Ovine Flashcards

1
Q

Which bacteria causes impetigo?

A

Staph aureus

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2
Q

Dermatophilosis is a major predisposing factor for which other environmental skin disease?

A

Myiasis

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3
Q

The fleshy granulomas seen on the feet, ‘strawberry foot rot’ with dermatophilosis are thought to be a co-infection with what?

A

Orf (contagious viral pustular dermatitis)

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4
Q

Is it easy to culture dermatophilus congolensis?

A

No - difficult

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5
Q

What causes ‘black leg’?

A

Clostridium chauvoei

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6
Q

‘Big head’ in rams is caused by what?

A

Clostridium novyi - cellulitis

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7
Q

Name two bacteria commonly involved in abscesses?

A
Truperella pyogenes
Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis
Serratia marcescens
Burkholderia cepacia
Actinobacillus lignieresi (wooden tongue in cattle)
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8
Q

What is the most common dermatophyte found in sheep?

A

T. verrucosum

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9
Q

Which dermatophyte predominantly affects wooled areas?

A

M. Canis

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10
Q

Chorioptes ovis typically affects wooled or non-wooled areas?

A

Non-wooled; lower hind legs and scrotum in particular.

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11
Q

Is Chorioptic mange pruritic?

A

Yes, usually intensely

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12
Q

What causes sheep scab?

A

Psoroptes ovis

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13
Q

Psoroptes cuniculi can affect which body site?

A

Ears

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14
Q

Intense pruritus with psoroptic mange can provoke which neurological sign?

A

Seizures

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15
Q

What is a reliable method to detect otoacariasis in sheep?

A

Flushing the ear canal and examining the fluid - mites are found near the tympanic membrane.

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16
Q

Name a mallophaga and anoplura louse?

A

Mallophage - Damalina (Bovicola) ovis

Anoplura - Linognathus ovillis and pedalis

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17
Q

Is pediculosis pruritic?

A

Yes - usually marked

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18
Q

Wohlfahrtia magnificia is what type of fly and which body sites does it cause myiasis on?

A

Sarcophagid (flesh fly) - vulva and prepuce

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19
Q

What are the signs of demodicosis in sheep?

A

Asymptomatic papules and nodules on the face, chin and pinnae or widespread with thick, caseous white material

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20
Q

Do sheep get harvest mites?

A

Yes - rarely

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21
Q

What causes keds?

A

Melophagus ovinus

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22
Q

Do sheep get fleas?

A

Yes - uncommonly - C. felis strongylus, C. felis felis and Pulex irritans (human flea)

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23
Q

Which form of parapoxvirus (orf) is seen especially in rams?

A

‘Papillomatous form’ with large, persistent, proliferative and even pedunculated lesions

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24
Q

What are the morbidity and mortality rates of parapoxvirus (orf) infection in lambs?

A

Near 100% morbidity, 1% mortality (can be up to 20%)

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25
Q

Name two differentials for parapoxvirus (orf) infection in sheep?

A
Dermatophilosis
Staph folliculitis
Capripoxvirus
Ulcerative dermatosis
Zinc-responsive dermatosis
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26
Q

Where would you find the eosinophilic inclusion bodies caused by parapoxvirus (orf) infection?

A

In the cytoplasm of epithelial keratinocytes

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27
Q

With capripoxvirus infection in lambs, do cutaneous lesions precede systemic signs?

A

No, cutaneous lesions typically follow initial pyrexia, depression, anorexia, rhinitis and conjunctivitis

The benign form in adults can present with skin lesions only

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28
Q

Orbivirus causes which disease and is transmitted by which vectors?

A

Bluetongue and it is transmitted by Culicoides spp. (gnats)

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29
Q

What are the cutaneous signs of orbivirus infection?

A

Oedema, erythema of the face, feet and less often anus and vulva. Dark red to purple band in the skin just above the coronet can be classical. Oral mucosa hyperaemia and oedema with occasional cyanosis of the tongue.

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30
Q

Name two differentials for Bluetongue?

A
Foot and mouth
Capripoxvirus
Contagious viral pustular dermatitis 
Pestes de petits ruminants
Rinderpest
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31
Q

What are the first signs of aphthovirus infection in sheep?

A
  1. Lameness, fever, depression and inappetence
  2. Feet become hot and painful
  3. Vesicles and bullae appear and form ulcers in the mouth, on the legs and nostrils
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32
Q

Can aphthovirus be zoonotic?

A

Yes, rarely reported

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33
Q

Which virus causes ‘hairy shakers’?

A

Pestivirus (Border disease)

34
Q

Which virus causes peste des petits ruminants?

A

Morbillivirus

35
Q

What causes ulcerative dermatosis?

A

An unclassified poxvirus

36
Q

At what age is suspected insect-bite allergy reported to occur in sheep?

A

2-5 years old

37
Q

Has lymphadenomegaly been reported with presumptive atopy in sheep?

A

Yes - eosinophilia was seen on lymph node aspirates

38
Q

In most sheep, cutaneous asthenia is an autosomal recessive trait and associated with a deficiency in the activity of which enzyme?

A

Procollagen peptidase

39
Q

In cutaneous asthenia in sheep, can wound healing be delayed?

A

Yes

40
Q

Name two breeds of sheep in which epidermolysis bullosa has been reported

A

Suffolk
Scottish B|ackface
German Black-headed Mutton
Assaf

41
Q

At what age do lesions of epidermolysis bullosa become apparent in sheep?

A

At birth or shortly after

42
Q
At what level do:
first degree
second degree
third degree
burns cause lesions?
A

First degree - superficial epidermis
Second degree - entire epidermis
Third degree - entire epidermis, dermis and appendages

43
Q

A rapid, painful, oedematous swelling of the face and pinnae with erythema followed by vesicles and bullae, ulceration, crusts, scaling, alopecia and a yellowish transudate is seen in which disease?

A

Photodermatitis

44
Q

Name three plants that can cause primary photosensitisation in sheep.

A
St. Jonh's wort
Buckwheat
Bishop's weed
Dutchman's breeches
Wild carrot and spring parsley
Perennial rye grass
Alfalfa silage
Burr trefoil
Cooperia pedunculate
45
Q

Name thee of the five groups of causes of hepatogenous photosensitisation in sheep.

A

Plants - ragwort, tarweed, mould alfalfa hay, burning bush/fire weed, hairy caltrop, millet
Fungi - pithomyces, anacystis, periconia, phomopsis
Infections - hepatitis, dicrocoeliosis, liver abscess, rift valley fever
Neoplasia - lymphoma, hepatic carcinoma
Chemicals - copper, phosphorus, carbon tetrachloride, phenanthridium

46
Q

Which bacteria are most commonly associated with ‘fleece rot’?

A

Pseudomonas spp.

47
Q

Excessive scaling, nasal discharge, lacrimation and coughing is seen with excessive levels of which mineral in feed?

A

Iodine

48
Q

What are the differential diagnoses for zinc-responsive dermatosis in sheep?

A

Dermatophytosis
Dermatophilosis
Staph folliculitis
Sarcoptic mange (if pruritic)

49
Q

Loss of wool crimp is seen with which mineral deficiency in sheep?

A

Copper

50
Q

Which drugs have reportedly caused anagen defluxion in sheep?

A

Glucocorticoids
Cyclophosphamide
Epidermal growth factor

51
Q

What is seen on histopathology with anagen defluxion?

A

Apoptosis of wool matrix keratinocytes with or without dysplastic wool follicles

52
Q

In young sheep, at which body site do filiform squamous papillomas occur?

A

Fetlock area of the lower legs

53
Q

Which type of papilloma in sheep can transform to squamous cell carcinomas and where do they occur?

A

Fibropapillomas - occur on the face, pinnae, legs and teats of adult sheep

54
Q

Which breed of sheep may be at higher risk of developing squamous cell carcinomas?

A

Merino

55
Q

Which agents are the most frequent cause of zygomycosis in sheep?

A

Conidiobolus coronatus
Conidiobolus incongruus
Conidiobolus lamprauges

56
Q

What is the typical presentation of zygomycosis in sheep?

A
Rhinofacial granulomas (extension of rhinopharyngeal inflammation) 
Advanced cases show alopecia and necrosis of nasal skin
57
Q

What are the predisposing factors for fleece rot in sheep?

A
Months of high rainfall 
Young age
Increased wool length
Less compact fleece
Low wax content and high suint (natural greasy substance) content of fleece
58
Q

Ovine acral dermatitis syndrome, a suppurative ulcerative (granulomatous) dermatitis, is associated with which bacteria?

A

Associated with Streptococcus dysgalactiae (and Arcanobacterium pyogenes)

59
Q

An ELISA with a sensitivity of 93% and speciicity of 90% for Psoroptes ovis in sheep uses which antigen?

A

Pso o 2

60
Q

Which body sites are typically affected by Staph. dermatitis in sheep?

A

Woolless areas e.g. periocular, base of the horn and pinnal areas, muzzle

61
Q

Contagious ovine digital dermatitis presents as an initially proliferative or ulcerative lesion at the coronary band and progresses to separation and eventual avulsion of the hoof. Which bacteria are associated with CODD?

A

Treponema

62
Q

Which bacteria are involved in ovine foot rot and how are they diagnosed?

A
  • Dichelobacter nodosus
  • Fusobacterium necrophorum

PCR because D.nodosus is time-consuming to culture

63
Q

What are the initial clinical signs of ovine foot rot?

A

Erythema, alopecia/hypotrichosis, moisture retention in the interdigital spaces

64
Q

Has a condition resembling scalded skin syndrome been reported in sheep and goats?

A

Yes - S. aureus

65
Q

Which type/breeds of sheep are more susceptible to dermatophilosis?

A

Fine woolled breeds e.g. Suffolk, Romney

Affects woolled and haired skin

66
Q

Fleece rot associated with Pseudomonas aeruginosa can be what colour?

A

Green (pyocyanin pigment)

67
Q

Name two risk factors for dermatophilosis in sheep?

A
  1. Shearing - removes the vast majority of the protective fleece and lanolin; causes microtrauma
  2. Prolonged wetting - maceration and disruption of the stratum corneum, emulsification of the lanolin layer and disruption of wool follicle structure
68
Q

Where are dermatophilosis lesions typically found on sheep?

A

Face, ears, dorsum and limbs

Can be severely painful!

69
Q

How do you treat dermatophilosis in sheep?

A

By providing pain relief to the affected animals, administration of systemic antimicrobial agents (procaine penicillin), and preventing further wetting of the fleece or damage to the skin

70
Q

Caseous lymphadenitis (CLA) is primarily an infection
of the lymphatic system which usually manifests as a
swelling beneath the skin at the site of a superficial
lymph node. What causes it?

A

Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis

71
Q

How do you diagnose Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis (differentiate it from other causes of abscesses)?

A

Culture

72
Q

What are the clinical signs of parapoxvirus (orf) infection in sheep?

A
  • Papules, vesicles and pustules that become umbilicated and thickly crusted.
  • Often painful
  • Non-woolled areas primarily affected.
  • In lambs, the lips, muzzle, nostrils, eyelids, and pinnae are most commonly affected
73
Q

What are the differentials for parapoxvirus (orf) infection?

A

Dermatophilosis, staphylococcal folliculitis, Capripoxvirus infection, ulcerative dermatosis, and zinc‐responsive dermatitis

74
Q

Is there a treatment for orf (parapoxvirus)?

A

No - spontaneously resolves in ~8 weeks

75
Q

Is there a vaccine for orf (parapoxvirus)?

A

Yes - live vaccine used for scarification of the inner thigh in lambs and the axillary region in ewes. The timing of vaccination is approximately 6 weeks before the anticipated occurrence of disease.

76
Q

What are the key clinical signs of bluetongue (orbivirus) in sheep?

A
  • High rectal temperature
  • Eye and nasal discharges
  • Drooling as a result of ulcerations in the mouth
  • Swelling of the mouth, head and neck
  • Lameness with inflammation at the junction of the skin and the coronary band
  • Difficulty breathing
  • Abortion
77
Q

How long can orf (parapoxvirus) survive in the environment?

A

Up to 17 years!

78
Q

How do you treat zygomycosis in sheep?

A

Iodides, but high mortality

79
Q

JEB in German black head mutton sheep is associated with which gene mutation?

A

LAMC2

80
Q

JEB in Churra sheep is associated with which gene mutation?

A

ITGB4