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Phenom 100 Study Guide 2015 recurrent > P100/300 - Recurrent Questions > Flashcards

P100/300 - Recurrent Questions Flashcards

1
Q

P100

Max Ramp Weight
Max Takeoff Weight
Max Landing Weight
Max Zero Fuel Weight

A

CAE JS

Max Ramp Weight 10516 10626
Max Takeoff Weight 10472 10582
Max Landing Weight 9776 9886
Max Zero Fuel Weight 8775 8885

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2
Q

What is the purpose of the MEL?

A

Allows for the aircraft to be dispatched with certain equipment (MEL) to be inop.

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3
Q

What does it mean if an item is not listed on the MEL

A

The item MUST be functional for dispatch

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4
Q

Per the JetSuite MEL Can we dispatch with a SWPS fail CAS message

A

NO!

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5
Q

IESI inop - Can you be dispatched?

A

CHECK MEL - Yes…. Note the restrictions in the MEL….

MEL system/seq #34

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6
Q

P100

Where is the data required to operate the Phenom 100 within RVSM airspace found?

A

AFM Supplemental 1

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7
Q

When in RVSM airspace what equipment MUST be operating and in proper working condition?

hint: TAAR

A 
T = Transponder
A = Auto Pilot
A = Altitude hold & alerter
R = RVSM Compliant Air Data Systems x2

AFM supplemental 1/S1-00/pg 2

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8
Q

In the event of any RVSM equipment failure prior to entering RVSM airspace what should the pilot do?

A

Request a new clearance

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9
Q

While in preflight/inflight what is the MAX allowable differences between the primary altimeters if RVSM airspace is to be used?

A

75ft on ground!

200ft in the air within RVSM

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10
Q

Can the IESI be used for RVSM operations?

A

No

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11
Q

The flight data recorder will record how many hours of DATA and how many hours of voice data?

A

Data @ 25hours

Voice @ 2hours

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12
Q

Inflight with battery power only, which electrical busses are powered after following the QRH Electrical EMER procedure?

A

Hot Battery Bus X2
Emer Bus
Central Bus

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13
Q

When connecting external power to the aircraft do you need an operational battery?

A

YES - The aircraft should always be powered up via battery prior to bringing on any external power

PTM 4-7

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14
Q

How much time do you have when using the batteries as the sole source of power upon following the QRH procedures?

A

45mins

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15
Q

P100

What is the MAIN power generating system composed of?

A

2 x 24VDC, 27ah lead acid batteries
2 x engine driven 250A stater generators
1 x GPU

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16
Q

What is the purpose of the Quiet Start Contactor?

A

Allows the start of the second engine without a surge of power to the avionics

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17
Q

How do you turn the static inverter off?

A

1 - Cockpit Switch
2 - Inverter shuts down 2-15 secs after a short circuit condition
3 - input voltage less than required (22 +/- 1.5 VDC)

PTM 4-24

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18
Q

What does the GPU supply power to?

A

The Central bus

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19
Q

What causes an electrical emergency?

A

A loss of both generators

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20
Q

What is the function of the fuel vent tank?

A

keeps the fuel pressure differential between the tanks and the atmosphere within structural limits

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21
Q

P100

What provides in-flight wing balancing of the fuel load?

A

Gravity flow through and interconnecting transfer valve

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22
Q

What is normally used to supply fuel from the wing to the engine fuel control unit in flight?

A

Ejector Pumps

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23
Q

P100

When is the electric fuel boost pump used?

A

1 - Engine Start

2- Backup when the primary ejector pump fails

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24
Q

What does the EICAS “HYD HI TEMP” mean?

A

Hydraulic Fluid or Hydraulic Pump has overheated…. and the motor has been shut down automatically.

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25
Q

What does the EICAS “HYD LO PRESS” mean?

A

EMER Breaking must be used and note that there is only 6 applications

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26
Q

P100

With the hydraulic pump selector knob in auto how is the pump activated?

A

System logic will activate the electric pump in accordance with pressure demand

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27
Q

P100

What protection is provided against over pressurization of the hydraulic system?

A

Pressure relief valve installed in the manifold.
Max pressure 3250 PSI

PTM 10-6

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28
Q

P100

What pressurizes the hydraulic system?

A

28 VDC Electric motor pump that normally gets power from the central bus

Pump on Central bus
Motor on DC Bus 2

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29
Q

P100

How would you check the hydraulic system for proper hydraulic fluid quantity?

A

visually checking the fluid level indicator in the right front nose area and making sure that it is in the full range AFTER depressurizing the system

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30
Q

What heats the engine nacelle air intake?

A

Engine bleed air

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31
Q

What is the default setting of the engine anti ice (EAI) system if electrical power is no longer available to it?

A

Defaults to “OPEN” which ensures the EAI system provides continuous hot bleed air to the engine inlet.

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32
Q

P100

What is the wing/stab de-ice systems operating cycle?

A

SOIR - Stabs/Outboard/Inboard/Rest. Cycle - 666 then rest for 42

PTM 11-8

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33
Q

With an engine failure in icing conditions, which antice/deice systems will be affected?

A

ENG anti-ice and the windshield heat

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34
Q

P100

What does the ice and rain protection systems include?

ABREW

A 
Windshield Heating System
Air Data Heating System
Boots
Engine Bleed Air
Rain repellant Coating
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35
Q

What happens if the wheel speed input fails?

A

Anti Skid is disabled

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36
Q

When does the anti skid protection drop out?

A

10kts

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37
Q

BRK FAIL CAS appears - do you have brakes?

A

Yes - EMER BRK… separate system! but remember that there are only 6 applications and no anti skid

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38
Q

What is the primary input to the Air/Ground System?

A

WOW… (Weight on wheels) proximity switch

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39
Q

P100

How is the landing gear held down in the landing position?

A 
MG = Mechanical Locking System
NG = Over Center Locking Stay
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40
Q

Hydraulic System off - how many applications do you have with the EMER/Parking break system?

A

6

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41
Q

P100

What holds the landing gear in the up position?

A

Hydraulic pressure

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42
Q

What input is required by the crew prior to departure for the pressurization system to operated automatically?

A

LFE - The L in NAVFLOW

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43
Q

What is indicated by a CAB ALTITUDE HI message?

A

Cabin pressure is equalt to or higher than 10000ft.

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44
Q

What regulates the bleed air pressure coming from each engine?

A

PRSOV - Pressure Regulating and Shutoff valve

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45
Q

When do the PAX masks auto deploy?

A

CAB alt @ 14700 (+-300) but note that the control switch needs to be in PAX AUTO

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46
Q

What Happens when the dump button is pushed?

A

The outflow valve is opened / recirculation fans closed.

Press Switch auto = 12000ft
Press Switch man = 14500ft

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47
Q

Describe bleed air flow from the PRSOV to cockpit/cabin.

A

Air from the PRSOV splits, half to the TMV/Half to heat exchanger then to TMV - they are mixed together and then sent to the cockpit/cabin

PTM 2-3, AFM 6-02-15

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48
Q

What is the purpose of the ground cooling fan on the grnd with bleed air on?

A

Provides airflow over the air conditioning system condenser coil and the heat exchanger

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49
Q

What is used to cool the heat exchanger?

A

Inflight - RAM air

Ground - Ground Cooling Fan

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50
Q

How is RAM Air used in the aircraft?

A

RAM Air used to decrease bleed air temp in the heat exchanger
RAM Air used to supply fresh air to CKPIT/CBIN in specific cases.

PTM 2-7

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51
Q

When can air be supplied to the CPIT/CBIN from the RAM Air ventilation system?

A

Loss of bleed air from both engines or in ground ops

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52
Q

P100

When can the VCS be operated?

A

SFC/410 - When on the SFC the VCS can not be ran off the BATS

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53
Q

How is the temp of the air to the cabin controlled?

A

TMV - Temp Modulating Valves mix cool air from the heat exchangers with hot bleed air based upon the temp selection on the CPIT control panel

PTM 2-10

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54
Q

How many refrigerant circuits are in the Vapor Cycle Air conditioning system?

A

(2)

1 - CPIT
1 - CBIN

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55
Q

P100

When can the VCS (Vapor Cycle system) be operated on the grnd?

A

With a GPU or both engines running.

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56
Q

What enables Automatic Thrust Reserve (ATR)?

A

Selecting ATR via the soft keys on the MFD

Difference of 20% N1 between both engines
Loss of communication between both engines
One engine failure on take off

POH 6-05-30

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57
Q

P100

What is the indication of an impending blockage of an oil filter?

A

A mechanical popup impending bypass indicator on the oil filter

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58
Q

How does the dual channel ignition system operate during engine start?

A

The ignition channel used during start automatically switches after each start.

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59
Q

When the temp is below 0c what should be noted about the dual channel ignition system?

A

Both channels are used if temp is below 0c

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60
Q

Pushing the fire system ENG1/2 SHUTOFF switch does what?

A

The specific engine will have its Fuel Shutoff Valve and PRSOV closed and the fire bottle will arm

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61
Q

Upon completing the Engine Fire procedure and firing the bottle and you still have an illuminated Engine Shutoff switch - what would that mean?

A

There is still an overheat/fire within the engine

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62
Q

Start/Stop KNOB is inadvertently moved to STOP and the TLA is NOT at idle - what would happen?

A

FADEC disregards the stop selection and the engine will NOT shut down

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63
Q

Under normal conditions what is the color that the engine digits and pointers be?

A

Green

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64
Q

What indicates system integrity when testing the fire protection system?

A

6 Warnings -

1- AURA Warning “FIRE FIRE”
2 - RED Light in the shutoff button
2- FIRE message in the ITT
1 - ENG 1/2 FIRE CAS msg

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65
Q

What are the trims that are only commanded by the trim actuation system through the trim panel on the central pedestal?

A

Aileron and Rudder

Elevator trim commanded by the NML trim switch

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66
Q

What is indicated by a yellow flap readout?

A

Flap system is inop but position information is available

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67
Q

Describe the pitch trim system.

A

Two redundant modes of operation
1= Normal (Left motor)
2= Backup (right motor)

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68
Q

What is indicated by a “NO TAKEOFF, TRIM” aural warning?

A

Warning sounds when there is a takeoff intent with the pitch trim surfaces not properly configured for takeoff

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69
Q

What mitigates spontaneous or commanded movement of any trim surface beyond its safe limits?

A

Trim Actuator imposes a 3sec authority limit to every trim command

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70
Q

When using the pitch trim control on the yoke what warnings do you have to insure not over/under trimming by accident

A 
3seconds = TRIM
4seconds = TRIM
7seconds = LOCKOUT and can only be reset by powering down.
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71
Q

G1000

Where are the TO/Landing V speeds entered and displayed?

A

Timer Refs window and displayed on the PFDs

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72
Q

How is the PFD/MFD backlighting controlled with the CPIT panel dimmer in OFF position?

A

Photocell technology automatically adjusts the backlighting for ambient lighting conditions

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73
Q

What is the source of the 28volt DC power to illuminate the standby compass?

A

EMER Bus

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74
Q

What is the indication on the IESI of no availability of the magnetic heading information coming from the AHRS1?

A

The IESI does not display magnetic heading information which is replaced by a red cross

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75
Q

Describe the magenta airspeed trend vector.

A

6sec indication of where the airspeed will be

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76
Q

SLIP/SKID indicator is found where

A

beneath roll pointer

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77
Q

Describe each MFD/PFD screen/display if one should fail

A

PFD1 fails = MFD Revisionary PFD2 normal
MFD fails = PFD1/2 Revisionary
PFD2 fails = PFD1 normal MFD Normal

PTM 1-7

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78
Q

What are “annunciated procedures”

A

Procedures related to CAS messages

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79
Q

What must be done to place the flight director to the right side

A

Push the CPL button

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80
Q

How is the map pointer activated

A

By pressing the joystick

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81
Q

What must always be accomplished before entering data into the FMS?

A

Selection curser must be turned on

82
Q

What is the function of the joystick?

A

Changes map range when rotated and activates the map pointer

83
Q

How many GPS receivers does the Phenom 100 have?

A

Two, one in each GIA

84
Q

What indication is there if the left/right altimeter settings differ?

A

The readout will be yellow if the two meters are .03 or more off

85
Q

When in TO or GA mode what must be true for ALT Pre-selected mode to arm?

A

The preselected ALT must be greater than or equal to 400ft from the TO or GA ALT

86
Q

Flying an approach coupled to the AutoPilot… Pressing the TOGA button as you begin the missed approach will have what effect on the flight director and AutoPilot.

A

FD Commands Wings Level and Pitch up according to flap level
AutoPilot will disengage
Missed Approach will sequence
NAV source will change to GPS

87
Q

When do the TO Vspeed flags auto turn off?

A

Airspeed @ 160KTS

88
Q

How many flight directors are in the system and how many can be active at one time?

A

Two FD, One active.

89
Q

During what approach condition will the FD NOT level at a preselected altitude?

A

Captured/coupled GS/GP

90
Q

When Vertical Speed (VS) mode selected, what is the initial vertical speed reference?

A

The current airplane vertical speed to the nearest 100fpm

91
Q

How does the CDI indicate NAV source?

A

GPS = Magenta
Green = VOR/LOC
Double Green = VOR/LOC-2

92
Q

On the NAV frequency window, what color is the active NAV frequency selected for navigation?

A

Green

93
Q

What is indicated if the alphanumeric NAV source indication in the CDI is yellow?

A

Both sides have the same NAV source

94
Q

The Phenom’s primary NAV source is what?

A

GPS

95
Q

Describe the selection BRG1 Pointer.

A

Pressing the BRG1 soft key once will bring up the light blue single line pointer in the HSI with the associated information window displayed to the lower left of the HSI. NAV source will be NAV1,

Pressing it once more will make it NAV source GPS

Pressing it again will get rid of the pointer and info window

96
Q

Embraers RECOMMENDED Wind Shear escape procedure.

A

TLs = MAX PWR
AP = Disengage
Pitch = 15degrees/airspeed just above stall
Configuration = Maintain
CLR of terrain = GEAR/FLAPS up, TL CON/CLB

97
Q

What is the best solution when operating in areas of reported wind shear?

A

AVOID AVOID AVOID

98
Q

ILS critical Area - when protected can it be crossed?

A

Not with out permission from ATC

Weather less than 800/2

99
Q

When is the ILS critical area not protected?

A

800/2

800ft ceiling and 2miles of visibility

100
Q

Can you use the area “PRIOR” to a displaced threshold for landing/taxi/takeoff?

A

NO/YES/YES

101
Q

During the rollout on the runway, the white “runway center lights” start to alternate RED/WHITE and then all the lights are RED - what are the distances available?

A 
RED/WHITE = 3000 feet
RED = 1000 feet
102
Q

Taxiway enhanced center lines extend out approx how many feet prior to a runway holding position marker?

A

100-150feet

103
Q

What is the primary method for the pilot to ensure the aircraft is clear/clean of any substance?

A

Visual/Tactile inspection

104
Q

When is the pre-takeoff contamination check accomplished?

A

5mins prior to departure

105
Q

P100

Below what temp should the batteries be removed to prevent cold soaking?

A

-18c (0f) or below

106
Q

During a cold start engines remain idle until oil temp reaches what operating temp?

A

14c

107
Q

Min approach speed in icing conditions?

A

Vref +5 till RWAY threshold

108
Q

The VASI visual glide path provides safe obstruction clearance upto how many nautical miles from the RWAY threshold?

A

4NM +/- 10deg from the centerline

109
Q

On the main door how many latches/lock indications will you find?

A

8 Latch Indications

2 Lock Indications

110
Q

P100

What are the load factor limits?

How many Neg Gs can be pulled and why?

A

What are the load factor limits -
Flaps 1/2/3/F = 2Gs
Flaps 0 = 3.27Gs

How many Neg Gs can be pulled
None - may disrupt fuel flow and cause flameout

111
Q

What prevents the exits from being opened during flight?

A

Each door is fitted with a vent flap which in turn is connected to the door handles… As the pressure builds the latch/door handles become increasingly difficult to open.

PTM 1-27, POH 06-01-45

112
Q

P100

Operational Limits:
Takeoff

A 
TL @ 5mins
Max ITT @ 830
N2 @ 100.4
N1 @ 100
OIL PRES @ 170
OIL TEMP @ 14-130
113
Q

P100

Operational Limits:
Max Continuous/Climb

A 
TL @ NA (Although not for continued use)
Max ITT @ 830
N2 @ 100.4
N1 @ 100
OIL PRES @ 170
OIL TEMP @ 14-130
114
Q

P100

Operational Limits:
Starting

A 
TL @ NA
Max ITT @ 830 but may be exceeded upto 5secs (892/950depending on pre/post mod)
N2 @ NA
N1 @ NA
OIL PRES 0-270
OIL TEMP @ -40
115
Q

P100

Operational Limits:
Transient 1 and 2

A 
TRANS 1
TL @ 20secs
Max ITT @ 830
N2 @ 102
N1 @ 101
OIL PRES @ May be exceeded unto 250psig during 500secs....
OIL TEMP @ NA
TRANS 2
TL @ 90secs
Max ITT @ NA
N2 @ NA
N1 @ NA
OIL PRES @ May be exceeded unto 250psig during 500secs
OIL TEMP @ 130-141
116
Q

Hot / Hung starts are caused by what?

A

Hot Starts
1 - There has been too much fuel introduced too soon
2 - A tail wind

Hung Starts
1 - Engine hangs below the starter cutoff speed (44% N2 - PTM 5-17)
2 - Hot day / High altitude

117
Q

What are the requirements for a 600 600 600 take off?

A

HIRL and CL (High Intensity Runway Lights AND Center Line lights)

2 RVR reports
Crew has to be qualified
Aircraft has to have perf to make climb

118
Q

If you had to return to the airport how would you reset the LFE?

A

Manually or the system logic will reset to Takeoff Field Elevation with the following parameters..

Within 10mins of departure
Max Altitude achieved is 6000 feet or less
Aircraft has descended 1000 from the max ALT achieved

119
Q

P100

In the event of an NO auto relight what will you do?

A

XList!!
20/20 rule @ 20000 feet and 200kts window

QRH NAP 1-14 Engine in-flight start

120
Q

In the event you lost a FADEC would you lose an engine?

A

No - loss of power to Fadec results in both channels automatically reverted to the PMA (permanent magnet alternator)

121
Q

How many electrical BUSs’ does the Phenom have?

Name them.

A

(7)

Hot battery Bus 1/2
DC Bus 1/2
Central Bus 
Emer Bus 
Shed Bus
122
Q

Name some items on the EMER bus.

hint: FAAPPS

A 
Fadec
AHRS1
PFD1
Audio1
PTrim
SWPS
123
Q

P100

Fuel cannot be transferred from one wing to another when fuel quantity reaches:

Single engine condition -
Dual engine condition -

PTM 9-16

A

Single Engine - 308lb

Dual engine - 363lb

124
Q

P100

Max tire pressure - nose and main

POH 5-40

A

Nose: 117psi

Main: 176psi

125
Q

What are the Single Pilot Limitations?

A

Oxygen used at all times above 340
Autopilot
Headset w/ boom mic
Occupy left seat

126
Q

What protection does Fadec provide for engine starting in the ground?

A

Hung start
Hot start
No light-off

127
Q

P100

How many Fuel injectors?

A

14

128
Q

P100

What is the RTO (rejected takeoff) cooling time?

A

50 min

129
Q

How many quarts of oil does the engine hold?

A

4 qts

130
Q

P100

Max oil consumption

A

.068 liters/hr measured over 10 hours

131
Q

P100

What must happen for the hydraulic ground cooling fan to work?

A

Nose gear down and locked
One engine running
Power from the DC Bus 2

POH 6-10-10

132
Q

What happens when you move the landing gear handle to the down position?

A

BCU runs a bit test to test the integrity of the system and parts

133
Q

What are some brake system functions?

hint: TAILS

A 
Locked wheel protection
Anti skid
Touchdown protection
Spin brake
Integrated Bit test
134
Q

What is locked wheel protection?

A

Prevents main landing wheel from bursting due to locked wheel

Dropout speed is 30Kt allowing differential braking for steering

135
Q

What happens when a wheel is locked up for more than 3 seconds?

A

ANTISKID FAIL CAS message appears and antiskid function for that wheel is disabled.

136
Q

What is Spin Brake protection?

A

Stops the rotation of the main landing gear after takeoff within 4.5 seconds after gear retraction is initiated.

137
Q

What is antiskid protection?

A

Prevents tire from skidding

Below 10kt, antiskid is deactivated

138
Q

What is Touchdown protection?

A

Prevents touchdown with main landing gear brakes applied.

Protection is deactivated on a single wheel when speed is >35kt or 5 seconds after WOW has sensed the ground.

139
Q

How many fuel pumps are in each fuel tank?

Name them.

A

3

Ejector pump
Scavenge ejector pump
Electric fuel boost pump

140
Q

What is the purpose of the MEL

A

Aircraft can be operated under specific conditions with equipment that is inoperative

141
Q

SWPS fail - can you be dispatched?

A

CHECK MEL - No…. Not listed in MEL

142
Q

“O” means what with respect to the MEL?

A

A operational procedure must be followed before or during the operation of the aircraft with the listed item of equipment inop

143
Q

“M” means what with respect to the MEL?

A

A maintenance procedure must be followed before beginning operation of the aircraft with the listed item of equipment inop

144
Q

If the MEL does not address a piece of equipment what does that mean?

A

It is not an item that is MELable.

That item has to be working for dispatch

145
Q

P100

At what min altitude can the AP/YD be used

A

Min APYD engagement with 2 engines @ 500feet
Min APYD engagement with 1 engine @ 1000feet
Min use height @ 195feet
Max alt loss (man/cruise) 54ft

146
Q

P100

Vlo
Vle 
Vo
Vmo/Mmo
Vmc ----- TO
Vmc ----- Land Ice 
Vmc ----- Land No Ice
A 
Vlo 180/250kts  - note that 250 requires MX review
Vle 275kts 
Vo 186
Vmo/Mmo 275/.70
Vmc -TO 97kts
Vmc - Land Ice 97kts
Vmc - Land NIce 86kts
147
Q

P100

When MUST the Yaw Damp be engaged

A

At/above 25000 feet

At/above IAS 250 kts

148
Q

P100

Max Tire Speed

A

139kts

149
Q

P100

Max Baggage Loading
FWD
Wardrobe
LAV
AFT
A 
Max Baggage Loading
FWD 66lbs
Wardrobe 66lbs
LAV 33lbs
AFT 353lbs

Total =518lbs

150
Q

P100

When must the fuel TXF button be pushed out

A

When must the fuel TXF button be pushed out

TO/Land/Turb/Maneuvers

151
Q

P100

Max Gen Load on Ground/Air

A

Max Gen Load on Ground is 250 and 300 in air but below FL340

152
Q

P100

Max Fuel Capacity
Max useable fuel per tank
Max fuel imbalance
Max Fuel Temp on ground/air
Min Fuel Temp
A 
Max Fuel Capacity 2850lbs
Max useable fuel per tank (1425-22unusable) 1403lbs
Max fuel imbalance 220lbs
Max Fuel Temp on ground/air +52/+80
Min Fuel Temp -37
153
Q 
Starter Limits
1
2
3
4
A 
Starter Limits
1 - 60 sec
2 - 60sec
3 - 15min
4 - 30min

After the limitations are done you wait an additional 30mins before trying again

154
Q

When must the hydraulic system be checked

When must the stall warning protection system be checked

A

When must the hydraulic system be checked
Every 15days or prior to the next flight, whichever came last

When must the stall warning protection system be checked
Prior to every flight

155
Q

When should the engine anti-ice be turned on

When should all other anti ice and de ice equipment be turned on

A

VIZ Moisture
Engine Ice @ 10c and below

WSHLD 1/2 and Wingstab @ 5c and below

SAT on GRND and TAT in air

156
Q

P100

When using the VCS system on the ground what MUST be used

A

Grnd - GPU or Both generators operating

157
Q

P100

Min temp for wing stab use

A

-40c

158
Q

P100

Max Altitudes/Speeds for Flap extensions

Max Alt Flaps can be extended
Max Speed Flaps can be extended 1/2/3/F

A

Max Altitudes/Speeds for Flap extensions

Max Alt Flaps can be extended
YD operable = 15000feet
YD InOperable = 12000feet

Max Speed Flaps can be extended 1/2/3/F
1 @ 180kts
2 @ 160kts
3 @ 160kts
F @ 145kts
159
Q

Max Tail Wind TO/Land
Max Runway Slope
Runway SFC Required

A

Max Tail Wind TO/Land 10kts
Max Runway Slope +/- 2%
Runway SFC Required is PAVED

160
Q

Minimum Battery Voltage required for Engine Start

Minimum GPU Voltage for battery charging

A

Minimum Battery Voltage required for Engine Start
24volts

Minimum GPU Voltage for battery charging
27volts

161
Q

P100

Max Service Ceiling

A

41000 feet (FL410)

162
Q

P100

Operational Limits:
Maximum

A 
TL @ 10mins
Max ITT @ 845
N2 @ 100.4
N1 @ 100
OIL PRES @ NA
OIL TEMP @ NA
163
Q

MANEUVERS

Steep Turns

A

Clean Configuration Steep Turn

1 - Set PWR to maintain 180kts = N1 @ 68-72%
2 - Flaps / Gear UP
3 - Roll into a 45 4 - Trim / Pitch / Power as RQD to maintain Speed +/10 / Altitude +/100ft / Heading +/1-

164
Q

MANEUVERS

Landing Configuration Stall

A 
1 - Wings Level
2 - Gear Down
3 - Flaps 3 or full
4 - Power set @ 45% N1
5 - Trim to 120kts and maintain altitude
6 - Recover at first indication of a stall
Wings Level
Reduce Pitch attitude 2.5-7.5`
Thrust Levers as required
Flaps set 1 or 2 (to be moved only two notches
Accelerate to a safe speed
Initiate recovery
Positive Rate - Gear Up
Recover to a safe altitude
Retract flaps on schedule (Vac + 20 Min)
165
Q

MANEUVERS

Clean Configuration Stall

A 
1 - Wings Level
2 - Autopilot ON
3 - Gear Up
4 - Flaps Up
5 - Power Set @ 45% N1
6 - Recover at first indication of a stall
Autopilot - disengage
Wings Level
Reduce Pitch attitude 2.5-7.5`
Thrust levers as required
Accelerate to a safe speed
Initiate recovery
Recover to safe altitude
166
Q

MANEUVERS

Takeoff Configuration Stall

A 
1 - Wings level
2 - Gear up
3 - Flaps 1
4 - Power Set @ 45% N1
5 - Establish a 20` angle of bank
6 - Trim to 120kts and maintain altitude
7 - Recover at first indication of a stall...
Wings Level
Reduce pitch attitude 2.5-7.5`
Thrust Levers as required
Accelerate to a safe speed
Initiate recovery
Recover to safe altitude
Retract Flaps on schedule (V2+11 Min)
167
Q

P100

Min airspeed in ice conditions

A

160kts

168
Q

MANEUVERS

Take off with engine failure @ or above V1

A

1 - Maintain directional control
2 - Pitch to 9.5 (flaps 1 no ice/ with ice 6 or Flaps 2 @ 9/5.5)
3 - Positive Rate - GEAR UP
4 - Maintain V2 + TO RSV indication.
5 - 500AFE - confirm lateral mode
6 - 1000AFE - AP Engaged / FLC VFS / Flaps Up
7 - 1500AFE - CON/CLB / Applicable and After TO XLIST

169
Q

MANEUVERS

V1 Cut Procedure

A

V1 Cut Procedure-

Thrust Levers - TOGA
Vr - ROTATE to 9.5 (Follow FD)
PROC - Gear up / FLC V2 / Verify TO RSV
500feet - Check Lateral Mode
1000feet - AP / Vfs / Flaps0
1500feet - CONCLB / ATO XLIST / EMER XLIST
170
Q

MANEUVERS

GO Around/Missed Approach

A

Missed Approach/Go Around-

TTFG!!!
Thrust Lever to TOGA / TOGA button push
Flaps 1
PROC - Gear Up
FLC - Vac
Engage Lateral Mode
1000ft - AP engage / FLC 160 / Flaps 0
ATO Xlist
171
Q

139 MEMORY ITEM

SMOKE FIRE FUMES

A

MEMORY ITEM
SMOKE FIRE FUMES:

Oxygen Mask - DON, EMER & 100% AFTER 2MINS
Dilution Valve - CLOSED
Smoke Goggles - DON
Communication - ESTABLISH
Dump Button - PUSH IN
172
Q

140 MEMORY ITEM

SMOKE EVACUATION

A

MEMORY ITEM
SMOKE EVACUATION:

Oxygen Mask - DON, EMER & 100% AFTER 2MINS
Dilution Valve - CLOSED
Smoke Goggles - DON
Communication - ESTABLISH
Oxygen Knob - CREW ONLY
Dump Button - PUSH IN
Bleed Knob - OFF VENT
173
Q

141 MEMORY ITEM

DUAL ENGINE FAILURE

A

MEMORY ITEM
DUAL ENGINE FAILURE:

Thrust Levers - IDLW
Oxygen Masks - DON, 100%
Communication - ESTABLISH

174
Q

142 MEMORY ITEM

EMERGENCY DESCENT

A

MEMORY ITEM
EMERGENCY DESCENT:

Signs Outlet Switch - PED-BELTS/OFF
Altitude - MESA OR 10,000FT WHICHEVER IS HIGHER
Thrust Levers - IDLE
Airspeed/FLC - 250KTS
Landing Gear Lever - DOWN
Transponder - 7700
ATC - NOTIFY
175
Q

143 MEMORY ITEM

EMERGENCY EVACUATION

A

MEMORY ITEM
EMERGENCY EVACUATION:

Thrust levers - IDLE
Emer/Park Brake - ON
Start/Stop Knobs - STOP
Shutoff 1&2 - PUSH IN
Presn Mode Switch - MAN
Dump Button - PUSH IN
ATC - NOTIFY
Batt 1 & 2 Switches - OFF
176
Q

144 MEMORY ITEM

ENGINE ABNORMAL START

A

MEMORY ITEM
ENGINE ABNORMAL START:

Start/Stop Knobs - STOP

177
Q

145 MEMORY ITEM

ENGINE FIRE, SEVERE DAMAGE OR SEPARATION

A

MEMORY ITEM
ENGINE FIRE, SEVERE DAMAGE OR SEPARATION:

AFFECTED ENGINE ONLY:!
Thrust Levers - IDLE
Start/Stop Knob - STOP
Shutoff Button - PUSH IN

WAIT 30SECONDS AND IF FIRE PERSISTS:
Bottle Switch - DISCHARGE

178
Q

152 MEMORY ITEM

INADVERTENT PUSHER ACTUATION

A

MEMORY ITEM
INADVERTENT PUSHER ACTUATION:

Quick Disconnect Button - PRESS
Pusher Cutout Button - PUSH IN

179
Q

146 MEMORY ITEM

CABIN ALTITUDE HI

A

MEMORY ITEM
CABIN ALTITUDE HI:

Oxygen Masks - DON, 100%
Communication - ESTABLISH
Signs/outlet Switch - PED-BELTS/OFF

Altitude - MESA OR 10,000FT WHICHEVER IS HIGHER
Thrust Levers - IDLE
Airspeed/FLC - 250KTS
Landing Gear Lever - DOWN
Transponder - 7700
ATC - NOTIFY
180
Q

147 MEMORY ITEM

ELEC XFR FAIL

A

MEMORY ITEM
ELEC XFR FAIL

Elec Emer Button - PUSH IN

181
Q

148 MEMORY ITEM

E1 (E2) FIRE

A

MEMORY ITEM
E1 (E2) FIRE:

AFFECTED ENGINE ONLY:!
Thrust Levers - IDLE
Start/Stop Knob - STOP
Shutoff Button - PUSH IN

ON GROUND OR IF FIRE PERSISTS AFTER 30SECONDS
Bottle Switch - DISCHARGE

182
Q

149 MEMORY ITEM

TAKEOFF WITH ENGINE FAILURE AT OR ABOVE V1

A

MEMORY ITEM
TAKEOFF WITH ENGINE FAILURE AT OR ABOVE V1:

FLAPS @ 1 OR 2 WITH NO ICE NO ICE NO ICE NO ICE
FLAP 1 = PITCH 9.5 / FLAP 2 = PITCH 9
Pos Rate of Climb - LDG LEVER UP
Airspeed - V2

FLAPS @ 1 OR 2 WITH ICE ICE ICE ICE ICE
FLAP 1 = PITCH 6 / FLAP 2 = PITCH 5.5
Pos Rate of Climb - LDG LEVER UP
Airspeed - V2

183
Q

150 MEMORY ITEM

REJECTED TAKEOFF (AT OR BELOW V1)

A 
MEMORY ITEM
REJECTED TAKEOFF (AT OR BELOW V1):

Thrust Levers - IDLE

184
Q

151 MEMORY ITEM

GEAR LEVER CAN NOT BE MOVED UP &
LG WOW SYS FAIL

A

MEMORY ITEM
GEAR LEVER CAN NOT BE MOVED UP

IF ASSOCIATED WITH ENGINE FAILURE AND OBSTACLE CLEARANCE, SIMULTANEOUSLY

DN LCK REL Button - PRESS
LDG Gear Lever - UP

185
Q

How do you check the beacon light?

A

Start stop Knob - Run

Fuel pump - OFF

186
Q

How do you get heat to the ADS when on the ground?

POH 6-11-10

A

ADS/AOA knob set to Auto and one electrical generator is on the BUS

Or

ADS knob to On (lower heat output)

187
Q

How many fuel sensors?

A

(8) - 4 in each wing

188
Q

P100

When does the electric fuel pump come on?

A

Engine Start

Loss of motive flow

189
Q

P100

Front Baggage Door (open) airspeed

A

160KT

190
Q

If you use the Back Up Pitch Trim mode, can you engage/use the autopilot?

A

No

QRH 7-7

191
Q

When does the landing gear aural warning come on?

A

< 700 agl
< 160kt
TL below 23* and the opposite TL is below 35* (two engines operative)

POH 6-12-15

192
Q

If you forget to set a destination LFE, what is the failsafe altitude the cabin will be pressurized too upon landing?

A

8000

193
Q

What is the meaning if an MEL is marked with an “M”

A

Maintenance procedures must be followed before beginning operation with the listed item of equipment inop

194
Q

How does the engine TTO probe work?

A

Electrically powered

“On” when ENG ICE on 10* / ground or 15* / air

195
Q

How would you know if a JetSuite aircraft be dispatched with only one VHF com radio

A

Review the MEL…

Per the MEL on page 31…. 23-1-12 two radios are required for IFR operations so the answer would be no

196
Q

118

Can you operate and aircraft within restricted and prohibited areas?

A

YES - But in both cases! permission is required prior to entering the airspace and is obtained from the controlling agency

197
Q

124

What can you do to avoid RWAY incursions?

A 
Review/Plan taxi route with PM prior to taxi
UP with your head all the time
NOTAMS
Checklists Complete where possible
Safe taxi on
197
Q

176

What manuals are required to be on board?

A

AFM

Garmin Manual

199
Q

25

VHF 1 com inop - can you be dispatched?

A

CHECK MEL - No….. Need all radios as we are IFR

MEL system/seq #23

200
Q

When does the electric fuel pump come on?

A

Engine Start

Loss of motive flow

201
Q

How do you get heat to the ADS when on the ground?

POH 6-11-10

A

ADS/AOA knob set to Auto and one electrical generator is on the BUS

202
Q

What is the meaning if an MEL is marked with an “O”

A

Operational procedure which must me followed before or during operation of the aircraft with the listed item of equipment inop

Phenom 100 Study Guide 2015 recurrent (9 decks)

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