P100/300 - Recurrent Questions Flashcards
1
Q
P100
Max Ramp Weight
Max Takeoff Weight
Max Landing Weight
Max Zero Fuel Weight
A
CAE JS
Max Ramp Weight 10516 10626
Max Takeoff Weight 10472 10582
Max Landing Weight 9776 9886
Max Zero Fuel Weight 8775 8885
2
Q
What is the purpose of the MEL?
A
Allows for the aircraft to be dispatched with certain equipment (MEL) to be inop.
3
Q
What does it mean if an item is not listed on the MEL
A
The item MUST be functional for dispatch
4
Q
Per the JetSuite MEL Can we dispatch with a SWPS fail CAS message
A
NO!
5
Q
IESI inop - Can you be dispatched?
A
CHECK MEL - Yes…. Note the restrictions in the MEL….
MEL system/seq #34
6
Q
P100
Where is the data required to operate the Phenom 100 within RVSM airspace found?
A
AFM Supplemental 1
7
Q
When in RVSM airspace what equipment MUST be operating and in proper working condition?
hint: TAAR
A
T = Transponder A = Auto Pilot A = Altitude hold & alerter R = RVSM Compliant Air Data Systems x2
AFM supplemental 1/S1-00/pg 2
8
Q
In the event of any RVSM equipment failure prior to entering RVSM airspace what should the pilot do?
A
Request a new clearance
9
Q
While in preflight/inflight what is the MAX allowable differences between the primary altimeters if RVSM airspace is to be used?
A
75ft on ground!
200ft in the air within RVSM
10
Q
Can the IESI be used for RVSM operations?
A
No
11
Q
The flight data recorder will record how many hours of DATA and how many hours of voice data?
A
Data @ 25hours
Voice @ 2hours
12
Q
Inflight with battery power only, which electrical busses are powered after following the QRH Electrical EMER procedure?
A
Hot Battery Bus X2
Emer Bus
Central Bus
13
Q
When connecting external power to the aircraft do you need an operational battery?
A
YES - The aircraft should always be powered up via battery prior to bringing on any external power
PTM 4-7
14
Q
How much time do you have when using the batteries as the sole source of power upon following the QRH procedures?
A
45mins
15
Q
P100
What is the MAIN power generating system composed of?
A
2 x 24VDC, 27ah lead acid batteries
2 x engine driven 250A stater generators
1 x GPU
16
Q
What is the purpose of the Quiet Start Contactor?
A
Allows the start of the second engine without a surge of power to the avionics
17
Q
How do you turn the static inverter off?
A
1 - Cockpit Switch
2 - Inverter shuts down 2-15 secs after a short circuit condition
3 - input voltage less than required (22 +/- 1.5 VDC)
PTM 4-24
18
Q
What does the GPU supply power to?
A
The Central bus
19
Q
What causes an electrical emergency?
A
A loss of both generators
20
Q
What is the function of the fuel vent tank?
A
keeps the fuel pressure differential between the tanks and the atmosphere within structural limits
21
Q
P100
What provides in-flight wing balancing of the fuel load?
A
Gravity flow through and interconnecting transfer valve
22
Q
What is normally used to supply fuel from the wing to the engine fuel control unit in flight?
A
Ejector Pumps
23
Q
P100
When is the electric fuel boost pump used?
A
1 - Engine Start
2- Backup when the primary ejector pump fails
24
Q
What does the EICAS “HYD HI TEMP” mean?
A
Hydraulic Fluid or Hydraulic Pump has overheated…. and the motor has been shut down automatically.
25
What does the EICAS "HYD LO PRESS" mean?
EMER Breaking must be used and note that there is only 6 applications
26
P100
With the hydraulic pump selector knob in auto how is the pump activated?
System logic will activate the electric pump in accordance with pressure demand
27
P100
What protection is provided against over pressurization of the hydraulic system?
Pressure relief valve installed in the manifold.
Max pressure 3250 PSI
PTM 10-6
28
P100
What pressurizes the hydraulic system?
28 VDC Electric motor pump that normally gets power from the central bus
Pump on Central bus
Motor on DC Bus 2
29
P100
How would you check the hydraulic system for proper hydraulic fluid quantity?
visually checking the fluid level indicator in the right front nose area and making sure that it is in the full range AFTER depressurizing the system
30
What heats the engine nacelle air intake?
Engine bleed air
31
What is the default setting of the engine anti ice (EAI) system if electrical power is no longer available to it?
Defaults to "OPEN" which ensures the EAI system provides continuous hot bleed air to the engine inlet.
32
P100
What is the wing/stab de-ice systems operating cycle?
SOIR - Stabs/Outboard/Inboard/Rest. Cycle - 666 then rest for 42
PTM 11-8
33
With an engine failure in icing conditions, which antice/deice systems will be affected?
ENG anti-ice and the windshield heat
34
P100
What does the ice and rain protection systems include?
ABREW
```
Windshield Heating System
Air Data Heating System
Boots
Engine Bleed Air
Rain repellant Coating
```
35
What happens if the wheel speed input fails?
Anti Skid is disabled
36
When does the anti skid protection drop out?
10kts
37
BRK FAIL CAS appears - do you have brakes?
Yes - EMER BRK... separate system! but remember that there are only 6 applications and no anti skid
38
What is the primary input to the Air/Ground System?
WOW... (Weight on wheels) proximity switch
39
P100
How is the landing gear held down in the landing position?
```
MG = Mechanical Locking System
NG = Over Center Locking Stay
```
40
Hydraulic System off - how many applications do you have with the EMER/Parking break system?
6
41
P100
What holds the landing gear in the up position?
Hydraulic pressure
42
What input is required by the crew prior to departure for the pressurization system to operated automatically?
LFE - The L in NAVFLOW
43
What is indicated by a CAB ALTITUDE HI message?
Cabin pressure is equalt to or higher than 10000ft.
44
What regulates the bleed air pressure coming from each engine?
PRSOV - Pressure Regulating and Shutoff valve
45
When do the PAX masks auto deploy?
CAB alt @ 14700 (+-300) but note that the control switch needs to be in PAX AUTO
46
What Happens when the dump button is pushed?
The outflow valve is opened / recirculation fans closed.
Press Switch auto = 12000ft
Press Switch man = 14500ft
47
Describe bleed air flow from the PRSOV to cockpit/cabin.
Air from the PRSOV splits, half to the TMV/Half to heat exchanger then to TMV - they are mixed together and then sent to the cockpit/cabin
PTM 2-3, AFM 6-02-15
48
What is the purpose of the ground cooling fan on the grnd with bleed air on?
Provides airflow over the air conditioning system condenser coil and the heat exchanger
49
What is used to cool the heat exchanger?
Inflight - RAM air
| Ground - Ground Cooling Fan
50
How is RAM Air used in the aircraft?
RAM Air used to decrease bleed air temp in the heat exchanger
RAM Air used to supply fresh air to CKPIT/CBIN in specific cases.
PTM 2-7
51
When can air be supplied to the CPIT/CBIN from the RAM Air ventilation system?
Loss of bleed air from both engines or in ground ops
52
P100
When can the VCS be operated?
SFC/410 - When on the SFC the VCS can not be ran off the BATS
53
How is the temp of the air to the cabin controlled?
TMV - Temp Modulating Valves mix cool air from the heat exchangers with hot bleed air based upon the temp selection on the CPIT control panel
PTM 2-10
54
How many refrigerant circuits are in the Vapor Cycle Air conditioning system?
(2)
1 - CPIT
1 - CBIN
55
P100
When can the VCS (Vapor Cycle system) be operated on the grnd?
With a GPU or both engines running.
56
What enables Automatic Thrust Reserve (ATR)?
Selecting ATR via the soft keys on the MFD
Difference of 20% N1 between both engines
Loss of communication between both engines
One engine failure on take off
POH 6-05-30
57
P100
What is the indication of an impending blockage of an oil filter?
A mechanical popup impending bypass indicator on the oil filter
58
How does the dual channel ignition system operate during engine start?
The ignition channel used during start automatically switches after each start.
59
When the temp is below 0c what should be noted about the dual channel ignition system?
Both channels are used if temp is below 0c
60
Pushing the fire system ENG1/2 SHUTOFF switch does what?
The specific engine will have its Fuel Shutoff Valve and PRSOV closed and the fire bottle will arm
61
Upon completing the Engine Fire procedure and firing the bottle and you still have an illuminated Engine Shutoff switch - what would that mean?
There is still an overheat/fire within the engine
62
Start/Stop KNOB is inadvertently moved to STOP and the TLA is NOT at idle - what would happen?
FADEC disregards the stop selection and the engine will NOT shut down
63
Under normal conditions what is the color that the engine digits and pointers be?
Green
64
What indicates system integrity when testing the fire protection system?
6 Warnings -
1- AURA Warning "FIRE FIRE"
2 - RED Light in the shutoff button
2- FIRE message in the ITT
1 - ENG 1/2 FIRE CAS msg
65
What are the trims that are only commanded by the trim actuation system through the trim panel on the central pedestal?
Aileron and Rudder
| Elevator trim commanded by the NML trim switch
66
What is indicated by a yellow flap readout?
Flap system is inop but position information is available
67
Describe the pitch trim system.
Two redundant modes of operation
1= Normal (Left motor)
2= Backup (right motor)
68
What is indicated by a "NO TAKEOFF, TRIM" aural warning?
Warning sounds when there is a takeoff intent with the pitch trim surfaces not properly configured for takeoff
69
What mitigates spontaneous or commanded movement of any trim surface beyond its safe limits?
Trim Actuator imposes a 3sec authority limit to every trim command
70
When using the pitch trim control on the yoke what warnings do you have to insure not over/under trimming by accident
```
3seconds = TRIM
4seconds = TRIM
7seconds = LOCKOUT and can only be reset by powering down.
```
71
G1000
Where are the TO/Landing V speeds entered and displayed?
Timer Refs window and displayed on the PFDs
72
How is the PFD/MFD backlighting controlled with the CPIT panel dimmer in OFF position?
Photocell technology automatically adjusts the backlighting for ambient lighting conditions
73
What is the source of the 28volt DC power to illuminate the standby compass?
EMER Bus
74
What is the indication on the IESI of no availability of the magnetic heading information coming from the AHRS1?
The IESI does not display magnetic heading information which is replaced by a red cross
75
Describe the magenta airspeed trend vector.
6sec indication of where the airspeed will be
76
SLIP/SKID indicator is found where
beneath roll pointer
77
Describe each MFD/PFD screen/display if one should fail
PFD1 fails = MFD Revisionary PFD2 normal
MFD fails = PFD1/2 Revisionary
PFD2 fails = PFD1 normal MFD Normal
PTM 1-7
78
What are "annunciated procedures"
Procedures related to CAS messages
79
What must be done to place the flight director to the right side
Push the CPL button
80
How is the map pointer activated
By pressing the joystick
81
What must always be accomplished before entering data into the FMS?
Selection curser must be turned on
82
What is the function of the joystick?
Changes map range when rotated and activates the map pointer
83
How many GPS receivers does the Phenom 100 have?
Two, one in each GIA
84
What indication is there if the left/right altimeter settings differ?
The readout will be yellow if the two meters are .03 or more off
85
When in TO or GA mode what must be true for ALT Pre-selected mode to arm?
The preselected ALT must be greater than or equal to 400ft from the TO or GA ALT
86
Flying an approach coupled to the AutoPilot... Pressing the TOGA button as you begin the missed approach will have what effect on the flight director and AutoPilot.
FD Commands Wings Level and Pitch up according to flap level
AutoPilot will disengage
Missed Approach will sequence
NAV source will change to GPS
87
When do the TO Vspeed flags auto turn off?
Airspeed @ 160KTS
88
How many flight directors are in the system and how many can be active at one time?
Two FD, One active.
89
During what approach condition will the FD NOT level at a preselected altitude?
Captured/coupled GS/GP
90
When Vertical Speed (VS) mode selected, what is the initial vertical speed reference?
The current airplane vertical speed to the nearest 100fpm
91
How does the CDI indicate NAV source?
GPS = Magenta
Green = VOR/LOC
Double Green = VOR/LOC-2
92
On the NAV frequency window, what color is the active NAV frequency selected for navigation?
Green
93
What is indicated if the alphanumeric NAV source indication in the CDI is yellow?
Both sides have the same NAV source
94
The Phenom’s primary NAV source is what?
GPS
95
Describe the selection BRG1 Pointer.
Pressing the BRG1 soft key once will bring up the light blue single line pointer in the HSI with the associated information window displayed to the lower left of the HSI. NAV source will be NAV1,
Pressing it once more will make it NAV source GPS
Pressing it again will get rid of the pointer and info window
96
Embraers RECOMMENDED Wind Shear escape procedure.
TLs = MAX PWR
AP = Disengage
Pitch = 15degrees/airspeed just above stall
Configuration = Maintain
CLR of terrain = GEAR/FLAPS up, TL CON/CLB
97
What is the best solution when operating in areas of reported wind shear?
AVOID AVOID AVOID
98
ILS critical Area - when protected can it be crossed?
Not with out permission from ATC
| Weather less than 800/2
99
When is the ILS critical area not protected?
800/2
| 800ft ceiling and 2miles of visibility
100
Can you use the area "PRIOR" to a displaced threshold for landing/taxi/takeoff?
NO/YES/YES
101
During the rollout on the runway, the white "runway center lights" start to alternate RED/WHITE and then all the lights are RED - what are the distances available?
```
RED/WHITE = 3000 feet
RED = 1000 feet
```
102
Taxiway enhanced center lines extend out approx how many feet prior to a runway holding position marker?
100-150feet
103
What is the primary method for the pilot to ensure the aircraft is clear/clean of any substance?
Visual/Tactile inspection
104
When is the pre-takeoff contamination check accomplished?
5mins prior to departure
105
P100
Below what temp should the batteries be removed to prevent cold soaking?
-18c (0f) or below
106
During a cold start engines remain idle until oil temp reaches what operating temp?
14c
107
Min approach speed in icing conditions?
Vref +5 till RWAY threshold
108
The VASI visual glide path provides safe obstruction clearance upto how many nautical miles from the RWAY threshold?
4NM +/- 10deg from the centerline
109
On the main door how many latches/lock indications will you find?
8 Latch Indications
| 2 Lock Indications
110
P100
What are the load factor limits?
How many Neg Gs can be pulled and why?
What are the load factor limits -
Flaps 1/2/3/F = 2Gs
Flaps 0 = 3.27Gs
How many Neg Gs can be pulled
None - may disrupt fuel flow and cause flameout
111
What prevents the exits from being opened during flight?
Each door is fitted with a vent flap which in turn is connected to the door handles... As the pressure builds the latch/door handles become increasingly difficult to open.
PTM 1-27, POH 06-01-45
112
P100
Operational Limits:
Takeoff
```
TL @ 5mins
Max ITT @ 830
N2 @ 100.4
N1 @ 100
OIL PRES @ 170
OIL TEMP @ 14-130
```
113
P100
Operational Limits:
Max Continuous/Climb
```
TL @ NA (Although not for continued use)
Max ITT @ 830
N2 @ 100.4
N1 @ 100
OIL PRES @ 170
OIL TEMP @ 14-130
```
114
P100
Operational Limits:
Starting
```
TL @ NA
Max ITT @ 830 but may be exceeded upto 5secs (892/950depending on pre/post mod)
N2 @ NA
N1 @ NA
OIL PRES 0-270
OIL TEMP @ -40
```
115
P100
Operational Limits:
Transient 1 and 2
```
TRANS 1
TL @ 20secs
Max ITT @ 830
N2 @ 102
N1 @ 101
OIL PRES @ May be exceeded unto 250psig during 500secs....
OIL TEMP @ NA
```
```
TRANS 2
TL @ 90secs
Max ITT @ NA
N2 @ NA
N1 @ NA
OIL PRES @ May be exceeded unto 250psig during 500secs
OIL TEMP @ 130-141
```
116
Hot / Hung starts are caused by what?
Hot Starts
1 - There has been too much fuel introduced too soon
2 - A tail wind
Hung Starts
1 - Engine hangs below the starter cutoff speed (44% N2 - PTM 5-17)
2 - Hot day / High altitude
117
What are the requirements for a 600 600 600 take off?
HIRL and CL (High Intensity Runway Lights AND Center Line lights)
2 RVR reports
Crew has to be qualified
Aircraft has to have perf to make climb
118
If you had to return to the airport how would you reset the LFE?
Manually or the system logic will reset to Takeoff Field Elevation with the following parameters..
Within 10mins of departure
Max Altitude achieved is 6000 feet or less
Aircraft has descended 1000 from the max ALT achieved
119
P100
In the event of an NO auto relight what will you do?
XList!!
20/20 rule @ 20000 feet and 200kts window
QRH NAP 1-14 Engine in-flight start
120
In the event you lost a FADEC would you lose an engine?
No - loss of power to Fadec results in both channels automatically reverted to the PMA (permanent magnet alternator)
121
How many electrical BUSs' does the Phenom have?
Name them.
(7)
```
Hot battery Bus 1/2
DC Bus 1/2
Central Bus
Emer Bus
Shed Bus
```
122
Name some items on the EMER bus.
hint: FAAPPS
```
Fadec
AHRS1
PFD1
Audio1
PTrim
SWPS
```
123
P100
Fuel cannot be transferred from one wing to another when fuel quantity reaches:
Single engine condition -
Dual engine condition -
PTM 9-16
Single Engine - 308lb
Dual engine - 363lb
124
P100
Max tire pressure - nose and main
POH 5-40
Nose: 117psi
Main: 176psi
125
What are the Single Pilot Limitations?
Oxygen used at all times above 340
Autopilot
Headset w/ boom mic
Occupy left seat
126
What protection does Fadec provide for engine starting in the ground?
Hung start
Hot start
No light-off
127
P100
How many Fuel injectors?
14
128
P100
What is the RTO (rejected takeoff) cooling time?
50 min
129
How many quarts of oil does the engine hold?
4 qts
130
P100
Max oil consumption
.068 liters/hr measured over 10 hours
131
P100
What must happen for the hydraulic ground cooling fan to work?
Nose gear down and locked
One engine running
Power from the DC Bus 2
POH 6-10-10
132
What happens when you move the landing gear handle to the down position?
BCU runs a bit test to test the integrity of the system and parts
133
What are some brake system functions?
hint: TAILS
```
Locked wheel protection
Anti skid
Touchdown protection
Spin brake
Integrated Bit test
```
134
What is locked wheel protection?
Prevents main landing wheel from bursting due to locked wheel
Dropout speed is 30Kt allowing differential braking for steering
135
What happens when a wheel is locked up for more than 3 seconds?
ANTISKID FAIL CAS message appears and antiskid function for that wheel is disabled.
136
What is Spin Brake protection?
Stops the rotation of the main landing gear after takeoff within 4.5 seconds after gear retraction is initiated.
137
What is antiskid protection?
Prevents tire from skidding
Below 10kt, antiskid is deactivated
138
What is Touchdown protection?
Prevents touchdown with main landing gear brakes applied.
Protection is deactivated on a single wheel when speed is >35kt or 5 seconds after WOW has sensed the ground.
139
How many fuel pumps are in each fuel tank?
Name them.
3
Ejector pump
Scavenge ejector pump
Electric fuel boost pump
140
What is the purpose of the MEL
Aircraft can be operated under specific conditions with equipment that is inoperative
141
SWPS fail - can you be dispatched?
CHECK MEL - No.... Not listed in MEL
142
"O" means what with respect to the MEL?
A operational procedure must be followed before or during the operation of the aircraft with the listed item of equipment inop
143
"M" means what with respect to the MEL?
A maintenance procedure must be followed before beginning operation of the aircraft with the listed item of equipment inop
144
If the MEL does not address a piece of equipment what does that mean?
It is not an item that is MELable.
That item has to be working for dispatch
145
P100
At what min altitude can the AP/YD be used
Min APYD engagement with 2 engines @ 500feet
Min APYD engagement with 1 engine @ 1000feet
Min use height @ 195feet
Max alt loss (man/cruise) 54ft
146
P100
```
Vlo
Vle
Vo
Vmo/Mmo
Vmc ----- TO
Vmc ----- Land Ice
Vmc ----- Land No Ice
```
```
Vlo 180/250kts - note that 250 requires MX review
Vle 275kts
Vo 186
Vmo/Mmo 275/.70
Vmc -TO 97kts
Vmc - Land Ice 97kts
Vmc - Land NIce 86kts
```
147
P100
When MUST the Yaw Damp be engaged
At/above 25000 feet
| At/above IAS 250 kts
148
P100
Max Tire Speed
139kts
149
P100
```
Max Baggage Loading
FWD
Wardrobe
LAV
AFT
```
```
Max Baggage Loading
FWD 66lbs
Wardrobe 66lbs
LAV 33lbs
AFT 353lbs
```
Total =518lbs
150
P100
When must the fuel TXF button be pushed out
When must the fuel TXF button be pushed out
TO/Land/Turb/Maneuvers
151
P100
Max Gen Load on Ground/Air
Max Gen Load on Ground is 250 and 300 in air but below FL340
152
P100
```
Max Fuel Capacity
Max useable fuel per tank
Max fuel imbalance
Max Fuel Temp on ground/air
Min Fuel Temp
```
```
Max Fuel Capacity 2850lbs
Max useable fuel per tank (1425-22unusable) 1403lbs
Max fuel imbalance 220lbs
Max Fuel Temp on ground/air +52/+80
Min Fuel Temp -37
```
153
```
Starter Limits
1
2
3
4
```
```
Starter Limits
1 - 60 sec
2 - 60sec
3 - 15min
4 - 30min
```
After the limitations are done you wait an additional 30mins before trying again
154
When must the hydraulic system be checked
| When must the stall warning protection system be checked
When must the hydraulic system be checked
Every 15days or prior to the next flight, whichever came last
When must the stall warning protection system be checked
Prior to every flight
155
When should the engine anti-ice be turned on
When should all other anti ice and de ice equipment be turned on
VIZ Moisture
Engine Ice @ 10c and below
WSHLD 1/2 and Wingstab @ 5c and below
SAT on GRND and TAT in air
156
P100
When using the VCS system on the ground what MUST be used
Grnd - GPU or Both generators operating
157
P100
Min temp for wing stab use
-40c
158
P100
Max Altitudes/Speeds for Flap extensions
Max Alt Flaps can be extended
Max Speed Flaps can be extended 1/2/3/F
Max Altitudes/Speeds for Flap extensions
Max Alt Flaps can be extended
YD operable = 15000feet
YD InOperable = 12000feet
```
Max Speed Flaps can be extended 1/2/3/F
1 @ 180kts
2 @ 160kts
3 @ 160kts
F @ 145kts
```
159
Max Tail Wind TO/Land
Max Runway Slope
Runway SFC Required
Max Tail Wind TO/Land 10kts
Max Runway Slope +/- 2%
Runway SFC Required is PAVED
160
Minimum Battery Voltage required for Engine Start
| Minimum GPU Voltage for battery charging
Minimum Battery Voltage required for Engine Start
24volts
Minimum GPU Voltage for battery charging
27volts
161
P100
Max Service Ceiling
41000 feet (FL410)
162
P100
Operational Limits:
Maximum
```
TL @ 10mins
Max ITT @ 845
N2 @ 100.4
N1 @ 100
OIL PRES @ NA
OIL TEMP @ NA
```
163
MANEUVERS
Steep Turns
Clean Configuration Steep Turn
1 - Set PWR to maintain 180kts = N1 @ 68-72%
2 - Flaps / Gear UP
3 - Roll into a 45`
4 - Trim / Pitch / Power as RQD to maintain Speed +/10 / Altitude +/100ft / Heading +/1-`
164
MANEUVERS
Landing Configuration Stall
```
1 - Wings Level
2 - Gear Down
3 - Flaps 3 or full
4 - Power set @ 45% N1
5 - Trim to 120kts and maintain altitude
6 - Recover at first indication of a stall
```
```
Wings Level
Reduce Pitch attitude 2.5-7.5`
Thrust Levers as required
Flaps set 1 or 2 (to be moved only two notches
Accelerate to a safe speed
Initiate recovery
Positive Rate - Gear Up
Recover to a safe altitude
Retract flaps on schedule (Vac + 20 Min)
```
165
MANEUVERS
Clean Configuration Stall
```
1 - Wings Level
2 - Autopilot ON
3 - Gear Up
4 - Flaps Up
5 - Power Set @ 45% N1
6 - Recover at first indication of a stall
```
```
Autopilot - disengage
Wings Level
Reduce Pitch attitude 2.5-7.5`
Thrust levers as required
Accelerate to a safe speed
Initiate recovery
Recover to safe altitude
```
166
MANEUVERS
Takeoff Configuration Stall
```
1 - Wings level
2 - Gear up
3 - Flaps 1
4 - Power Set @ 45% N1
5 - Establish a 20` angle of bank
6 - Trim to 120kts and maintain altitude
7 - Recover at first indication of a stall...
```
```
Wings Level
Reduce pitch attitude 2.5-7.5`
Thrust Levers as required
Accelerate to a safe speed
Initiate recovery
Recover to safe altitude
Retract Flaps on schedule (V2+11 Min)
```
167
P100
Min airspeed in ice conditions
160kts
168
MANEUVERS
Take off with engine failure @ or above V1
1 - Maintain directional control
2 - Pitch to 9.5` (flaps 1 no ice/ with ice 6` or Flaps 2 @ 9/5.5)
3 - Positive Rate - GEAR UP
4 - Maintain V2 + TO RSV indication.
5 - 500AFE - confirm lateral mode
6 - 1000AFE - AP Engaged / FLC VFS / Flaps Up
7 - 1500AFE - CON/CLB / Applicable and After TO XLIST
169
MANEUVERS
V1 Cut Procedure
V1 Cut Procedure-
```
Thrust Levers - TOGA
Vr - ROTATE to 9.5 (Follow FD)
PROC - Gear up / FLC V2 / Verify TO RSV
500feet - Check Lateral Mode
1000feet - AP / Vfs / Flaps0
1500feet - CONCLB / ATO XLIST / EMER XLIST
```
170
MANEUVERS
GO Around/Missed Approach
Missed Approach/Go Around-
```
TTFG!!!
Thrust Lever to TOGA / TOGA button push
Flaps 1
PROC - Gear Up
FLC - Vac
Engage Lateral Mode
1000ft - AP engage / FLC 160 / Flaps 0
ATO Xlist
```
171
139 MEMORY ITEM
SMOKE FIRE FUMES
MEMORY ITEM
SMOKE FIRE FUMES:
```
Oxygen Mask - DON, EMER & 100% AFTER 2MINS
Dilution Valve - CLOSED
Smoke Goggles - DON
Communication - ESTABLISH
Dump Button - PUSH IN
```
172
140 MEMORY ITEM
SMOKE EVACUATION
MEMORY ITEM
SMOKE EVACUATION:
```
Oxygen Mask - DON, EMER & 100% AFTER 2MINS
Dilution Valve - CLOSED
Smoke Goggles - DON
Communication - ESTABLISH
Oxygen Knob - CREW ONLY
Dump Button - PUSH IN
Bleed Knob - OFF VENT
```
173
141 MEMORY ITEM
DUAL ENGINE FAILURE
MEMORY ITEM
DUAL ENGINE FAILURE:
Thrust Levers - IDLW
Oxygen Masks - DON, 100%
Communication - ESTABLISH
174
142 MEMORY ITEM
EMERGENCY DESCENT
MEMORY ITEM
EMERGENCY DESCENT:
```
Signs Outlet Switch - PED-BELTS/OFF
Altitude - MESA OR 10,000FT WHICHEVER IS HIGHER
Thrust Levers - IDLE
Airspeed/FLC - 250KTS
Landing Gear Lever - DOWN
Transponder - 7700
ATC - NOTIFY
```
175
143 MEMORY ITEM
EMERGENCY EVACUATION
MEMORY ITEM
EMERGENCY EVACUATION:
```
Thrust levers - IDLE
Emer/Park Brake - ON
Start/Stop Knobs - STOP
Shutoff 1&2 - PUSH IN
Presn Mode Switch - MAN
Dump Button - PUSH IN
ATC - NOTIFY
Batt 1 & 2 Switches - OFF
```
176
144 MEMORY ITEM
ENGINE ABNORMAL START
MEMORY ITEM
ENGINE ABNORMAL START:
Start/Stop Knobs - STOP
177
145 MEMORY ITEM
ENGINE FIRE, SEVERE DAMAGE OR SEPARATION
MEMORY ITEM
ENGINE FIRE, SEVERE DAMAGE OR SEPARATION:
AFFECTED ENGINE ONLY:!
Thrust Levers - IDLE
Start/Stop Knob - STOP
Shutoff Button - PUSH IN
WAIT 30SECONDS AND IF FIRE PERSISTS:
Bottle Switch - DISCHARGE
178
152 MEMORY ITEM
INADVERTENT PUSHER ACTUATION
MEMORY ITEM
INADVERTENT PUSHER ACTUATION:
Quick Disconnect Button - PRESS
Pusher Cutout Button - PUSH IN
179
146 MEMORY ITEM
CABIN ALTITUDE HI
MEMORY ITEM
CABIN ALTITUDE HI:
Oxygen Masks - DON, 100%
Communication - ESTABLISH
Signs/outlet Switch - PED-BELTS/OFF
```
Altitude - MESA OR 10,000FT WHICHEVER IS HIGHER
Thrust Levers - IDLE
Airspeed/FLC - 250KTS
Landing Gear Lever - DOWN
Transponder - 7700
ATC - NOTIFY
```
180
147 MEMORY ITEM
ELEC XFR FAIL
MEMORY ITEM
ELEC XFR FAIL
Elec Emer Button - PUSH IN
181
148 MEMORY ITEM
E1 (E2) FIRE
MEMORY ITEM
E1 (E2) FIRE:
AFFECTED ENGINE ONLY:!
Thrust Levers - IDLE
Start/Stop Knob - STOP
Shutoff Button - PUSH IN
ON GROUND OR IF FIRE PERSISTS AFTER 30SECONDS
Bottle Switch - DISCHARGE
182
149 MEMORY ITEM
TAKEOFF WITH ENGINE FAILURE AT OR ABOVE V1
MEMORY ITEM
TAKEOFF WITH ENGINE FAILURE AT OR ABOVE V1:
FLAPS @ 1 OR 2 WITH NO ICE NO ICE NO ICE NO ICE
FLAP 1 = PITCH 9.5` / FLAP 2 = PITCH 9`
Pos Rate of Climb - LDG LEVER UP
Airspeed - V2
FLAPS @ 1 OR 2 WITH ICE ICE ICE ICE ICE
FLAP 1 = PITCH 6` / FLAP 2 = PITCH 5.5`
Pos Rate of Climb - LDG LEVER UP
Airspeed - V2
183
150 MEMORY ITEM
REJECTED TAKEOFF (AT OR BELOW V1)
```
MEMORY ITEM
REJECTED TAKEOFF (AT OR BELOW V1):
```
Thrust Levers - IDLE
184
151 MEMORY ITEM
GEAR LEVER CAN NOT BE MOVED UP &
LG WOW SYS FAIL
MEMORY ITEM
GEAR LEVER CAN NOT BE MOVED UP
IF ASSOCIATED WITH ENGINE FAILURE AND OBSTACLE CLEARANCE, SIMULTANEOUSLY
DN LCK REL Button - PRESS
LDG Gear Lever - UP
185
How do you check the beacon light?
Start stop Knob - Run
| Fuel pump - OFF
186
How do you get heat to the ADS when on the ground?
POH 6-11-10
ADS/AOA knob set to Auto and one electrical generator is on the BUS
Or
ADS knob to On (lower heat output)
187
How many fuel sensors?
(8) - 4 in each wing
188
P100
When does the electric fuel pump come on?
Engine Start
| Loss of motive flow
189
P100
Front Baggage Door (open) airspeed
160KT
190
If you use the Back Up Pitch Trim mode, can you engage/use the autopilot?
No
QRH 7-7
191
When does the landing gear aural warning come on?
< 700 agl
< 160kt
TL below 23* and the opposite TL is below 35* (two engines operative)
POH 6-12-15
192
If you forget to set a destination LFE, what is the failsafe altitude the cabin will be pressurized too upon landing?
8000
193
What is the meaning if an MEL is marked with an "M"
Maintenance procedures must be followed before beginning operation with the listed item of equipment inop
194
How does the engine TTO probe work?
Electrically powered
| "On" when ENG ICE on 10* / ground or 15* / air
195
How would you know if a JetSuite aircraft be dispatched with only one VHF com radio
Review the MEL...
| Per the MEL on page 31.... 23-1-12 two radios are required for IFR operations so the answer would be no
196
118
Can you operate and aircraft within restricted and prohibited areas?
YES - But in both cases! permission is required prior to entering the airspace and is obtained from the controlling agency
197
124
What can you do to avoid RWAY incursions?
```
Review/Plan taxi route with PM prior to taxi
UP with your head all the time
NOTAMS
Checklists Complete where possible
Safe taxi on
```
197
176
What manuals are required to be on board?
AFM
| Garmin Manual
199
25
VHF 1 com inop - can you be dispatched?
CHECK MEL - No..... Need all radios as we are IFR
MEL system/seq #23
200
When does the electric fuel pump come on?
Engine Start
| Loss of motive flow
201
How do you get heat to the ADS when on the ground?
POH 6-11-10
ADS/AOA knob set to Auto and one electrical generator is on the BUS
202
What is the meaning if an MEL is marked with an "O"
Operational procedure which must me followed before or during operation of the aircraft with the listed item of equipment inop
