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ORTHOTIC AND PROSTHETIC MOCK EXAMS > Overall Review > Flashcards

Overall Review Flashcards

1
Q

What are the qualifying conditions for Medicare coverage for FO/shoes?

A

-have diabetes
-neuropathy
-pre-ulcerative callusing (or history)
-ulceration (or history)
-compromised circulation
-foot deformity
-ampuation

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2
Q

T/F: scar tissues is as strong as normal tissue

A

-false

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3
Q

What are the fabrication requirements for OTS diabetic FOs?

A

-heated molded to PT’s anatomy 230* or higher
-multidensity with plastazote top cover

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4
Q

what is subtalar neutral?

A

-equal medial/lateral joint space of subtalar joint

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5
Q

What amount of navicular drop is considered excessie?

A

-10+mm

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6
Q

T/F: Patient education is not a requirement of third party payers:

A

-false

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7
Q

When is a spinal fracture considered unstable?

A

-affecting 2 adjacent colums

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8
Q

What is a Jefferson facture?

A

-anterior/posterior arch C1 facture due to flexion trauma

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9
Q

What is a Hangman’s fracture?

A

-bilateral pars interarticularis fracture C2 due to extension trauma

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10
Q

What vertebra is affected by an odontoid fracture?

A

-C2

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11
Q

What is spondylosysis?

A

-stress fracture in the pars interarticularis

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12
Q

What is spondylolisthesis?

A

-anterior slippage of the vertebral body secondary to spondylosis

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13
Q

What is scoliosis?

A

-lateral curvature of the spine >10 degrees with evidence of rotation deformity

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14
Q

When is scoliosis bracing typically indicated?

A

-history of progression
-curves at least 25 degrees
-skeletal immaturity

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15
Q

What is Buerger’s disease?

A

-chronic arterial condition resulting in distal extremity pain and inflammation

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16
Q

What is Raynaud’s sydrome?

A

-excessive vascular sensitivity to cold temperatures, resulting in numbness

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17
Q

Describe a stage 1 ulcer

A

-intact skin with blanchable erythema with signs of impending opening of the skin surface

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18
Q

Describe a stage 2 ulcer

A

-partial thickness loss of skin involving epidermis and dermis

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19
Q

Describe a stage 3 ulcer

A

-full thickness loss of skin extending into subcutaneous tissue

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20
Q

Describe a stage 4 ulcer

A

-full thickness loss extending into muscle, bone, tendon, and/or joint capsule

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21
Q

What is Legg-Calve-Perthes disease?

A

-avascular necrosis of the femoral head/neck

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22
Q

Legg-Calve-Perthes is more common in males or females

A

-males

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23
Q

What is the typical age of onset of Legg-Calve-Perthes disease?

A

-6 years old

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24
Q

What are clinical signs of Legg-Calve-Perthes?

A

-limp
-positive Trendelenberg
-limited abduction ROM
-pain in groin, hip, thigh, or knee

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25
Q

What position should be attained in conservative treatment of Legg-Calve-Perthes?

A

-hip abudction

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26
Q

What is pectus carinatum?

A

-deformity of the sternum/ribs caused by asymmetrical costal growth, which results in an extruding sternum

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27
Q

How is pectus carinatum treated?

A

-pectus brace restricts growth in the excessive direction

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28
Q

What is PFFD?

A

-proximal femoral focal deficiency
-inadequate development of the hip/femur

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29
Q

What are the classes of PFFD?

A

-femoral head present, normal acetabulum
-femoral head present, dysplastic acetabulum
-femoral head absent, dysplastic acetabulum
-femoral head absent, absent acetabulum

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30
Q

T/F: It is considered appropriate medical interaction to palpate the patient without seeking consent?

A

-false

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31
Q

What contractures might be expected from prolonged prone positioning?

A

-ankle PF
-GH extensors, adductors, rotators
-neck rotators
-hip extensors

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32
Q

What contractures might be expected from prolonged side lying positioning?

A

-knee flexors
-hip flexors, adductors, internal rotators
-should adductors, internal rotators

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33
Q

What contractures might be expected from prolonged supine positioning?

A

-ankle PF
-knee flexors
-hip flexors, external rotators
-shoulder extensors, adductors, internal rotators

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34
Q

What contractures might be expected from prolonged sitting positioning?

A

-knee flexors
-hip flexors, adductors, internal rotators
-shoulder extensors, adductors, internal rotators

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35
Q

What are key characteristics of muscular dystrophy?

A

-inherited progressive neuromuscular disorders
-progressive symmetric muscle wasting without neural or sensory deficits

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36
Q

What are the types of muscular dystrophy?

A

-Duchene
-Becker
-Fascioscaphulohumeral
-Limb fridle
-myotonic
-congenital
-oculopharyngeal
-distal
-Emery-Dreifuss

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37
Q

What type is the most common for muscular dystrophy, and what does this type entail?

A

-Duchenne; lack of dystrophin

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38
Q

Duchenne MD primarily affects which gender?

A

-males

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39
Q

What are the clinical signs of Duchenne MD?

A

-onset early childhood
-Gower’s sign
-pseudohypertrophy
-muscle weakness starts proximal
-characteristic posture of hyperlordosis, ankle PF, knee extension, hip flexion

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40
Q

What is the Gowers sign?

A

-standing from floor, using hands to walk up legs

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41
Q

What is Becker MD?

A

-less severe than Duchenne
-partial functionality of dystrophin

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42
Q

What are the clinical signs of Becker MD?

A

-onset late childhood/adolescence
-muslce weakness starts proximal

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43
Q

What is myotonic MD?

A

-most common adult form
-onset from early childhood to adult hood
-inability to relax muscles at will
-distal muscles affected

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44
Q

What are the clinical signs of myotonic MD?

A

-prolonged muscle spasms
-cardiac abnormalities

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45
Q

What is limb girdle MD?

A

-onset childhood to adulthood
-proximal weakness of shoulder and hip muscles

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46
Q

What are the clinical signs of limb girdle MD?

A

-waddling gait
-cardiac issues

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47
Q

What is fascioscapulohumeral MD?

A

-adolescent onset
-muscles of face, shoulders, and upper arms most affected

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48
Q

What is Emery-Dreifuss MD?

A

onset by age 10
-slow progressive
-early onset contractures in elbows, neck, heels
-weakness of shoulders, upper arms, calf muscles
-conduction block cardiac issues

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49
Q

What is congenital MD?

A

-onset at birth
-global hypotonia

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50
Q

What is distal MD?

A

-distal muscles affected
-onset childhood to adulthood

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51
Q

What is oculopharyngeal MD?

A

-onset 40s-50s
-facial muscles affected, sometimes affecting ability to swallow

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52
Q

What is spinal muscular atrophy?

A

-hereditary disease affecting functional of motor neurons (voluntary)
-early to late onset, age at onset indicative of severity

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53
Q

What is Cerebral palsy?

A

-non-progressive brain disorders present at or before birth
-periventricular leukomalacia: damage to white matter
-intracranial hemorrhage brain bleeding
-hypoxic-ischemic encephalopathy: lack of oxygen to brain
-cerebral dysgenesis: malformation of brain

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54
Q

what are the types of CP?

A

-spastic
-athetoid/dyskinetic
-ataxic

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55
Q

Where can CP manifest in the extremities?

A

-monoplegia
-hemiplegia
-paraplegia/diplegia
-quadriplegia

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56
Q

What is monoplegia?

A

-affecting a single limb

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57
Q

What is hemiplegia?

A

-affecting ipsilateral limbs

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58
Q

What is paraplegia/diplegia?

A

-affecting bilateral limbs

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59
Q

What is quadriplegia?

A

-affecting 4 limbs

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60
Q

What are signs of spastic CP?

A

-hypertonicity
-contracture development
-hyperactive deep tendon reflex
-difficulty with fine motor movement

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61
Q

What characteristic gait pattern is seen with spastic CP?

A

-scissor gait

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62
Q

What are signs of athetoid/dyskinetic CP?

A

involuntary movements of limbs and face
-symptoms absent in sleeps

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63
Q

What are signs of ataxic CP?

A

-disturbed coordination
-lack of equilibrium

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64
Q

What is spina bifida?

A

-neural tube defect caused in first 6 weeks due to insufficient folic acid
-permanent, non-progressive spinal cord dysfunction

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65
Q

What are the types of spina bifida?

A

-occulta
-meningocele
-myelomeningocele

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66
Q

What is spina bifida occulta?

A

-bony deformity
-possible hair patch at level of occurrence

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67
Q

What is meningocele?

A

-posterior malformation resulting in skin sac
-CSF in sac only, not affecting cord and meninges

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68
Q

What deformities are associated with spina bifida?

A

-clubfoot
-scoliosis
-hydrocephalus
-Chiari malformation

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69
Q

What orthotic intervention and typical functional activity would be expected for spina bifida at level <T10?

A

-standing equipment; supported sitting

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70
Q

What orthotic intervention and typical functional activity would be expected for spina bifida at level T12?

A

-HKAFO; slide board transfers, good sitting balance, independent wheelchair mobility

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71
Q

What orthotic intervention and typical functional activity would be expected for spina bifida at level L1-2?

A

-HKAFO, KAFO, RGO; house hold ambulation

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72
Q

What orthotic intervention and typical functional activity would be expected for spina bifida at level L3-4?

A

-KAFO, floor reaction AFO; household ambulation, limited community ambulation

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73
Q

What orthotic intervention and typical functional activity would be expected for spina bifida at level L5?

A

-KAFO, floor reaction AFO; community ambulation

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74
Q

What orthotic intervention and typical functional activity would be expected for spina bifida at level >S1?

A

-usually none; community ambulation

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75
Q

What are characteristics of upper motor neuron lesions?

A

-weakness without atrophy
-increased tone
-increased reflexes

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76
Q

What are characteristics of lower motor neuron lesions?

A

-weakness with atrophy
-decreased tone
-decreased reflexes

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77
Q

What is the typical pattern of functionality returned in a CVA?

A

-LE first, then UE, then hand
-tone before voluntary
-proximal before distal

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78
Q

When does the majority of motor recovery take place following CVA?

A

-3 months

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79
Q

What is a complete SCI?

A

-total loss of sensory/motor below level
-loss of bowel/bladder

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80
Q

What is an incomplete SCI?

A

-partial loss of sensory and/or motor below level
-intact bowel/bladder

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81
Q

How is SCI level determined?

A

-the inferior-most point with intact function

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82
Q

What spinal level must be intact to maintain independent breathing?

A

-C3

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83
Q

What is the C1/C2 myotome?

A

-neck flexion/extension

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84
Q

What is the C3 myotome?

A

-neck lateral flexion

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85
Q

What is the C4 myotome?

A

-shoulder shrug

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86
Q

What is the C5 myotome?

A

-shoulder abduction

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87
Q

What is the C6 myotome?

A

-elbow flexion/wrist extension

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88
Q

What is the C7 myotome?

A

-elbow extension/wrist flexion

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89
Q

What is C8 myotome?

A

-finger flexion/thumb extension

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90
Q

What is T1 myotome?

A

-finger abduction

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91
Q

What is the L2 mytome?

A

-hip flexion

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92
Q

What is the L3 mytome?

A

-knee extension

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93
Q

What is the L4 myotome?

A

-ankle dorsiflexion

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94
Q

What is the L5 myotome?

A

-toe extension

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95
Q

What is the S1 myotome?

A

-Ankle plantarflexion

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96
Q

What spinal level is responsible for neck flexion/extension?

A

-C1-2

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97
Q

What spinal level is responsible for neck lateral flexion?

A

-C3

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98
Q

What spinal level is responsible for shoulder shrug?

A

-C4

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99
Q

What spinal level is responsible for shoulder abduction?

A

-C5

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100
Q

What spinal level is responsible for elbow flexion/wrist extension?

A

-C6

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101
Q

What spinal level is responsible for elbow extension/wrist flexion?

A

-C7

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102
Q

What spinal level is responsible for finger flexion/thumb extension?

A

-C8

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103
Q

What spinal level is responsible for finger abduction?

A

-T1

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104
Q

What spinal level is responsible for hip flexion

A

-L2

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105
Q

What spinal level is responsible for knee extension?

A

-L3

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106
Q

What spinal level is responsible for ankle dorsiflexion?

A

-L4

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107
Q

What spinal level is responsible for toe extensinon?

A

-L5

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108
Q

What spinal level is responsible for ankle plantarflexion?

A

-S1

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109
Q

What are the clinical signs of ALS?

A

-UMN affected, resulting spasticity
-extensors of UE and flexors LE affected
-LMN affected, resulting in asymmetric distal-proximal weakness
-aggressively progressive

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110
Q

What is multiple sclerosis?

A

-pathology wherein damage to myelin sheath results in slower, weaker transmission of nerve signals
-sclerotic plaques from in brain and spinal cord

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111
Q

What are the types of MS?

A

-clinically isolated
-relapsing-remitting
-secondary progressive
-primary progressive
-progressive-relapsing

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112
Q

What is transverse myelitis?

A

-inflammation of the spinal cord resulting in changes in nerve signals below affected level

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113
Q

What causes transverse myelitis?

A

-autoimmune
-viral infection
-bacterial infection
-fungal infection
-parasitic infection
-idiopathic

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114
Q

What is poliomyelitis?

A

-viral infection which causes typically asymmetrical nerve injury and resultant paralysis

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115
Q

What is post polio syndrome?

A

-overwork syndrome of motor neurons which were recruited to compensate for loss of function during initial viral infection

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116
Q

What are the signs of post polio syndrome?

A
  • slow progressive muscle weakness
    -muscle atrophy
    -LLD
    -increased fatigue
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117
Q

What is Guillan-Barre?

A

-autoimmune disorder in response to viral or bacterial infection, surgery, or vaccination

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118
Q

What are the signs of Guillan-Barre?

A

-fast progressive disorder resulting in peak impairment in 4 weeks or less
-flaccid paralysis
-ascending symmetric motor weakness and distal sensory impairment

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119
Q

What is the typical course of Guillan-Barre?

A

-onset to peak disability in 4 weeks
-static phase lasting 2-4 weeks
-recovery proximal-distal progression

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120
Q

What are the required diagnosing criteria for Guillan-Barre?

A

-progressive weakness in more than one extremity
-loss of deep tendon reflex

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121
Q

What are the supportive diagnosing criteria for Guillan-Barre?

A

-rapidly-developing weakness
-symmetric weakness
-facial weakness
-absence of fever
-recovery beginning 2-4 weeks after cessation of progression

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122
Q

What is Charcot-Marie-Tooth?

A

-hereditary motor and sensory neuropathy

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123
Q

What are the classic signs of CMT?

A

-foot drop with steppage gait
-difficulty with fine motor skills
-cavus foot deformity
-parasthesia

124
Q

Carpal tunnel syndrome is classified as an injury to what nerve?

A

-medial

125
Q

What is a Morton’s Neuroma typically found?

A

-between 3-4 met heads

126
Q

What are clinical signs of PTTD?

A

-hindfoot valgus
-pain at medial ankle
-inability to perform heel rise

127
Q

What is the difference between OA and RA?

A

-OA is mechanical overuse injury
-RA is a degenerative autoimmune condition

128
Q

What is Erb’s Palsy?

A

-upper brachial plexus injury to roots C5-C6
-waiter’s tip deformity

129
Q

What is Klumpke’s Palsy?

A

-lower brachial plexus injury to roots C8-T1
-claw hand deformity

130
Q

Is Erb’s Palsy or Klumpke’s palsy more likely to resolve?

A

-Erb’s Palsy

131
Q

What position should be maintained in treating carpal tunnel syndrome?

A

-neutral forearm/wrist (not in extension)

132
Q

What is Blount’s disease?

A

-dysgenetic growth of medial proximal tibial epiphysis?

133
Q

What are the clinical signs of Blount’s disease?

A

-unilateral genu varum

134
Q

Hip flexors are typically innervated by what nerve(s)?

A

-lumbar plexus
-femoral

135
Q

Hip extensors are typically innervated by what nerve(s)?

A

-gluteal

136
Q

Hip abductors are typically innervated by what nerve(s)?

A

-gluteal

137
Q

Hip adductors are typically innervated by what nerve(s)?

A

-obturator

138
Q

Knee flexors are typically innervated by what nerve(s)?

A

-sciatic
-tibial

139
Q

Knee extensors are typically innervated by what nerve(s)?

A

-femoral

140
Q

Ankle dorsiflexors are typically innervated by what nerve(s)?

A

-peroneal

141
Q

Ankle plantarflexors are typically innervated by what nerve(s)?

A

-tibial

142
Q

Ankle inverters are typically innervated by what nerve(s)?

A

-tibial

143
Q

Ankle everters are typically innervated by what nerve(s)?

A

-peroneal

144
Q

Shoulder flexors are typically innervated by what nerve(s)?

A

-axillary
-lateral pectoral

145
Q

Shoulder extensors are typically innervated by what nerve(s)?

A

-axillary
-thoracic nerve roots

146
Q

Shoulder abductors are typically innervated by what nerve(s)?

A

-axillary

147
Q

Elbow flexors are typically innervated by what nerve(s)?

A

-musculocutaneus

148
Q

Elbow extensors are typically innervated by what nerve(s)?

A

-radial

149
Q

Forearm pronators are typically innervated by what nerve(s)?

A

-median

150
Q

Forearm supinators are typically innervated by what nerve(s)?

A

-radial

151
Q

Wrist flexors are typically innervated by what nerve(s)?

A

-ulnar

152
Q

Wrist extensors are typically innervated by what nerve(s)?

A

-radial

153
Q

Thumb abductors are typically innervated by what nerve(s)?

A

-median

154
Q

What are the major events of the gait cycle?

A

-initial contact
-opposite toe off
-heel rise
-opposite initial contact
-toe off
-feet adjacent
-tibial vertical

155
Q

What are the major periods of the gait cycle?

A

-loading response
-midstance
-terminal stance
-pre-swing
-initial swing
-mid swing
-terminal swing

156
Q

What percentage of the gait cycle is spent in stance?

A

-60%

157
Q

What is cadence?

A

-steps in a given time (steps/minute)

158
Q

What is a normal cadence?

A

-120 steps/minute

159
Q

What are the determinants of gait?

A

-pelvic rotation
-pelvic obliquity
-lateral displacement
-knee flexion in stance
-ankle mechanism/rocker
-foot mechanism/rocker

160
Q

What is the benefit of the determinants of gait?

A

-reduces vertical displacement of COG by artificially lengthening limbs

161
Q

What are the attributes of giat?

A

-stability in stance
-foot clearance in swing
-prepositioning for IC
-adequate step length
-conservation of energy

162
Q

Where is the GRF acting in initial contact?

A

-posterior ankle, anterior knee, anterior hip

163
Q

Where is the GRF acting in loading response?

A

-posterior ankle, posterior knee, anterior hip

164
Q

Where is the GRF acting in midstance?

A

-anterior ankle, anterior knee, posterior hip

165
Q

Where is the GRF acting in terminal swing?

A

-anterior ankle, posterior knee, posterior hip

166
Q

What muscle activation is seen in initial contact/loading response?

A

-gluteus (concentric)
-hamstrings (isometric)
-quadriceps (eccentric)
-anterior tib (eccentric)

167
Q

What muscle activation is seen in midstance?

A

-gluteus (isometric)
-quadriceps (concentric)
-gastroc (eccentric)
-anterior tib (isometric)

168
Q

What muscle activation is seen in terminal stance?

A

-gastroc (isometric)

169
Q

What muscle activation is seen in preswing?

A

-iliopsoas (concentric)
-quadriceps (isometric/concentric, depending on speed)
-gastroc (concentric)

170
Q

What muscle activation is seen in initial swing?

A

-iliopsoas (concentric)
-anteriro tib (concentric)

171
Q

What muscle activation is seen in midswing?

A

-anterior tib (concentric)

172
Q

What muscle activation is seen in terminal swing?

A

-gluteus (concentric)
-hamstring (eccentric)
-quadriceps (concentric)
-anteriro tib (concentric)

173
Q

What is the peak hip flexion angle seen in gait, and when?

A

-25 degrees; terminal swing/loading response

174
Q

What is the peak hip extension angle seen in gait, and when?

A

-15-20 degrees; terminal stance

175
Q

What is the peak knee flexion angle seen in gait, and when?

A

-60 degrees; initial swing

176
Q

What is the peak ankle dorsiflexion angle seen in gait, and when?

A

-10 degrees; terminal stance

177
Q

What is the peak plantar flexion angle seen in gait, and when?

A

-20 degrees; initial swing

178
Q

How does the center of pressure travel along the plantar surface during gait?

A

-initial contact at lateral heel, push off at hallux

179
Q

What are the functions of the foot in gait?

A

-shock absorption
-accommodation to walking surface

180
Q

How much of the gait cycle is spent in double limb support?

A

-20%

181
Q

As walking speed increases, what decreases?

A

-time spent in double limb support

182
Q

Describe hammer toe deformity.

A

-PIP flexion
-DIP extension

183
Q

Describe claw toe/curly toe deformity.

A

-PIP flexion
-DIP flexion

184
Q

Describe mallet toe deformtiy.

A

-PIP extension
-DIP flexion

185
Q

T/F: Supination is typically a flexible position of the foot/ankle.

A

-false

186
Q

What is the functional ankle ROM required for normal gait?

A

-10 degrees DF
-20 degrees PF

187
Q

What is the SVA during midstance?

A

-12 degrees inclined

188
Q

When tuning an AFO, the bench alignment should be in what position?

A

-appropriate ankle angle
-5-8 inclined SVA

189
Q

The proximal trimline of an AFO should be where?

A

-20mm below neck of fibula

190
Q

What is the first rocker?

A

-heel rocker; lowering of the forefoot

191
Q

What is the second rocker?

A

-ankle rocker; tibia declination into inclination

192
Q

What is the third rocker?

A

-toe rocker; heel raise with extension of MTP

193
Q

What muscles in the hand/wrist does the radial nerve innervate?

A

-extensor muscle groups
-abductor pollicis longus

194
Q

What muscles in the hand/wrist does the median nerve innervate?

A

-radial flexors
-abductor pollicis brevis
-opponens pollics
-1-2 lumbricals

195
Q

What muscles int he hand/wrist does the ulnar nerve innervate?

A

-ulnar flexors
-abductor digiti minimi
-opponens digiti minimi
-adductor pollicis
-3-4 lumbricals

196
Q

Radial nerve receives fibers from what spinal level?

A

-C5-T1

197
Q

Median nerve receives fibers from what spinal level?

A

-C6-T1

198
Q

Ulnar nerve receives fibers from what spinal level?

A

-C7-8

199
Q

Hand of benediction is typically associated with what nerve injury?

A

-median

200
Q

Wrist drop is typically associated with what nerve injury?

A

-radial

201
Q

Claw hand is typically associated with what nerve injury?

A

-ulnar

202
Q

What is normal ROM in GH extension?

A

-45 degrees

203
Q

What is normal ROM in GH flexion?

A

-180 degrees

204
Q

What is normal ROM in GH abduction?

A

-180 degrees

205
Q

What is normal ROM in GH adduction?

A

-0 degrees

206
Q

What is normal ROM in GH horizontal abduction?

A

-90 degrees

207
Q

What is normal ROM in GH adduction?

A

-30 degrees

208
Q

What is normal ROM in GH external rotation?

A

-90 degrees

209
Q

What is normal ROM in GH internal rotation?

A

-70 degrees

210
Q

What is normal ROM in elbow flexion?

A

-154 degrees

211
Q

What are the muscles of the rotator cuff?

A

-supraspinatus
-infraspinatus
-teres minor
-subscapularis

212
Q

What are the power grips of the hand?

A

-cylindrical
-spherical
-hook

213
Q

What are the precision grips of the hand?

A

-lateral (key)
-lumbrical (plate)
-pinch (tip/tip or pad/pad)
-3 jaw chuck

214
Q

What is the functional position of the wrist/hand?

A

-20-30 degrees wrist extension
-45 degrees MCP flexion
-15 degrees PIP/DIP flexion
-45 degrees thumb abduction

215
Q

What is the safe position of the wrist/hand?

A

-10-45 degrees wrist extension
-60-90 degrees MP flexion
-full extension PIP/DIP

216
Q

What is a boutonniere deformity?

A

-PIP flexion, DIP hyperextension

217
Q

What is a swan neck deformity?

A

-PIP hyperextension, DIP flexion

218
Q

What is a colles fracture?

A

-distal radius fracture with radial dislocation

219
Q

What is a Monteggia fracture?

A

-proximal radius fracture with dislocation of radial head

220
Q

What is a Galeazzi fracture?

A

-distal radial fracture with ulnar dislocation

221
Q

What spinal region is most mobile?

A

-cervical

222
Q

Where does the most rotation occur?

A

-C1-2

223
Q

How much rotation occurs at C1-2?

A

-50%

224
Q

What is the greatest motion available in the thoracic spine?

A

-rotation

225
Q

What is the greatest motion available in the lumbar spine?

A

-flexion/extension

226
Q

What are the appropriate trim lines for a TLSO?

A

-25 mm below sternal notch
-20mm above thigh when seated on firm chair
-38 mm from axilla
-20mm above spine of scapula
-25mm from sitting surface (posterior)

227
Q

What spinal level is roughly attributable to the base of the mandible?

A

-C2-3

228
Q

What spinal level is roughly attributable to the sternal notch?

A

-T2-3

229
Q

What spinal level is roughly attributable to the inferior angle of the scapula?

A

-T7

230
Q

What spinal level is roughly attributable to the xyphoid process?

A

-T9-10

231
Q

What spinal level is roughly attributable to the waist?

A

-L2

232
Q

What spinal level is roughly attributable to the umbillicus?

A

-L3

233
Q

What spinal level is roughly attributable to the iliac crests?

A

-L4

234
Q

What spinal level is roughly attributable to the ASIS?

A

-S1

235
Q

What motions does a chairback LSO control?

A

-AP (flexion/extension)

236
Q

What motions does a Knight type LSO control?

A

-AP/ML (flexion/extension/lateral flexion?

237
Q

What motions does a Taylor type TLSO control?

A

-AP (flexion/extension?

238
Q

What motions does a Knight Taylor type TLSO control?

A

-AP/ML (flexion/extension/lateral flexion?

239
Q

What motions does a Cowhorn type TLSO control?

A

-AP/ML + rotation (triplanar)

240
Q

What motions does a does a Jewett/CASH type TLSO control?

A

-flexion

241
Q

ow are hyperextension TLSO’s measured?

A

-distance sternal notch to pubis
-subtract 72mm (3”)

242
Q

What is Torticollis?

A

-shortening of the sternocleidomastoid muscle

243
Q

Torticollis is commonly associated with what other condition?

A

-plagiocephaly

244
Q

Torticollis affecting the right side will be associated with what area of flattening?

A

-left (plagiocephaly/asymmetric brachy)

245
Q

When is a SOMI traditionally indicated?

A

-post Halo intervention

246
Q

What does SOMI stand for?

A

-sternal occipital mandibular immobilizer

247
Q

What type of cervical orthosis provides end-point control?

A

-Halo

248
Q

How is infantile idiopathic scoliosis defined?

A

-occurring before age 3

249
Q

How is juvenile idiopathic scoliosis defined?

A

-occurring between ages 3-9

250
Q

How is adolescent idiopathic scoliosis defined?

A

-occurring at age 10 or later (up to skeletal maturity)

251
Q

What AIS curve patterns tend to progress the least?

A

-single lumbar
-single thoracolumbar

252
Q

What are the risk factors for AIS curve progression?

A

-curve pattern
-curve magnitude
-age
-gender
-Risser
-menarche

253
Q

How is a structural curve defined via X-ray?

A

-non-resolving in lateral bending

254
Q

Describe how to take a Cobb angle

A

-angle between the lines made perpendicular to the superior endplate of the superior-most tilted vertebra and the inferior endplate of the inferior-most tilted vertebra

255
Q

What direction does the spinous process rotate to in AIS?

A

-towards concavity

256
Q

What direction does the body of the vertebra rotate to in AIS?

A

-towards convexity

257
Q

What is the Adam’s forward bend test?

A

-visual inspection of thoracic rotation, by bending forward at the hips 90 degrees

258
Q

What possible deformities in AIS can be seen in the frontal plane?

A

-C7 decompensation
-arm gap
-pelvic obliquity
-lateral curvature
-unequal shoulder height
-LLD

259
Q

What possible deformities in AIS can be seen in the sagittal plane?

A

-hyperlordosis
-hypolordosis
-hyperkyphosis
-hypokyphosis

260
Q

What possible deformities in AIS can be seen in the transverse plane?

A

-rib hump

261
Q

What are the mechanisms of corrective action in AIS bracing?

A

-end point control
-three point pressure system
-coupled de-rotation
-active muscle component

262
Q

What does end point control refer to in AIS bracing?

A

-reduction of pelvic deformity
-C7 compensation

263
Q

What does three point pressure system refer to in AIS bracing?

A

-reduction of lateral curvature
-aiding in C7 compensation
-restoration of normal sagittal curve profile

264
Q

What does coupled de-rotation refer to in AIS bracing?

A

-anteriolateral and posteromedial directed forces to reduce rotation

265
Q

What does active muscle component refer to in AIS bracing?

A

-space allowed for movement of tissue during correction/breathing

266
Q

When is a Milwaukee CTLSO indicated for AIS?

A

-apex above T7-8
-T1 tilt

267
Q

What is the indications for treatment in AIS?

A

-Risser 0-1, curve <20 degrees: observe
-Risser 0-1, curve 20-40 degrees: brace
-Risser 2-3, curve 0-30 degrees: observe
-Risser 2-3, curve 30-40 degrees: brace
-Risser any, curve 40-50 degrees: brace (possible surgery)
-Risser any, curve >50 degrees: surgery

268
Q

What is the difference between positional plagiocephaly and craniosynostotic plagiocephaly?

A

-craniosynostotic results in asymmetrical growth due to premature fusion of sutures

269
Q

What is the cephalic index?

A

-ratio of head length to head width

270
Q

What is cranial vault asymmetry?

A

-difference between diagonal measurements, frontozygomatic to bossing/flattening

271
Q

What is brachycephaly?

A

-high cephalic ratio

272
Q

What is scaphocephaly?

A

-low cephalic ratio

273
Q

When are CROs most effective?

A

-4-8 months

274
Q

What typically needs to be documented for insurance coverage?

A

-2 months of repositional therapy (and age of at least 3 months)
-age 6-18 months
-cephalic index +/- 2SD from normal
-10+ cranial vault asymmetry
-OR craniosynostosis

275
Q

What is the normal femur angle of inclination?

A

-125 degrees

276
Q

Femoral inclination angle of greater than 125 degrees is called what and results in what?

A

-coxa valga; knee varum

277
Q

Femoral inclination angle of less than 125 degrees is called what and results in what?

A

-coxa vara knee valgum

278
Q

What is the normal angle of femoral torsion?

A

-10-15 degrees anterior

279
Q

Femoral torsion of greater than 15 degrees is called what and results in what?

A

-(excessive) anteversion; in-toeing

280
Q

Femoral torsion of less than 15 degrees is called what and results in what?

A

-retroversion; out-toeing

281
Q

The anatomical hip joint is oriented how compared to the greater trochanter?

A

-1” proximal
-1/2” anterior

282
Q

What is the Ober test, how is it performed, and what is positive?

A

-tensor fascia latae tightness
-sidelying, passive abduction and extension
-positive test if upper leg stays in the air and does not contact table

283
Q

What is the Thomas test, how is it performed, and what is positive?

A

-hip flexor tightness
-supine, unilateral hip flexion to chest
-positive test if extended thigh does not contact table

284
Q

What is the Lachman test, how is it performed, and what is positive?

A

-ACL rupture
-supine, 30 degrees flexion with external rotation, anterior translation force
-positive test with soft end feel and/or anterior translation 3 mm greater than intact leg

285
Q

What is the Anterior drawer test, how is it performed, and what is positive?

A

-ACL rupture
-supine, hip flexion 45 degrees, knee flexion 90 degrees, anterior force on proximal tibia
-positive test with soft feel and/or anterior translation greater than 6mm

286
Q

What is the Posterior drawer test, how is it performed, and what is positive?

A

-PCL rupture
-supine, hip flexion 45 degrees, knee flexion 90 degrees, posterior force on proximal tibia
-positive test with soft end feel and/or posterior translation greater than 6mm

287
Q

What ist he posterior sag test (Gottfried test), how is it performed, and what is postive?

A

-PCL rupture
-supine, hip flexion, knee flexion
-positive test if posterior sag of tibia noted

288
Q

What is the McMurray test, how is it performed, and what is positive?

A

-meniscus tears
-supine, hip flexion, knee flexion, compressive force between tibia and femur, with foot rotation
-positive test with pain or click

289
Q

Describe against gravity and gravity eliminated MMT positions for shoulder abduction.

A

-AG: sitting
-GE: supine

290
Q

Describe against gravity and gravity eliminated MMT positions for shoulder flexion.

A

-AG: sitting
-GE: sidelying, testing side up

291
Q

Describe against gravity and gravity eliminated MMT positions for shoulder extension.

A

-AG: sitting
-GE: sidelying, testing side up

292
Q

Describe against gravity and gravity eliminated MMT positions for elbow flexion.

A

-AG: sitting
-GE: sidelying, testing side up

293
Q

Describe against gravity and gravity eliminated MMT positions for elbow extension.

A

-AG: prone, shoulder abducted to 90 degrees and off table OR supine, shoulder flexed to 90 degrees
-GE: sitting, shoulder abducted to 90 degrees

294
Q

Describe against gravity and gravity eliminated MMT positions for wrist extension.

A

-AG: sitting, pronated
-GE: sidelying, testing side up

295
Q

Describe against gravity and gravity eliminated MMT positions for wrist flexion.

A

-AG: sitting, supinated
-GE: sidelying, testing side up

296
Q

Describe against gravity and gravity eliminated MMT positions for hip flexion.

A

-AG: sitting, arms crossed over chest
-GE: sidelying, testing side up

297
Q

Describe against gravity and gravity eliminated MMT positions for hip extension.

A

-AG: prone
-GE: sidelying, testing side up

298
Q

Describe against gravity and gravity eliminated MMT positions for hip abduction.

A

-AG: sidelying, testing side up
-GE: supine

299
Q

Describe against gravity and gravity eliminated MMT positions for hip adduction.

A

-AG: sidelying, testing side down
-GE: supine

300
Q

Describe against gravity and gravity eliminated MMT positions for hip internal rotation.

A

-AG: sitting
-GE: supine

301
Q

Describe against gravity and gravity eliminated MMT positions for hip external rotation.

A

-AG: sitting
-GE: supine

302
Q

Describe against gravity and gravity eliminated MMT positions for knee extension.

A

-AG: sitting
-GE: sidelying, testing side up

303
Q

Describe against gravity and gravity eliminated MMT positions for knee flexion.

A

-AG: prone
-GE: sidelying, testing side up

304
Q

Describe against gravity and gravity eliminated MMT positions for ankle dorsiflexion.

A

-AG: sitting
-sidelying, testing side up

305
Q

Describe against gravity and gravity eliminated MMT positions for ankle plantar flexion.

A

-AG: single limb standing, heel raise (1-5 quality repetitions (1=grade 3, 5=grade 5))
-GE: sidelying, testing side up, 90 degrees knee flexion

306
Q

Describe against gravity and gravity eliminated MMT positions for ankle inversion.

A

-AG: sitting
-GE: supine

307
Q

Describe against gravity and gravity eliminated MMT positions for ankle eversion.

A

-AG: sitting
-GE: supine

ORTHOTIC AND PROSTHETIC MOCK EXAMS (21 decks)

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