gear up locks
51
When will landing gear aural warning NOT be able to be silenced
Flaps 3 or Full and gear not down and locked
52
What are the protective features of the Brake system
TAILS
```
Touchdown Protection
Anti Skid
Integrated BIT test
Locked wheel protection
Spin down
```
53
What is the primary input to the Air - Ground system
Weight on wheels
54
Name some systems that utilize WOW signals
FABLE
Fadec
Air conditioning
Brake Control
Lights
Electrical System
55
Describe Locked Wheel Protection
Prevents main landing gear tire from bursting
Wheel speed is 30 percent or less than other wheel brake pressure
Pressure dump cancelled when locked wheel attains 70 percent
Drop out at 30kts
56
Describe Anti skid
Prevents tire from skidding
Subsystem active at 30kts
Deactivates below 10kts
57
Describe Touchdown Protection
Prevents brake application prior to airplane touchdown
58
Describe Spindown (Gear retract braking)
Stops wheel rotation of wheels prior to entering wheel well
59
What happens if wheel speed input fails
Anti skid not available
60
What would BRK FAIL cas indicate
Only emergency parking brake available
61
Is Anti-skid available for emergency parking brake
No
62
How many applications does the emergency parking brake provide
6
63
What are the primary flight controls
Aileron
Elevator
Rudder
64
What are the secondary flight controls (5)
| FARSH
```
Flaps
Aileron Trim Tab
Rudder Trim Tab
Spoiler
Horizontal stab
```
65
What do the Flight Control Electrical (FCE) control
FCE 1 controls
Pitch Trim backup and flaps
FCE 2 controls
Normal Pitch Trim and Spoilers
66
What are the flap position degrees and airspeed limitations
Flap 1 - 8 degrees 180kts
Flap 2/3 - 26 degrees and 170kts
67
What are the 3 functions of spoilers
Roll spoiler,
Ground spoiler,
Speed brake
68
What three conditions must be met for ground spoilers to deploy
1. Aircraft on ground
2. Thrust levers < 24
3. Ground spoilers armed
Ground spoilers deploy to 35 degrees at approx 1.2 seconds
69
What prevents the spoilers from opening further than their original position in the event of loss of hydraulic fluid
HDLV
Hold Down Lock Valve
70
If extended, at what airspeed will the speed brakes retract
125kts
71
Will the speed brakes retract if the power is advanced
Yes - cas indicates speed brake retraction
Placing the speed brake switch to CLOSE extinguishes the CAS
72
Describe the flaps
Four position, four panel Fowler flap
DC electric motor operates 6 flexible shafts which operate the actuators
73
What is the purpose of the Spring Loaded Rudder Boost system
Provides force assistance to the pilot in case of thrust assymetry
74
When will the Rudder Boost system be deactivated
Asymmetry between the engines is equal to or lower than 250lbs
Airspeed equal to or lower than 50kt
75
What besides the aircraft yaw damper provides yaw damping capability
Ventral rudder
76
When does the Ventral rudder activate (2)
Automatically with airspeed over 60kt
Anytime the YD is engaged
77
Which trims are commanded by the Trim Actuation system through the trim panel
Aileron and Rudder
78
What mitigates spontaneous or commanded movement of the trim surface beyond safe limits
3 second timer
After 3 seconds of continuous trimming the actuator will not move requiring the release of the switch prior to commencing further trimming
79
Where is the roll trim actuator installed
Left wing tip
80
How would the roll or rudder trim failure be detected
Switch activation will not move the trim tab
There is no CAS message
81
What is the difference between Flap 2 and Flap 3
None aside from takeoff and landing logic
82
What sub systems are considered pneumatic
| CAW
Air Conditioning,
Cabin Pressurization,
Wing and stab anti-ice
83
How is the bleed system controlled
PRSOV
84
Does a PRSOV automatically close in case of a single engine takeoff condition
Yes
85
Can the remaining bleed air then supply all of the bleed air required by the system
Yes, via the Cross Bleed Valve (XBV)
86
How can the pilot override the RH PRSOV to the closed position
By placing the pneumatic Bleed 2 toggle switch to the OFF position
87
What does turning the ECS knob to the OFF VENT do
1. Opens Ram air valve
| 2. Closes both FSOVs and PRSOVs
88
For the pressurization system to operate automatically, what input is required by the flight crew prior to departure
LFE must be set
89
When would a pilot see a HI FIELD annunciation
When a takeoff or landing field is above 9600
90
During a HI FIELD operation, what altitude does the cabin reset too
14200ft
91
When will the HI FIELD eicas message disappear and be replaced and a CABIN ALTITUDE HIGH alarm returns to 10000ft cabin altitude
If the airplane is above 25000ft
92
In normal mode, at what cabin altitude will CAB ALTITUDE HIGH alarm activate
3 instances
1. 10000ft if the airport is below 8300ft
2. 11500ft if the airport is above 8300 and below 9600ft
3. 14200ft during high-field operations (airport is above 9600ft
93
Anti Ice valves open at what speed
40kt
94
Wing anti ice valves (AIV) fail safe open or closed
Closed
95
Engine anti ice valves fail open or closed
Open
