Bovine Flashcards

1
Q

Where are lesions most commonly seen with impetigo?

A

On the udder (especially the base of the teats and intramammary sulcus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is an uncommon complication of impetigo?

A

Staphylococcal mastitis and furunculosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which bacteria causes impetigo?

A

Staphylococcus aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which bacteria cause folliculitis/furunculosis?

A

Staph aureus or more rarely hyicus

S. hyicus has been associated with concurrent psoroptic mange in some cattle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What clinical signs are seen with Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis infection?

A

Suppurative to pyogranulomatous, single or multiple abscesses with serosanguinous to purulent discharge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Is Dermatophilus congolensis zoonotic?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which bacteria commonly causes ‘lumpy jaw’?

A

Actinomyces bovis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is a differential for Actinomycosis for pyogranulomatous nodular lesions with sulfur granules?

A

Actinobacillosis (A. lignieresii)

Actinomycosis can cause osteomyelitis and bony swellings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Clostridial cellulitis can cause death in what time frame?

A

12-72 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which clostridial species causes ‘blackleg’?

A

C. chauvoei

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Farcy, M. senegalense infection, is found in which parts of the world?

A

Africa, Asia, South America

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Fusobacterium necrophorum causes which disease?

A

Necrobacillosis - ‘foot rot’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What causes bacterial pseudomycetoma (botryomycosis)?

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Where are lesions most commonly found with digital dermatitis?

A

Plantar foot, immediately proximal to the heel bulbs (80% of lesions)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which bacteria is suspected to be the cause of digital dermatitis?

A

Treponema spp.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the most common cause of dermatophytosis in cattle?

A

Trichophyton verrucosum

Trichophyton mentagrophytes less commonly, T. benhamiae rarely (reported with T. verrucosum)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which fungus, that causes abortion, can cause yellow or brown plaques on the aborted foetus?

A

Aspergillosus spp., Mucor spp., Pseudoallescheria spp.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which species cause chorioptic mange?

A

Chorioptes bovis and less commonly texanus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which is typically more pruritic, chorioptic or psoroptic mange?

A

Psoroptic mange is intensely pruritic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which anatomic sites does sarcoptic mange typically affect?

A

Face, pinnae, neck, shoulders and rump.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the primary lesions of demodicosis?

A

Papules and nodules (hair coat and overlying skin surface are usually normal)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which biting louse affects cattle?

A

Damalinia (Bovicola) bovis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which sucking lice affecting cattle?

A
Haematopinus eurysternus (short-nosed sucking louse)
Linognathus vituli  (long-nosed sucking louse) 
Solenopotes capillatus (little blue cattle louse)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Stephanofilaria are transmitted by which intermediate host?

A

Flies - Haematobia and Musca

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Which species of ear mite affects cattle?
Raillietia auris
26
Which fly causes 'warbles'?
Hypoderma bovis and lineatum
27
What is the most common infectious cause of teat lesions?
Pseudocowpox - Parapoxvirus bovis-2 (zoonotic!)
28
What lesion is pathognomonic for pseudocowpox?
'ring' or 'horseshow' lesion after crust falls off
29
What disease does Parapoxvirus bovis-1 cause?
Papular stomatitis - papillomatous macules and papules on the muzzle, nostrils and lips and papular/plaque like lesions in the oral cavity (zoonotic!)
30
What causes malignant catarrhal fever?
Ovine herpesvirus-2 (alcelaphine herpesvirus-1 in wildebeest) Sheep (and wildebeest) are the natural reservoirs
31
What are the clinical signs of malignant catarrhal fever?
- Fever, nasal discharge, anorexia, depression - Photophobia and excessive lacrimation - Conjunctivitis and panophthalmitis - Necrotic, cracked, sloughing skin on the muzzle - Neurological signs - Erythema, necrosis and crusting of skin and occasional sloughing of hooves
32
What causes bovine viral diarrhoea?
Pestivirus - erosions and ulcers of the oral mucosa, tongue and haired skin (ulcers, crusting, scaling, alopecia)
33
What does bovine herpesvirus-1 cause?
Infectious bovine rhinotracheitis - causes 'red nose' (erythema and crusting of the muzzle, fever, respiratory signs)
34
What causes foot and mouth disease?
Aphthovirus
35
What causes 'lumpy skin disease' and what are the clinical signs?
Capripoxvirus - spread by Stomoxys calcitrans (and Aedes aegypti and hard ticks) Papules/nodules that can ulcerate, oedema of the limbs, dewlap, brisket and genitals Yellowish‐white papules and nodules that slough, leaving erosions and ulcers in the nasal and oral mucosae
36
What sign is pathgnomonic for besnoitiosis?
Parasitic cysts (<1mm, shiny, white) in the conjunctivae and genital mucosa
37
What causes Bluetongue and which vector helps spread it?
Orbivirus, Culicoides spp. (causes 'burnt muzzle'; erythema, oedema, crusts, ulceration)
38
Can cattle get Leishmaniosis?
Yes - very rarely (ulcers and plaques on muzzle, legs, ears, udder and thorax)
39
Which breeds is autoallergy to milk more commonly seen in?
Jerseys and Guernseys (type 1 hypersensitivity reaction with urticaria, to their own milk)
40
Which breed of cow has an increased prevalence of alopecia areata?
Eringer cows
41
Has PF been reported in cattle?
Yes - very rarely
42
A mutation in which gene was identified in Simmental cattle with epidermolysis bullosa simplex and what is the inheritance pattern?
Keratin V | Autosomal dominant with incomplete penetrance
43
Most reported cases of bovine epidermolysis bullosa resemeble junctional epidermolysis bullosa and have what mode of inheritance?
Autosomal recessive
44
Which virus can cause congenital hypotrichosis with in utero infection?
Bovine viral diarrhoea
45
What proportion of calves with cutaneous asthenia show delayed wound healing?
~1/3rd
46
Where does cleavage occur with vesicle formation in: Epidermolysis bullosa simplex Junctional epidermolysis bullosa Dystrophic epidermolysis bullosa
EBS - through the stratum basale JEB - through the lamina lucida of the basement membrane DEB - through the superficial dermis
47
Which systemic signs accompany cutaneous signs with hereditary zinc deficiency?
Diarrhoea (sweet, metallic odour) Lethargy/depression Anorexia Increased lacrimation and clear nasal discharge
48
With which form of ichthyosis can calves be born dead or die within a few hours of birth?
Ichthyosis fetalis
49
Which congenital disease causes retarded growth, anaemia, discoloured teeth and urine and photodermatitis?
Erythropoietic porphyria
50
Decreased levels of which enzyme lead to increaesd uroporphyrin I and coproporphyrin I in the blood?
uroporphyrinogen III cosynthetase
51
How does protoporphyria in Limousins and Blonde d'Aquitaine cattle differ from erythropoietic porophyria?
The teeth and urine are normal in colour and it is caused by decreased levels of heme synthetase (ferrochelatase).
52
With erythropoietic porphyria, what can be seen with Wood's lamp examination?
Bright orange to red fluorescence of teeth and urine
53
Dermatohistopathology of porphyria shows subepidermal vesicular dermatitis, festooning and PAS-positive material in _________
Blood vessel walls
54
Name two breeds that Chediak-Higashi syndrome has been reported in.
Herefords Japanese Blacks Grey Brangus
55
Curly coat in Herefords/polled Herefords is a phenotypic marker for which systemic disease?
Cardiomyopathy
56
Which condition is seen in two year old Holsteins with loose folded skin on the head, neck and legs; poor wound healing with no hyperextensibility?
Dermal dysplasia (collagen dysplasia)
57
What causes ergotism?
Claviceps purpurea (fungus) found in contaminated feed
58
What are the signs of ergotism?
Seven days after exposure, hind limb lameness with swelling starting at the coronary band and extending to the fetlocks. Fever, anorexia and decreased milk production. Cold, insensitive and necrotic tissue with sloughing. Affects feet, ears, tail and teats.
59
What causes fescue toxicosis?
The fungus Neotyphodium (Acremonium) coenophialium which infects tall fescue grass
60
Name three plants that can cause primary photosensitisation
``` St. John's wort Buckwheat Bishop's weed Dutchman's breeches Wild carrot and spring parsley Cooperia pedunculate Smartweeds Perennial ryegrass Burr trefoil Alfalfa hay or silage ```
61
Which antibiotics can cause primary photosensitisation?
Sulfonamides and tetracyclines
62
Name two chemicals that can cause hepatogenous photosensitisation
Copper Phosphorus Carbon tetrachloride Phenanthridium
63
Which bacterial disease is associated with hepatogenous photosensitisation?
Leptospirosis
64
What is the mortality rate with hairy vetch toxicosis and what is it caused by?
Up to 50% | Eating vetch plants (Vicia villosa and benghalensis)
65
Which vitamin responsive dermatosis causes alopecia, scaling, erythema, petechiae and ecchymoses in young dairy calves?
Vitamin C responsive dermatosis
66
Which mineral deficiency can cause periocular hair coat fade and loss 'spectacles'?
Copper
67
What type of folliculitis is seen with sterile eosinophilic folliculitis and furunculosis; luminal or mural?
Luminal
68
How quickly after a stressful event does anagen defluxion occur?
7-10 days
69
How quickly after a stressful event does telogen defluxion occur?
1-3 months
70
What are the clinical signs and cause of carotenoderma?
Yellow to orange skin (not sclera) caused by eating too much carrot/squash/sweet potato or dandelions
71
Fibropapillomas that spontaneously regress in 1-12 months are caused by which BPV?
BPV1 and BPV2
72
What type of lesions does BPV3 cause?
Atypical, low, flat circular, non-pedunculated with frond-like projections that can occur anywhere on the body that rarely spontaneously regress
73
Which BPV causes small, white, elongated, hyperkeratotic lesions on the teats that do not spontaneously regress?
BPV5
74
What type of lesion does BPV6 cause?
Non-pedunculated, conical to branch-like papillomas with frond like projections on the teats; they do not spontaneously regress
75
At which anatomical site do squamous cell carcinomas occur most frequently?
The face (eyelids especially), pinnae, back, vulva and distal legs
76
Which is more common, solitary or multiple mast cell tumours?
Multiple in 78%, solitary in 22%
77
Are most cases of cutaneous lymphoma associated with bovine leukaemia virus?
No, most are sporadic - more commonly found with solitary lesions (also have internal disease)
78
What % of melanocytic neoplasms are benign?
80-90%
79
Are melanocytic neoplasms more common in young or old cattle?
Over 50% occur in cattle under 18 months old
80
Which type of neoplasia can brand keratomas transform to?
Squamous cell carcinoma
81
What are the differential diagnoses for frostbite in cattle?
Ergotism, fescue toxicosis, vasculitis and other causes of gangrene e.g. trauma
82
Besnoitia besnoiti transmission in cattle occurs by which routes?
1. Ingestion of oocysts in cat / vole faeces 2. On vegetation 3. Biting arthropods / insects spread bradyzoites
83
Which infectious agent has been associated with TEN in calves?
Mycoplasma bovis
84
What are the typical clinical signs of lumpy skin disease?
Distinctive and numerous raised cutaneous lesions from 0.5 to 5 cm in diameter that develop over 3 to 4 days from macules to papules to nodules. The cutaneous lesions are often accompanied by oral, nasal, and ocular discharge; lethargy; anorexia; and in lactating animals, a rapid drop in milk production. Brisket oedema and superficial lymphadenopathy are also reported.
85
What are the histopathological findings with lumpy skin disease?
More severe and consistent changes were present in the dermis, with marked histiocytic inflammation and necrotizing fibrinoid vasculitis of dermal vessels, particularly the deep dermal plexus. Intercellular and intracellular edema was present in the epidermis of some nodules. Occasional intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies were identified in keratinocytes. Chronic lesions consisted of full-thickness necrosis of the dermis and epidermis.
86
Photosensitisation is light-induced dermatitis caused by heightened sensitivity of the skin to sunlight, and this is generally due to the presence of photodynamic agents or what other agent in the skin?
Chromophores - they absorb light energy transforming into a high-energy state that damages adjacent proteins, nucleic acids, and membranes
87
Which viral disease has been linked to lymphocytic vasculitis in cattle?
Malignant catarrhal fever (ovine herpesvirus-2)
88
What are the histopathological differences between vasculitis caused by lumpy skin disease and malignant catarrhal fever in cattle?
MCF - typically more lymphocytic and lesions may be present in other organs LSD - typically more histiocytic and lesions almost entirely limited to the skin
89
Have fleas been reported in cattle?
Yes - Ctenocephalides felis in calves | Treated with deltamethrin pour-on
90
Sucking lice from a cow, which is Haematopinus eurysternus
Left = short-nosed
91
Sucking lice from a cow, which is Linognathus vituli?
Middle = long nosed
92
Sucking lice from a cow, which is Solenopotes calillatus?
Right = little blue cattle louse
93
Which groups of ectoparasiticides are effective to treat lice in cattle?
Permethrins | Avermectins
94
Which treatments can be used to treat Psoroptes in cattle?
1. Ivermectin inj 2. Doramectin inj and pour-on 3. Moxidectin inj and pour-on Resistance developing - 4% permethrin pour-on product an alternative
95
This distribution of clinical signs is most consistent with which parasite?
Chorioptes
96
What is the life cycle and off host survival time for Chorioptes bovis?
Life cycle 21 days | Off host survival < 21 days
97
What are the life cycle stages of Psoroptes ovis?
Egg - Larva - Protonymph - Tritonymph - Adult
98
A recent survey by Lihou and Wall (2021) estimated the prevalence of lice in sheep and cattle in the UK to be 16%; were beef or dairy herds most affected?
Beef > dairy Larger flock/herd size was a significant associated factor
99
Which breed of cattle are more susceptible to Psoroptes ovis infestation?
Belgian Blue
100
A recent study by Chen et al. (2021) compared clinical signs in Belgian Blue cattle to Holstein-Friesian and found that BB cattle had higher numbers of which cell in the epidermis and dermis compared to HF at 6 weeks post infestation?
Eosinophils
101
A recent study by Chen et al. (2021) compared clinical signs in Belgian Blue cattle to Holstein-Friesian and found that BB showed significantly elevated numbers of which cell at 2 and 6 weeks post infestation but levels in HF were unchanged throughout?
Mast cells
102
A recent study by Chen et al. (2021) compared clinical signs in Belgian Blue cattle to Holstein-Friesian and found that the more pronounced cutaneous eosinophilia and higher IL-4 levels at 6 weeks post infestation in BB cattle suggest which type of immune response?
Th2
103
Hypoderma linaetum larvae migrate to the oesophageal submucosa and Hypoderma bovis to the ___________
Epidural fat
104
Which Staphs are commensals in cattle?
S. aureus and S. hyicus
105
Which is more common in cattle, impetigo or folliculitis?
Impetigo
106
What are the clinical signs of impetigo in cattle?
- Vesicles (occasionally bullae), papules, pustules and crusts
107
Udder dermatitis (different from impetigo) can be associated with which bacteria?
Fusobacterium necrophorum Trueperella (formerly Arcanobacterium) pyogenes Spirochaetes (Treponemes)
108
What type of culture is needed for Actinomyces bovis?
Anaerobic
109
What would see on histopathology of Actinomyces bovis infection (lumpy jaw)?
Nodular to diffuse, suppurative to pyogranulomatous dermatitis and panniculitis. Tissue granules are coated with Splendore-Hoeppli material and contain Gram-positive filaments
110
What causes 'wooden tongue'?
Actinobacillus lignieressi Pyogranulomatous glossitis
111
What type of agar is needed to grow Trueperella pyogenes?
Blood or serum-enriched agar
112
What is the major virulence factor of Trueperella pyogenes? How does it work?
Pyolysin (belongs to the family of cholesterol-dependent cytolysins). Its cytolytic activity is associated with transmembrane pore formation.
113
A particularly strong synergistic interaction occurs between T. pyogenes and which other bacteria?
Fusobacterium necrophorum
114
How do you treat digital dermatitis in cattle?
1. Systemic antibiotics may not be effective (conflicting evidence) 2. Topical antibiotics e.g. oxytetracycline 3. Foot baths e.g. 5% copper sulfate, erythromycin
115
How long does spontaneous resolution of dermatophytosis in cattle take?
4-9 months
116
Which treatments can be used for dermatophytosis in cattle?
- 0.2% enilconazole - Vaccine can be used both for active immunisation to reduce clinical signs of ringworm caused by Trichophyton verrucosum (prophylactic dose) and to shorten the recovery time of infected cattle showing clinical signs of ringworm (therapeutic dose). - Address stress factors e.g. overcrowding - Isolate newly purchased animals
117
Name risk factors for dermatophytosis in calves
- 4-6 months of age - summer and winter - poor hygiene conditions - intensive breeding systems - farming for meat production - parasitic infestation - crossbreeding - newly purchased animals
118
What is the most likely cause of this 'horseshoe' shaped crust on a test?
Pseudocowpox
119
What type of inclusion bodies do you see with pseudocowpox (Parapoxvirus bovis‐2) and papular stomatitis (Parapoxvirus bovis‐1)?
Eosinophilic, intracytoplasmic bodies in keratinocytes
120
What are differentials for papular stomatitis (Parapoxvirus bovis‐1)?
- BVD (Pestivirus) - Bluetongue (Orbivirus) - Malignant catarrhal fever (ovine herpesvirus‐2) - Rinderpest (Morbillivirus) - Vesicular stomatitis (Vesiculovirus) - Foot‐and‐mouth disease (Aphthovirus)
121
Which herpes virus causes mammilitis?
BHV-2
122
What are the clinical signs of herpes mammilitis (BHV-2)?
- Swollen, tender teats - Irregularly shaped vesicles may be seen - Sloughing and ulceration - Red-brown crusting - One or multiple teats affected in milking cows
123
What are the clinical signs of in utero infection with BVD (pestivirus)?
Generalised hypotrichosis that may spare the head, tail, and distal legs
124
What are the clinical signs of genital infectious rhinotracheitis (BVH-1)?
AKA infectious pustular vulvovaginitis and infectious pustular balanoposthitis - Pustules and necrotic white plaques on the vulva, vagina, prepuce, and penis. Lesions are often painful.
125
How is foot and mouth disease (aphthovirus) transmitted?
By aerosol, contact, insect vectors, and fomites | Zoonotic!
126
What are the clinical signs of foot and mouth disease (aphthovirus)?
1. Fever, depression, and inappetence are usually the first signs of infection. 2. As vesicle formations begin, see hypersalivation and nasal discharge and lip smacking 3. Lameness 4. Vesicles and bullae (up to 10cm in diameter) become erosions/ulcers. 5. Lesions are most commonly seen on the muzzle, nostrils, lips, oral mucosa, teats, coronets, interdigital spaces and heels
127
How do you diagnose foot and mouth disease?
1. Virus isolation: Vesicular fluid, epithelial lesions, and heparinized blood. 2. Viral antigen detection. 3. Serology: Clotted blood
128
What are the cutaneous signs of bensoitiosis in cattle?
1. Hair ‘stands on end’, the underlying skin is hot and painful 2. Marked oedema (especially head, legs, udder and scrotum) 3. Skin loses elasticity and as oedema recedes, it becomes thick and folded (elephantiasis), alopecic and hyperkeratotic 4. Skin can become fissured and secondarily infected White parasitic cysts in the conjunctival and genital mucosa are pathognomonic!
129
If Besnoitia besnoitia is introduced to a herd, what % of animals are expected to become infected within 3 years?
10%
130
Is there evidence that besnoitiosis is seasonal?
It occurs preferentially from spring to autumn with maximum clinical expression from June to September
131
What are the signs of acute besnoitiosis in cattle?
1. Acute febrile phase lasts 2 to 10 days - intense multiplication of tachyzoïtes within macrophages, fibroblasts and endothelial cells of blood vessels - associated with photophobias, epiphora, ocular and nasal discharges 2. Enlargement of lymph nodes and oedematous swellings of head, limbs, teat/udder/testes and lower parts of the body. The skin is warm, thickened and painful (reluctant to move).
132
What are differentials for the acute phase of besnoitiosis?
Blue tongue (orbivirus) or with malignant catarrhal fever (ovine herpesvirus‐2)
133
What control measures can be used to minimise spread of besnoitiosis?
1. Serological examination of new animals within a Besnoitia-free herd (ELISA) 2. Rapid and systematic evaluation of individual infection status in case of emergence in a previously free herd in order to cull all seropositive animals as quickly as possible 3. Protection of animals against biting flies No satisfactory treatment!
134
Which parasitic disease has been reported in conjunction with besnoitiosis?
Generalised demodicosis
135
Skin from a cow, what are these lesions?
Besnoitia tissue cysts (up to 300 um)
136
KRT5 mutation (SNP) in Friesian-Jersey cattle is associated with EBS; what is the mode of inheritance?
Autosomal dominant
137
JEB in Belgian Blues is associated with which gene mutation?
LAMA3 (SNP missense) | AR
138
DEB in Höhenvieh/Vorderwald cattle is associated with which gene mutation?
COL7A1 (SNP) - AR
139
JEB in Danish Hereford is associated with which gene mutation?
LAMC2 (deletion)
140
JEB in Charolais is associated with which gene mutation?
ITGB4 (intergrin beta-4) (deletion)
141
Can dermatophytosis cause symmetrical periocular alopecia and scaling in cattle?
Yes