ORTHOTIC MOCK EXAM Flashcards
A patient has sustained a stroke and you note that he has a flexion synergy pattern in his upper extremity and lower extremity. Pick the best answer that describes both synergy patterns:
A. UE: shoulder abduction, internal rotation, elbow flexion, forearm pronation, wrist flexion. LE: hip flexion, abduction, external rotation, knee flexion, ankle dorsiflexion, inversion
B. UE: shoulder abduction, external rotation, elbow flexion, forearm supination, wrist flexion. LE: hip flexion, abduction, external rotation, knee flexion, ankle dorsiflexion, inversion
C. UE: shoulder adduction, internal rotation, elbow extension, forearm pronation, wrist flexion. LE: hip flexion, abduction, knee extension, ankle plantarflexion.
D. UE: shoulder adduction, internal rotation, elbow extension, forearm pronation, wrist flexion. LE: hip extension, adduction, internal rotation, ankle plantarflexion
B. Flexion synergies are characterized by what is described with choice B. Extensor synergies present in the pattern described in choice D.
During normal heel strike, the forward hip is how flexed:
A. neutral
B. 10 deg flexed
C. 25 deg flexed
D. 40 deg flexed
C. During normal heel strike, the anterior hip is flexed to 25 deg.
Gait cycle is described by the activity between:
A. heel strike and push off
B. heel strike on one side and the following heel strike on the opposite side
C. heel off to push off on the same side
D. heel strike on one side and the following heel strike on the same side
D. Gait cycle is accompanied by heel strike on one limb followed by heel strike on the same limb. Gait cycle is further divided between stance phase and swing phase.
Pick the following choice that best describes Legg-Calve-Perthes disease (osteochondrosis):
A. Males>females, age onset 13 years, AROM restrited in abduction, flexion, and internal rotation, vague pain at hip , knee, and thigh
B. Etiologies resulting in lack of blood supply to the femoral head, AROM is decreased in hip flexion, internal rotation, and abduction, pain at the groin, thigh, tenderness at hip
C. Males>females, average age onset 6 years old, psoatic limp due to psoas major weakness, lower extremity moves into external rotation, flexion and adduction, MRI will show collapse of subchondral bone at femoral neck
D. characterized by restriction in should motion in external rotation, abduction and flexion, inflammation and fibrosis at the shoulder
C. It’s the correct choice for Legg-Calve-Perthes disease. Choice A describes slipped capital femoral epiphysis.
Choice B describes avascular necrosis.
Choice D describes adhesive capsulitis.
A patient is seen in clinic and presents with lumbar DJD. The patient has handed you a script with RX: LSO aligned appropriately. How would you align the patient in the sagittal plane:
A. increase lumbar lordosis
B. decrease lumbar lordosis
C. utilize three point pressure system to provide M/L stability
D. increase intra-abdominal pressure
B. decreasing lumbar lordosis moves pressure off the posterior “affected” portion of the vertebrae onto the vertebral body away from the arthritic joints
A patient is seen in clinic and presents with L5,S1 spondylolisthesis. The patient has handed you a script with RX: LSO aligned appropriately. How would you align the patient in the sagittal plane:
A. increase lumbar lordosis
B. decrease lumbar lordosis
C. utilize three point pressure systems to provide M/L stability
D. increase intra-abdominal pressure
B. decreasing lumbar lordosis causes lumbar flexion, which is the most appropriate position to prevent progression and allow for healing of the pathology.
It is early in the recovery phase of a patient with a L3 complete spinal cord injury. The expected outcome would MOST likely be:
A. with a complete spinal cord injury you would not expect any progress in motor or sensory function below the level of the lesion
B. a spastic bladder
C. some recovery of function since damage is to the peripheral nerve roots
D. increased weakness in the upper extremities compared to lower extremities.
C. the spinal cord ends at level of L1 at the conus medularis. From L1 distal (cauda equina lesion) a spinal cord injury would be damage to a peripheral nerve. Some recovery can be expected. A spastic bladder would be associated with an upper motor neuron injury.
With regards to spondylolisthesis, what are the radiographic signs that contraindicate orthotic intervention and indicate a surgical candidate:
A. anterior translation of the superior vertebrae over the inferior vertebrae greater than 25%
B. superior vertebrae angulations of 25 degr relative to the inferior vertebrae
C. anterior translation of the superior vertebrae over the inferior vertebrae greater than 50%
D. superior vertebrae angulations of 50 deg relative to the inferior vertebrae
C&D
Anterior translation of the superior vertebrae over the inferior vertebrae greater than 50% and superior vertebrae angulations of 50 deg relative to the inferior vertebrae are indications to discontinue bracing and explore alternative treatments and or surgical intervention
A patient is seen in the hospital. The patient presents with a L1 burst fracture from a snowmobile accident. Which orthosis would be most appropriate:
A. knight-Taylor TLSO
B. BOB “overlapping style” LSO
C. jewett TLSO
D. polymer TLSO
D. when choosing the most appropriate orthosis you must make sure you have coverage spanning several levels above and below the pathologic site. Burst fractures are most unstable in the transverse plane. A custom polymer TLSO is most effective at rotational control and has the proper coverage.
With a traction injury to the anterior division of the brachial plexus you would expect weakness of the elbow flexors, wrist flexors and forearm pronators. What other muscle group would you expect to be weak:
A. wrist extensors
B. thumb abductors
C. shoulder flexors
D. elbow extensors
B. anterior nerve root gives rise to C6 nerve root, median nerve which abducts the thumb.
A patient is seen in the hospital. The patient presents with a T11 anterior compression fracture from a bike accident. The patient is neurologically intact and the fracture is stable. Which orthosis(s) would be most appropriate.
A. CASH TLSO
B. Williams LSO
C. jewett TLSO
D. corset LSO
A&C
The CASH and Jewett TLSO’s both are effective for anterior compression fractures near the thoracolumbar junction. By placing the thoracic spine extension, pressure is removed from the anterior portion of the vertebral body allowing natural bone remodeling to occur.
When taking an impression for a custom polymer LSO for a patient with L5, S1 spondylolisthesis, how would you position the patient if they were allowed to stand through the procedure:
A. patient should be standing upright with hips extended
B. patient should stand with normal posture
C. patient should be asked to arch their lower lumbar spine
D. patient should be asked to flex their hips and knees slightly
D. By having the patient flex their hips and knees slightly their lumbar lordosis will be reduced giving you optimal alignment for spondylolisthesis management.
You have a patient that presents for evaluation for an AFO after a stroke. You notice he has a forward flexed posture. What positive muscle length test would expect to see associated with this posture:
A. ober test
B. thomas test
C. hip extensor tightness
D. plantar flexion tightness
B. The Thomas test tests for iliopsoas (hip flexion) tightness. Often with hip flexor contractures the patient will present with a forward flexed posture when standing. Ober test assesses ilio tibial band tightness, would have opposite effect on the patient’s posture
What are some of the biomechanical principals behind a LSO corset? Choose all that apply:
A. kinesthetic reminder
B. increased intra-abdominal pressure
C. multiple three point pressure systems
D. decreased lumbar lordosis
A,B&C
An LSO corset provides a kinesthetic reminder to use proper posture and to discourage certain motions. Increased intra-abdominal pressure solidifies soft tissue hydrostatically whereby providing support to the lumbar spine. Three point pressure systems work to hold proper alignment and resist or stop certain motions.
A patient is seen in clinic. The patient presents with a separated connective tissue in her symphysis pubis. What orthosis is recommended and what hormone can cause the elasticity of the symphysis pubis to increase during pregnancy, choose two answers:
A. custom LSO with bilateral hip spica’s
B. relaxin hormone
C. elastin hormone
D. SI belt
B&D
Relaxin is a hormone that is released in pregnant women which increases the elasticity of connective tissue to assist the ease of birth. In some cases the pubic symphysis can become too elastic causing pain and instability so a SI belt is utilized to provide increased stability to the pubic symphysis joint
You are working with a therapist on gait training for a patient that has a L1 compete spinal cord injury along with another patient that has an L4 spinal cord injury. What bracing would you expect most appropriate for these patients and ambulation tolerance respectively:
A. L1 spinal cord injury: Independent ambulation with knee ankle foot orthosis (KAFO) household distance, L4 spinal cord injury: ankle foot orthosis, community ambulator independent
B. L1 spinal cord injury: Independent with all manual wheelchair skills, non ambulator no bracing, L4 spinal cord injury: KAFO, independent with household distances
C. L1 spinal cord injury: no ambulation, independent with transfers, bed mobility, wheelchair mobility, L4 spinal cord injury: ankle foot orthosis, independent with community mobility
D. L1 spinal cord injury: ankle foot orthosis, household mobility, L4 spinal cord injury: ankle foot orthosis, independent with community mobility
A. With an L1 spinal cord injury the patient would likely need a KAFO due to iliopsoas weakness as innervated by L2 nerve root. Due to high energy costs only household distances would be expected. L4 spinal cord injury is a lower motor neuron lesion resulting in weakness of the ankle dorsiflexors, anterior tibialis, benefiting from use of an ankle foot orthosis due to foot drop.
Posterior trim lines on a TLSO extend from the sacrococcygeal joint to just inferior to __________. Anterior trim lines extend from symphysis pubis to the _____________:
A. inferior angle of the scapula, xiphoid process
B. scapular spine, sternal notch
C. scapular spine, metasternum
D. T7, xiphoid process
B. TLSO trim lines are chosen to span a distance above and below the pathological area to maximize control and or guide motion. “Longer lever arm = better control”
What pathology would indicate the use of a Willams Flexion LSO:
A. anterior compression fractures
B. burst fractures
C. spondylolisthesis
D. lumbar scoliosis
C. The Williams Flexion LSO allows free lumbar flexion but stops lumbar extension making it a possible orthosis for management of spondylolisthesis
The “unhappy triad” includes injury to what structures:
A. ACL, PCL, medial meniscus
B. MCL, PCL, lateral meniscus
C. LCL, ACL, medial meniscus
D. ACL, MCL, medial menisucs
D. The “unhappy triad” includes injury to anterior cruciate ligament, medical collateral ligament, and medial meniscus from forces that cause genu valgum, flexion, and external rotation applied at the knee when the foot is planted
A patient is seen in clinic. The patient has bilateral pars fractures at L5 and is currently utilizing a custom polymer overlapping style LSO with decreased lumbar lordosis. The physician is not satisfied with the orthosis results and wants to know what you can do to further immobilize the fracture site? Choose the appropriate answer:
A. decrease lumbar lordosis further
B. recommend an RX change to a polymer TLSO
C. increase lumber lordosis slightly
D. add a hip spica to the LSO
D. By adding a hip spica to the LSO you adjust how much hip flexion and extension is allowed which can further immobilize the patient and the fracture site.
A Knight Taylor TLSO is classified as _________ where a Taylor TLSO is classified as __________:
A. M/L control, A/P control
B. A/P M/L control, M/L control
C. A/P M/L control, A/P control
D. A/P control, M/L control
C. A Knight Taylor is an A/P M/L control TLSO, while a Taylor is an A/P control TLSO.
A patient with an upper motor neuron disorder has a posterior loss of balance with immediate sit to standing due to either tight muscles or weakness. What would be likely cause of this:
A. spasticity of the gastrocnemius-soleus
B. contraction of the hip flexors
C. weakness of the hip abductors
D. contracture of the hamstrings
A. The muscles around the ankle provide ankle strategies, the gastrocnemius-soleus moves the body posterior while anterior tibialis helps move the body anterior
A scoliosis patient is seen in clinic. Upon radiographic reading you note that the thoracic curve apex is located at T6. Which orthosis is appropriate:
A. Boston system
B. Charleston Bending brace
C. Jewett TLSO
D. Milwaukee TLSO
D. The Milwaukee CTLSO system is utilized for scoliosis curves T7 and higher. In some instances additions can be built into a Boston system to simulate the effectiveness of a Milwaukee system which can increase patient comfort and compliance.
Posterior trim lines on an LSO extend from the sacrococcyxgeal joint to just inferior to __________. Anterior trim lines extend from symphysis pubis to the ____________:
A. inferior angle of the scapula, xiphoid process
B. xiphoid process, inferior angle of the scapula
C. inferior angle of the scapula, sternal notch
D. inferior angle of the scapula, mid sternum
A. LSO trim lines are chosen to span a distance above and below the pathological area to maximize control and or guide motion. “Longer lever arm = better control”
You are seeing a patient with a one year history of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis. She is ambulating with bilateral canes, shows limited endurance and foot drop. Based on the diagnosis what device would you recommend for trial:
A. ALS is a progressive degenerative disease where due to the progressive nature you feel trial of ankle foot orthosis would be appropriate due to her fatigue and foot drop
B. ALS is an acute inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy affeting the peripheral nervous system. Due to her likely full recovery, you feel she will regain strength in her ankle dorsiflexors and therefore would not need an ankle foot orthosis. would be best to wait to see progress
C. ALS usually presents with ataxia. You feel the patient would be better served with a walker versus consideration of a wheelchair for safe mobility
D. ALS will present with cereballar signs and radicular pain. You feel the patient will benefit from an assessment of ankle foot orthosis
A. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis is a progressive motor neuron disease where the goals for mobility are to maximize current function and provide access to devices that allow for independence including orthosis.
B describes Guillain-Barre syndrome. With ALS ataxia is not a sign/symptom nor are the cerebellar signs.
A patient is seen at the local hospital Ortho/Neuro floor. The patient presents with an unstable odontoid fracture. Which orthosis would you recommend:
A. Minerva
B. Malibu.
C. CTO
D. HALO CTLSO
D. A HALO CTLSO is indicated for unstable C1 and C2 fractures. This orthosis spans a long distance to maximize end-point control.
A patient is seen in clinic. The patient presents with DX: lower lumbar stenosis and a RX: LSO align appropriately. Which option would you recommend:
A. LSO aligned in flexion
B. LSO aligned in extension
C. TLSO aligned in flexion
D. TLSO aligned in extension
A. An LSO aligned in flexion will allow the spinal canal to relatively decrease occlusion and whereby increase space for the spinal cord.
A patient has a fixed forefoot varum. All of the following are considered compensatory strategies for a fixed forefoot varus malalignment EXCEPT:
A. subtalor supination
B. plantar flexed first ray
C. subtalor pronation
D. tibial internal rotation
A. With a fixed forefoot varus alignment subtalor pronation, plantar flexed first ray, tibial and femoral internal rotation. Subtalor supination would be common with a forefoot valgus deformity.
When selecting anterior pin placement in a HALO CTLSO application, where is the proper starting postion:
A. eyebrow level, middle 1/2 of eyebrow
B. 1.5” superior to eyebrow, middle 1/2 of eyebrow
C. 20mm superior to eyebrow, lateral 1/3 of eyebrow
D. lateral 1/3 of eyebrow, slightly superior to eyebrow
D. when choosing anterior pin placement for a HALO this placement gives you a relatively safe starting position to avoid puncturing sinuses, nervous system structures as well as to decrease superior migration of HALO ring.
When selecting posterior pin placement in a HALO CTLSO application, where is the proper starting position:
A. above the ear and the largest circumference of the cranium
B. slightly superior to ear, opposing the anterior pin directly, inferior to equator of the cranium
C. at the level of the ear and inferior to the equator of the cranium
D. 1/4” inferior to the top of ear, with posterior pins opposing each other
B. By placing the posterior pins of a HALO, slightly superior to ear, opposing the anterior pin directly, inferior to equator of the cranium you will optimize placement to avoid nervous system structures as well as superior migration of the HALO.
A patient you are working with has a medial nerve lesion, you would expect that they will have loss of all functions EXCEPT one of the following:
A. abductor pollicis brevis
B. flexor pollicis brevis
C. opponens pollicis
D. flexor carpi ulnaris
D. Flexor carpi ulnaris is one of the few muscles that the median nerve does not innervate on the anterior compartment of the forearm. In general the median nerve serves the flexors of the forearm except for flexor carpi ulnaris which is innervated by the ulnar nerve. Lesion to the median nerve can produce carpal tunnel syndrome, ape hand deformity, benedictine deformity.
Choose all answers that are clinical “visible by the eye” signs of scoliosis:
A. arm gap, shoulder asymmetry
B. pelvic obliquity
C. rib hump
D. prominent scapula
A,B,C&D
All are observable clinical signs of scoliosis
T/F: When fabricating a Williams Flexion LSO for spondylolisthesis, the anterior corset panel should be fabricated out of an inelastic material:
A. True
B. False
B-False
When fabricating a Williams Flexion LSO for spondylolisthesis, the anterior corset panel should be fabricated out of an “elastic” material so as not to limit sagittal plane flexion.
In the hospital you see a 6 year old girl with spina bifida. You are consulted due to the patient’s club foot and a 30 deg scoliotic thoracic curvature. Which of these choices would be part of the normal treatment for a child with spina bifida:
A. prevent contractures due to neurogenic deformities
B. with hydrocephalus, decompress and place shunt in place
C. prevent pressure sores
D. fit patient with an ankle foot orthosis and a TLSO
E. all of the above
E. All of the above choices are general treatment goals for spina bifida. Spina bifida is caused by incomplete closure of one or more neural arches that can cause a wide range of impairments. Joint contractures and pressure ulcers are always a risk for the patient with neurological deficits.
Scoliosis is sometimes sub-divided into different types. What are signs of congenital scoliosis:
A. curvature correction with heel lift
B. left lumbar curve, right thoracic curve
C. wedged, bar, and hemi-vertebrae
D. none of the above
C. Wedged, bar, and hemi-vertebrae are common radiographic findings for congenital scoliosis
Scoliosis is sometimes sub-divided into different types. What are signs of neuromuscular scoliosis:
A. left lumbar curve and right thoracic curve
B. right lumbar cure and left thoracic curve
C. curvature correction with heel lift
D. lumbar curves greater than 20 degrees
B. Right lumbar and left thoracic curves are often signs of neuromuscular scoliosis.
Gowers sign is seen when a person gets up from the floor, walking hands up his legs to get upright. Choose the most common diagnosis where this is seen:
A. duschenne muscular dystrophy
B. spina bifida
C. cerebral palsy
D. legg-calve perthes disease
A. Duschenne muscular dystrophy is characterized by rapid loss of muscle, eventually leading to loss of ability to ambulate and death. By age 10 most are using braces to aide in walking. By age 12 patients are usually wheelchair bound. Proximal weakness in the hips leads to the child using their arms to walk up their legs known as Gowers sign.
When applying a HALO CTLSO for a pediatric applications, how may your protocol differ from adult applications:
A. use less HALO pins
B. use more HALO pins
C. use more torque on the pins
D. use less torque on the pins
B&D
When applying a HALO on a pediatric patient, it is important to use more pins with less torque to distribute the pressure more evenly across the cranium as well as to avoid any potential dural punctures.
When examining a scoliosis radiography, the vertebral body is seen to rotate toward the ___________ in relation to the curve and the spinous process is seen to rotate toward the __________ in relation to the curve:
A. concavity, convexity
B. convexity, concavity
C. convexity, convexity
D. concavity, concavity
B. Scoliosis radiographs confirm that rotation of the vertebral body is toward the convexity of the curve and rotation of the spinous process is toward the concavity of the curve.
A brachial plexus injury occurs resulting in decreased wrist and hand function. Choose which type of brachial injury would likely be the cause:
A. erb’s palsy
B. klumpke’s palsy
C. trisomy 21
D. ulnar neuritis
A. -Erb’s palsy results in decreased shoulder girdle function with 1:1 humeroscapular movement, involves C5-C6
- Klumpke’s palsy results in decreased wrist and hand function due to involvement of C8-T1.
- Trisomy is 21 is another name for Down syndrome
- ulnar neuritis may cause wrist and hand dysfunction but is not a brachial plexus injury
When evaluating to see if a scoliotic curve is non-structural, what will you notice with forced lateral side bending:
A. total curve correction
B. no curve correction
C. rotational components of the curve will correct themselves
D. rotational components of the curve will not correct themselves.
C. Forced lateral side bending will show rotational correction for non-structural curves and no rotational correction for structural curves.
Which types of scoliotic curves would you expect to progress more given only the location of the curve:
A. thoracic
B. single lumbar
C. thoracolumbar
D. double major
B&C
Single lumbar and thoracolumbar scoliotic curves have been shown to progress more in relation to thoracic and double major curves.
Parkinson’s disease is a chronic, progressive disease of the CNS with degeneration of dopaminergic neurons. What are the four hallmark symptoms of PD:
A. rigidity, bradykinesia, tremor, and impaired postural reflexes
B. rigidity, bradykinesia, tremor, ataxia
C. rigidity, tremor, radiculopathy, and impaired postural reflexes
D. rigidity, tremor, festinating gait, and Lhermitte’s sign.
A. Rigidity, bradykinesia known as slowed movement, tremors usually pill rolling tremor, and impaired postural reflexes are the classic symptoms of Parkinson’s disease. Radiculopathy is a peripheral nervous system dysfunction. Lhermitte’s sign can be seen with other upper motor neuron disorders such as multiple sclerosis but not Parkinson’s disease.
A scoliosis patient is seen in clinic. Upon radiographic reading you note that the patient has a risser sign of 5. How would you describe this risser sign:
A. osseous cap noted on lateral 25% of the iliac crest apophyseal plate
B. osseous cap noted don lateral 50% of the iliac crest apophyseal plate
C. osseous cap noted on lateral 75% of the iliac crest apophyseal plate
D. Osseous cap noted on 100% of the iliac crest apophyseal plate
D. a risser sign of 5 is described as a complete osseous capping of the iliac crest apophyseal plate and signals skeletal maturity.
A scoliosis patient is seen in clinic for her initial evaluation after cobbing her x-ray, you and her physician agree that she has a 35 deg left lumbar curve with no signs of progression. What should your treatment consist of at this time:
A. observation only at this time
B. refer her back to her physician for a surgical consult
C. recommend the use of an off the shelf corset until progression is noted
D. immediate scoliosis orthotic management
D. Scoliotic curves of magnitude of 30-45 deg should be managed with an orthosis immediately, regardless of progression.
You see a patient who describes pain in her shoulder after chopping wood. You find on physical examination weakness with shoulder flexion and you note scapular winging. The patient’s problem could be accounted by what MOST LIKELY:
A. compression
B. rotator cuff impingement and tendonitis
C. compression of the long thoracic nerve
D. compression of the suprascapular nerve
C. continuous overhead activities can cause inflammation of soft tissues, placing pressure over peripheral nerves such as the long thoracic nerve. With compression this nerve would then cause weakness in the serattus anterior. You would note winging of the scapula especially with arm abduction greater than 90 deg. Suprascapular nerve innervates part of the rotator cuff (supraspinatus and infraspinatus) and would not causing winging. Rotator cuff tendonitis also would not cause winging, but could cause flexion weakness.
A 15 year old scoliosis patient is seen in clinic for her initial evaluation. After cobbing her x-ray, you and her physician agree that she has 20 deg left lumbar, 22 deg right thoracic curves with no signs of progression. What should your treatment consist of at this time:
A. observation only at this time and schedule a follow-up appointment after her next radiograph series
B. refer her back to her physician for a surgical consult
C. recommend the use of an off the shelf corset until progression is noted
D. immediate scoliosis orthotic management
A. Scoliotic curve of a magnitude less than 25 deg indicate a treatment plan of observation and follow up. NOTE: in some cases with very young patient’s earlier management may be indicated due to a lack of skeletal maturity.
A patient is seen in clinic. Dx: Sheurmann’s Kyphosis apex = T9, Rx: orthosis. What type of orthosis would you recommend:
A. an off the shelf TLSO modified with thoracic extension.
B. custom TLSO
C. custom CTLSO
D. jewett TLSO
B. When managing a patient with Sheurmann’s Kyphosis, apex locations of T8 or lower are managed with a custom TLSO and apex locations of T7 or higher are managed with a custom CTLSO.
A patient is diagnosed with an anterior cerebral artery stroke. You may need to assist with bracing. Based on the diagnosis you can expect that the patient will present with:
A. contralateral hemiparesis, leg more affected than the arm
B. contralateral hemiparesis, arm more affected than the leg
C. ipsilateral ataxia, decreased pain and temperature to the face
D. quadriplegia, bulbar paralysis, preserved consciousness
A. anterior cerebral stroke results in the leg more affected than the arm and contralateral sensory loss.
- Middle cerebral artery stroke results in hemiplegia, arm more affected than the leg.
- Basilar artery occlusion at the pons produces what is known as locked-in-syndrome causing quadriplegia with no motor function but preserved consciousness.
Why is Shurmann’s kyphosis typically easier to manage with an orthosis compared to scoliosis:
A. it is more common in males and previous research suggests male patient’s are more compliant with orthotic wearing schedules relative to female patient’s
B. The curve magnitudes are always less than scoliotic curve magnitudes making them easier to correct
C. sheurmann’s kyphosis only has a sagittal plane component of deformity
D. it is easier to diagnose early in life relative to scoliosis
C. Sheurmann’s kyphosis only has a sagittal plane component of deformity, whereas scoliosis has both sagittal and transverse plane components of deformity making it relatively more difficult to manage with an orthosis.
