Other upper GI pathology Flashcards

1
Q

GORD basically is due to __ not closing and raised ___

A

LOS

intrabdominal pressure

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2
Q

With GORD if wake up coughing then may be due to

A

food passing UOS => lungs may => reflux bronchitis

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3
Q

4 grades of GORD ulceration:

A

1) less than 5mm
2) greater than 5mm
3) less than 70% of circumference
4) greater than 70% of circumference

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4
Q

Achalasia =

A

LOS in spasm and oeso body has poor motility

dysphagia for food and liquid

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5
Q

diagnosis of achalasia is by ___

A

manometry to measure P of LOS

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6
Q

treatment of achalasia =

A

botox to paralyse LOS

surgery - slit open LOS and tie ends

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7
Q

Nutcracker oesophagus =

Treatment =

A

oesophageal spasms with excessive amplification/duration of peristalsis that causes dysphagia
CCBs

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8
Q

Group of symptoms associated with dyspepsia

A

post-prandial fullness
epigastric pain/burning
early satiety
bloating

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9
Q

__% of dyspepsia is organic eg.s of causes =

A

25% - PUD, NSAIDs, gastric ca

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10
Q

___% of dyspepsia is functional (ie. ____)

A

75%

no underlying cause/idiopathic

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11
Q

Peptic ulcer which is better when eating

A

duodenal

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12
Q

Peptic ulcer made worse by eating =

A

gastric

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13
Q

H. pylori is the cause of ___% of duodenal and ___% of gastric ulcers

A

90% duodenal

60% gastric

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14
Q

Causes of PUD = (4)

A

H. pylori
NSAIDs
gastric dysmotility
outflow obstruction

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15
Q

H pylori is a gram __ microaeophilic flagellated ____

A

-ve

bacillus

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16
Q

H pylori may cause __+__ gastric cancers

may reduce + cancers

A

(almost all) non-cardia gastric adenocarcinoma
low grade B cell lymphoma
REDUCE: cardia adenocarcinoma, oeso adenocarcinoma

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17
Q

If H. pylori is predominant in the antrum and does not cause atrophy then ___ ulcers are caused as gastrin secretion ____ and acid secretion ____

A

duodenal

increased gastrin + acid production

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18
Q

If H. pylori is predominant in the body and causes atrophy then acid secretion is ____ and ___ ulcers + ____ is caused as gastrin and acid secretion ___

A

decreased
gastric ulcers and gastric cancer (adenocarcinoma)
are decreased

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19
Q

Cag ___ H. pylori are oncogenic
They inhibit ____ which causes increased gastrin
This causes duodenal ___ load to increase => duodenal ____ and H. pylori ___ => ulceration
there is no _____

A
\+ve
somatostatin
acid
metaplasia
colonisation
body gastritis
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20
Q

to diagnose H. pylori infection must stop ___ (drug)

and tests = (4)

A
PPIs
biopsy ( urease test, histology and culture)
urease breath test
FAT - faecal antigen test
serology (IgA)
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21
Q

Urease test is possitive for H. pylori because

A

H. pylori produce urease to produce ammonium and bicarbonate

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22
Q

H. pylori eradication therapy =

side effects =

A

omeprazole + amox. + clarithromycin
OR
omeprazole + metronidazole + clarithromycin
side effects: nausea and diarrhoea

23
Q

Follow-up for duodenal+/gastric ulcers after treatment?

A
duodenal = only if symptomatic
gastric = endoscopy at 6-8wks so no malignancy
24
Q

Gastroenteritis definition

A

inflammation of the stomach/intestines =>

decreased nutrient absorption and increased fluid and electrolyte loss

25
___% of gastroenteritis cases are infectious, mostly __ then __ then ___
85% | mostly viral > bac. > parasites
26
S. aureus pre-formed toxin related gastroenteritis resolves after ___ There is ___ in faeces
6-10hrs | NO pus or blood
27
Large outbreaks of this occur on cruise ships | mainly efffects older kids and adults
norovirus
28
norovirus spread is __
faeco-oral, waterbourne, shell-fish
29
Incubation period for norovirus signs resolution within
24-48hrs abdominal cramps, abrupt nausea, vom and diarr, myalgia 24-48hrs
30
acute enteritis presents with (4)
fever, diarrhoea, vomiting, abdominal pain
31
acute colitis presents with (3)
fever, pain, bloody diarrhoea
32
Diagnosis of paratyphoid/typhoid is by:
BLOOD cultures | and also stool and urine cultures
33
Treatment for paratyphoid/typhoid =
azithomycin
34
There is/is not a vaccine for typhoid+/paratyphoid
IS IV/PO vaccine for typhoid = 70% effective | none for paratyphoid
35
signs and symptoms of enteric fever-like illness eg. typhoid/paratyphoid
fever rigors pain v little diarrhoea (may have constipation)
36
Campylobacter infection resolves within ___
5-14 days
37
Campylobacter infection may cause ___
Guillain-Barre Syndrome = tingling of feet => paralysis of legs, arms and rest of body
38
If camplyobacter is severe then treat with __
azithro/clarithromycin
39
Causes of bloody diarrhoea eg.s
IBD malignancy ischaemia infection (causing colitis) eg. Shigella, camplyobacter, E. coli, amoeba
40
Parasites are diagnosed by:
stool microscopy
41
salmonella enterica, campylobacter and Shigella are diagnosed by:
stool culture
42
Stool toxin test is used to diagnose
C. diff and E. coli
43
norovirus is diagnosed by
PCR
44
anti-spasmodics/motilities are generally only short-term and not given to elderly or IBD because ___
may cause toxic megacolon
45
Antibiotics are given for GI infections only if ___ | eg.s of infections given in =
IC, severe, chance of spreading to blood/to others | Typhoid, shigellosis (not sonnei), cholera, C. diff, giardiasis, amoebiasis, invasive salmonellosis
46
C. diff is a ____ gram ___ spore-forming ___
anaerobic +ve bacillus
47
4Cs that cause C. diff infection
cephalosporins co-amoxiclav clindamycin ciprofloxacin (quinolones)
48
In C. diff infections must wash hands with ___
soap and water
49
drug used for first relapse of C. diff
fidoxamicin
50
most effective treatment for C. diff in future
FMT (faecal microbiota transplant)
51
Amoebiasis causes _____ may spread to cause __ diagnosis = treatment =
acute bloody diarrhoea commonly liver abscess serology metronidazole - remove from lumen with diloxanide furoate/paromomycin
52
Giardiasis causes ___ diarrhoea common in ___ (geographical) diagnosis: treatment:
explosive diarrhoea USSR/ eastern europe stool/duodenal aspirate microscopy metronidazole
53
Most common cause of traveller's diarrhoea =
E. coli enterotoxin