Lower Extremity Oral Questions Flashcards

1
Q

How do you determine stirrup length?

A

2 times height of distal tip of medial malleolus plus width of heel plus 1/4” or 6mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How do you determine band length?

A

half circumference plus 1 1/2” or 38mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the minimum clearances for ankle joints and knee joints?

A

Knee: medial side: 1/4” or 6mm - lateral side: 1/8” or 3mm
Ankle: medial side: 1/4” or 6mm - lateral side: 3/16 or 5 mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

In a conventional KAFO, what changes could you use to reduce recurvatum?

A

Shallow bands, move calf band up – distal thigh down – move these two closer, increase heel height

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What problems could you encounter in moving the bands?

A

Peroneal nerve impingement, limited knee flexion of orthosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How much plantar flexion would you allow a patient who has suffered a CVA?

A

neutral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How do you determine if a patient requires locks on his KAO versus free knee?

A

Hip and/or knee extensor weakness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What do you recommend for a patient who exhibits foot slap at heel strike?

A

An AFO – conventional or plastic/dorsi-assist and/or plantar stop

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is Legge-Calve-Perthes disease?

A

Avascular Necrosis of the femoral head usually occurring in boys ages 9-14. Femoral head will return to normal if the leg is abducted and internally rotated to place the femoral head into the acetabulum.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Name 3 orthoses used for Legge-Calve-Perthes?

A

*Atlanta (Scottish Rite)
*Toronto
*Newington
–Orthoses is set up internally rotated and abducted about 45 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Name 3 orthoses for the treatment of Hip Dysplasia

A

*Frejka pillow
*Pavlik harness
*ILfeld splint
–Orthoses is set up in a flexed ad abducted position

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is tibial torsion?

A

Difference between knee and ankle joint axes as viewed in the transverse plane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How is tibial torsion measured?

A

With the knee at 90 degrees 00 measure apex of each malleolus to a surface behind the leg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What type(s) of functional device can be used for excessive pronation of the foot?

A

Foot orthotic or UCBL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

A UCBL is used for more control of what part of the foot?

A

hind foot (calcaneus), sub-talar joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the cause of Charcot joints in the feet and ankle?

A

Any neuropathic disease an have Charcot joints associated with it (diabetes, herpes, syphilis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Evaluation of a patient with a gunshot wound to the hip reveals weak hip flexors. What peripheral nerve is injured?

A

Femoral nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is your orthotic recommendation for the above? – (Femoral nerve injury)

A

Maybe a cane used on the contralateral side

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the name for a contralateral pelvic drop?

A

Trendelenberg sign or gluteus medius limp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Describe chondromalacia

A

Softness of the articular cartilage usually involving patello-femoral joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is your orthotic recommendation for chondromalacia?

A

Palumbo orthosis or other patellar stabilizing orthosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

A patient’s KAFO has free motion knee, but the mechanical joint is 1” distal to the anatomical joint. In flexion the resulting pressures will be?

A

Proximal, posterior thigh - distal, anterior thigh - brace migrates proximally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Toe drag is a bigger problem in what phase of gate? Why?

A

Initial swing – if the toe does not clear the floor the patient takes short steps and may trip

24
Q

Why do diabetics get foot ulcers?

A

Loss of sensation – patient cannot tell when he is getting blisters or pressure sores that can develop into ulcers if not detected in time

25
Q

What is the advantage of an offset knee joint for treating recurvatum?

A

Puts the weight bearing line anterior to the knee joint, making it unnecessary to lock the knee

26
Q

Describe Guillain Barre and its effects on the patient?

A

Infectious polyneuritis with progressive muscular weakness, distal to proximal, which may lead to paralysis. Prognosis usually is full recovery, though in more severe cases the patient may have some residual weakness in distal extremities

27
Q

Describe Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease

A

Inherited progressive neuromuscular atrophy characterized by progressive weakness of the distal muscles of arms and feet usually develops in childhood

28
Q

When would you recommend a bail lock on a KAFO instead of drop locks?

A

Only one functional hand, when crutches or canes are used with bilateral KAFOs

29
Q

Name two contraindications for plastic AFOs

A

*uncontrolled edema
*sensitive skin

30
Q

Name two methods of minimizing knee flexion torque at initial contact in a lower extremity orthosis?

A

*Beveled
*undercut
*SACH heel

31
Q

What implications do weak hip flexors have in your design of a KAFO?

A

A lightweight design could encourage hip flexion at swing phase

32
Q

For which diagnoses would you recommend a rocker bottom shoe?

A

*Diabetes
*Arthritis
*Ankle fusion

33
Q

What is the RX rational for a rocker bottom shoe?

A

Simulate normal foot biomechanics and promote even weight bearing distribution in a patient with limited or no ankle motion

34
Q

A polio patient has a flail ankle, good knee muscles, good hip muscles, full ROM at knee with 25 degrees recurvatum. Knee buckles when tired. What orthosis do you recommend? Describe the mechanical principles.

A

Lightweight KAFO, offset or drop lock knee, solid plastic AFO section with rocker bottom shoe or double adjustable ankle joint

35
Q

How would you trim the AFO section for the above polio patient? Why?

A

Solid ankle, anterior trim, flail ankle needs stability in all planes

36
Q

Six weeks post ACL repair – how do you cast? What two mechanical principles do you want?

A

*Cast in slight flexion
1. prevent hyperextension
2. Control rotation

37
Q

Name 2 reasons why you might not use pretibial AFOs for a patient who walks with a crouch gait?

A
  1. Hip flexion contracture
  2. Lake of ankle ROM/inability to don
38
Q

Give 4 contraindications for RGOs

A
  1. obesity
  2. hip flexion contracture +20 degrees
  3. Spasticity
  4. non-plantargrade foot
  5. hip dislocation
39
Q

Name 3 clinical signs of Charcot joints at ankle mortise.

A
  1. Swelling
  2. instability
  3. excessive joint mobility
  4. pain
  5. anaesthetic foot
  6. visual deformity
40
Q

Name 3 mechanical principles for treatment of Charcot joints

A
  1. Immobilize in total contact AFO
  2. Minimal weight bearing
  3. Rocker bottom
41
Q

Name 3 signs in evaluation of heel spur pain

A
  1. Valgus foot
  2. pes planus
  3. localized pain at loading
42
Q

Name 2 mechanical principles for treating the above (heel spur pain)

A
  1. distribute and reduce pressure in arch support
  2. UCB – for hindfoot and/or forefoot control
43
Q

Where should you place the mechanical hip joint?

A

1/2” anterior and 1” superior to greater trochanter

44
Q

How would elevating the shoe heel effect a solid ankle AFO?

A

Increases knee flexion moment at heel strike

45
Q

What effect would posterior placement of knee joints have on a KAFO?

A

Migrates proximally with pressure on anterior calf cuff

46
Q

What modifications can you make to a plastic KAFO to reduce recurvatum?

A

*Trim proximal and distal sections closer to the knee
*pad shells
*shallow shells

47
Q

Why would you choose a metal AFO over plastic for a patient with Charcot joints?

A

Prevent skin breakdown due to insensate foot

48
Q

What are the stance phases of gait and what is the hip position through each?

A

*Initial contact (heel strike) - 30 degrees flexion
*Loading response (foot flat) - 25-30 degree flexion
*Midstance - 20 degrees flexion to 5 degrees extension
*Terminal stance (heel off) - 10 degrees extension
*Pre-swing (push-off) - 10 degrees extension

49
Q

How can you prevent a knee orthosis from migrating down?

A

*Supracondylar wedge
*Suprapatellar strap
*attach to foot plate
*lightweight belt

50
Q

What is the basic theory facture bracing?

A

Using hydrostatic pressure to stabilize the fracture, micro motion at fracture site promotes healing, mobilization of joints above and below the fracture decreases rehabilitation time

51
Q

How would you treat a stable, ten day old, distal 1/3 femoral fracture with acute signs of swelling and pain absent?

A

Functional femoral fracture brace with free knee and ankle

52
Q

What would you recommend for a 3 week old tibial plateau fracture

A

AK fracture brace with free knee and ankle

53
Q

Would you fit a tibial fracture brace on a patient with an open wound on the tibia?

A

No, fracture bracing is contraindicated with open wounds

54
Q

What could you do to a fracture brace to better align a lateral or medial tibial plateau fracture?

A

Stress brace into a varus or valgus position

55
Q

What is the best position for a patient to be in when being fitted with a tibial fracture brace?

A

Sitting when legs dangling knee at 90 degrees

56
Q

Should you put a femoral fracture brace on a proximal femoral fracture?

A

No, never brace femoral fractures above the distal 1/3rd.