Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

EPs And limits > P2 > Flashcards

P2 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the types of drag?

A
  1. Parasite = Non-lifting portions of helicopter.
  2. Profile = Friction of rotor blades through air.
  3. Induced = Production of lift; high angles of attack produce more.
  4. Total Drag = Sum of all drag.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What occurs during airflow in a hover – In Ground Effect (IGE)?

A

Increased efficiency within 1 rotor disk. Reduced rotor-tip vortices caused by horizontal airflow buildup. Reduced drag allows more lift with less power.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What happens during airflow in a hover – Out of Ground Effect (OGE)?

A

Requires more power due to increased induced flow. Higher AOA needed to produce lift, resulting in more drag on the blade.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is dissymmetry of lift?

A

Difference in lift between advancing and retreating blades. Compensated by blade flapping and cyclic feathering.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the blade flapping effect?

A

• Advancing Blade: Flaps up (reduced AOA).
• Retreating Blade: Flaps down (increased AOA).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the translating tendency in helicopters?

A

Tail rotor thrust causes helicopter to drift right. Countered by left cyclic input.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the transverse flow effect?

A

Occurs at 10–20 knots:
• Front disk = more lift.
• Rear disk = descending airflow = less lift.
Causes right rolling motion; corrected by left cyclic.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

When does effective translational lift (ETL) occur?

A

Occurs at 16–24 knots. Rotor blades outrun vortices, entering clean air. Improved efficiency and performance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the conditions for settling with power?

A
  1. Vertical descent >300 ft/min.
  2. Low airspeed (<ETL).
  3. 20–100% power applied.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What conditions are conducive to settling with power?

A

• Steep approach.
• Downwind approach.
• Hover above max ceiling.
• OGE hover, low altitude control.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is dynamic rollover?

A

Lateral rolling when pivot point prevents motion. Causes a rolling motion if critical angle is exceeded.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the causes of dynamic rollover?

A
  1. Human Factors (inattention).
  2. Inexperience.
  3. Inappropriate control inputs.
  4. Loss of visual reference.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the IIMC procedures?

A
  1. Announce – “I am IIMC.”
  2. Attitude – Level wings.
  3. Heading – Maintain/turn only to avoid obstacles.
  4. Torque – Adjust for climb.
  5. Trim – Maintain.
  6. Airspeed – Adjust as necessary.
  7. Altitude – Adjust to VFR altitude.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What does AR 95-1 state about lights?

A

Anti-collision lights must be used unless conditions prevent safety.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the deviations allowed under AR 95-1?

A

Individuals may deviate from AR 95-1 during emergencies.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the currency requirement for flying?

A

Must fly once every 60 days to maintain currency.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the fuel requirements for VFR and IFR?

A

• VFR: 20 min reserve fuel.
• IFR: 30 min reserve fuel.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Weather (WX) - Icing

A

No flight into known or forecast severe icing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Weather (WX) - Turbulence

A

• No flight into known or forecast extreme turbulence.
• No flight into known severe turbulence.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Weight & Balance (365-4) – PC Responsibilities

A
  1. Completed form is onboard aircraft.
  2. Accuracy of computations (signature).
  3. Weight & CG remain within allowable limits throughout the flight.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Weight & Balance – Class 2 Aircraft

A

• Aircraft where weight/CG limits can be exceeded by loading.
• Records must be reviewed at least every 12 months.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Weight & Balance – When to Weigh

A

• Overhaul / Major Repair.
• Modifications >1% of basic weight.
• Every 12 months (Class 1) or 24 months (Class 2).

23
Q

WX Brief

A

• Info from a U.S. Military weather facility.
• Valid for 1 hr 30 min from forecast time.

24
Q

ALSE (P-1)

A
  1. Survival Radio (CSEL).
  2. ID tags.
  3. Approved flight helmet.
  4. Flight suit.
  5. Boots.
  6. Gloves.
25
Q

Oxygen Requirements

A

• Above 10,000 ft PA = 1 hr.
• Above 12,000 ft PA = 30 min.
• Above 14,000 ft PA = Continuous.
• Above 18,000 ft PA = Pre-breathe 30 min prior.

26
Q

Stress Types

A
  1. Psychosocial – Job, Illness, Family.
  2. Environmental – Altitude, Speed, Cold, Aircraft Design.
  3. Physiological – Drugs, Self-Medication, Exhaustion.
27
Q

Cognitive Stress

A

Failure to focus on here and now. Includes:
• Musts/Shoulds.
• Responsibility of Choice.

28
Q

Fatigue (P-2)

A
  1. Acute – 2 sleep periods cured by rest.
  2. Chronic – Successive acute cycles (weeks to recover).
  3. Motivational Exhaustion – Burnout.
29
Q

Hypoxia (P-2) – Definition

A

Insufficient oxygen in the body. Don’t self-medicate above 10,000 ft PA.

30
Q

Types of Hypoxia

A
  1. Hypoxic – Not enough O2 in air (altitude).
  2. Hypemic – Blood can’t carry O2 (CO poisoning).
  3. Histotoxic – Tissue can’t use O2 (cyanide/drugs).
  4. Stagnant – Poor circulation (high Gs).
31
Q

Stages of Hypoxia

A
  1. Indifferent (0–10,000’).
  2. Compensatory (10,000–15,000’).
  3. Disturbance (15,000–20,000’).
  4. Critical (>20,000’).
32
Q

Spatial Disorientation (P-2)

A

Pilot’s erroneous perception of position, attitude, or motion.

33
Q

Types of Spatial Disorientation

A
  1. Type 1 – Unrecognized (most dangerous).
  2. Type 2 – Recognized (SD is realized).
  3. Type 3 – Incapacitating (loss of control).
34
Q

Systems Affecting Spatial Disorientation

A
  1. Visual – Most important.
  2. Vestibular – Semicircular canals detect angular acceleration.
  3. Somatosensory – Joint/muscle pressure.
  4. Auditory – Balance and motion cues.
35
Q

Visual Illusions

A
  1. Vection – Induced motion illusion.
  2. False Horizon.
  3. Confusion – Ground lights.
  4. Height Perception.
  5. Crater Illusion.
  6. Fascination – Task fixation.
  7. Autokinesis – Light appears to move.
36
Q

Somatogravic Illusions

A

Caused by acceleration/deceleration:
1. G-Excess Illusion – Feels like climbing when nose is down.
2. Elevator Illusion – Upward thrust makes nose pitch down.

37
Q

Coriolis Illusion

A

Most dangerous; head movement during turn can cause tumbling sensation.

38
Q

Fuel Requirements

A

• VFR: 20-minute reserve.
• IFR: 30-minute reserve.

39
Q

What is the altitude range for Class A airspace?

A

From 18,000 feet MSL up to and including FL600, including airspace overlying waters within 12 nautical miles of the U.S. coastline. Operations in Class A airspace require IFR clearance.

40
Q

What defines Class B airspace?

A

Class B airspace extends from the surface to 10,000 feet MSL surrounding major airports, with individually tailored boundaries resembling an inverted wedding cake. Operations require ATC clearance.

41
Q

What is the altitude range and configuration for Class C airspace?

A

From the surface to 4,000 feet above airport elevation (MSL) with a core area of a 5 NM radius and an outer area of a 10 NM radius extending 1,200–4,000 feet above airport elevation. Two-way radio communication with ATC is required.

42
Q

What distinguishes Class D airspace?

A

Class D airspace extends from the surface to 2,500 feet above the airport elevation (MSL), surrounding airports with an operational control tower. Two-way radio communication with ATC is required.

43
Q

What is Class G airspace?

A

Class G is uncontrolled airspace not classified as A, B, C, or D. It does not require ATC clearance or communication.

44
Q

What is prohibited airspace, and why is it established?

A

Prohibited areas restrict all flight activity for reasons of national security or other significant concerns. Examples include sensitive government installations.

45
Q

What is the difference between restricted areas and warning areas?

A

Restricted areas limit access due to hazardous activities (e.g., artillery, firing, aerial gunnery), while warning areas denote hazards to non-participating aircraft, often over international waters.

46
Q

What is a Military Operations Area (MOA)?

A

MOAs separate certain military training activities from IFR traffic. Nonparticipating IFR traffic may transit MOAs if cleared by ATC.

47
Q

How long should a pilot wait to fly after donating blood?

A

72 hours if donating 200cc or more; consult a flight surgeon.

48
Q

What is the recommended wait time after scuba diving before flying?

A

24 hours to avoid decompression sickness.

49
Q

What are the wait times for flying after using anesthesia?

A

Local anesthesia requires a 12-hour wait; consult medical guidance for others.

50
Q

What are common exogenous factors that could affect flight performance?

A

Fatigue, hypoxia, stress, medication effects, and middle ear discomfort during altitude changes.

51
Q

What is the “Post-Roll (Gillingham) Illusion”?

A

A misperception where a pilot incorrectly senses bank recovery after a roll, leading to overcorrection.

52
Q

How can a pilot prevent spatial disorientation?

A

Trust instruments, avoid flying in poor visibility without training, and perform frequent cross-checks.

53
Q

What is the recommended treatment for spatial disorientation?

A

Transfer controls to another pilot if possible, and rely on instruments to reorient.

EPs And limits (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions