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SCOREBUILDERS NPTE VOCAB > Other Systems > Flashcards

Other Systems Flashcards

1
Q

thermal burn

A

caused by conduction or convection.

EX) burns resulting from contact with a hot liquid, fire, or steam

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2
Q

electrical burn

A

caused by the passage of electrical current through the body. Typically there is an entrance and exit wound.
Complications include: cardiac arrhythmias, respiratory arrest, renal failure, neurological damage, and fractures.

EX) lightning strike

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3
Q

chemical burn

A

occurs when certain chemical compounds come in contact with the body. The reaction will continue until the chemical compound is diluted at the site of contact.

EX) sulfuric acid, lye, hydrochloric acid, gasoline

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4
Q

radiation burn

A

occurs most commonly with exposure to external beam radiation therapy. DNA is altered in exposed tissues and ischemic injury may be irreversible.
Complications include: severe blistering and desquamation, non-healing wounds, tissue fibrosis, permanent discoloration, and new malignancies

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5
Q

zone of coagulation

A

the area of the burn that received the most severe injury with irreversible cell damage

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6
Q

zone of stasis

A

the area of less severe injury that possesses reversible damage and surrounds the zone of coagulation

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7
Q

zone of hyperemia

A

the area surrounding the zone of stasis that presents with inflammation, but will fully recover without any intervention or permanent damage

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8
Q

superficial burn

A

involves only the outer epidermis. The involved area may be red with slight edema. Healing occurs without peeling or evidence of scarring in 2-5 days.

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9
Q

superficial partial-thickness burn

A

involves the epidermis and the upper portion of the dermis. The involved area may be extremely painful and exhibit blisters. Healing occurs with minimal to no scarring in 5-21 days.

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10
Q

deep partial-thickness burn

A

involves complete destruction of the epidermis and the majority of the dermis. The involved area may appear to be discolored with broken blisters and edema. Damage to nerve endings may result in only moderate levels of pain. Hypertrophic or keloid scarring may occur. In the absence of infection, healing will occur in 21-35 days.

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11
Q

full-thickness burn

A

involves complete destruction of the epidermis and dermis along with partial damage to the subcutaneous fat layer. The involved area typically presents with eschar formation and minimal pain. Pts with full-thickness burns require grafts and are susceptible to infection. Healing time varies significantly with smaller areas healing in a matter of weeks, with or without grafting, and larger areas requiring grafting and potentially months to heal.

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12
Q

subdermal burn

A

involves the complete destruction of the epidermis, dermis, and subcutaneous tissue. Subdermal burns may involve muscle and bone and as a result, often require multiple surgical interventions and extensive healing time.

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13
Q

serous exudate

A

presents with a clear, light color and a thin, watery consistency
considered to be normal in a healthy healing wound
observed during the inflammatory and proliferative phases of healing

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14
Q

sanguineous exudate

A

presents with a red color and a thin, watery consistency
the red appearance is due to the presence of blood which may become brown if allowed to dehydrate
may be indicative of new blood vessel growth or the disruption of blood vessels

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15
Q

serosanguineous exudate

A

presents with a light red or pink color and a thin, watery consistency
considered to be normal in a healthy healing wound
typically observed during the inflammatory and proliferative phases of healing

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16
Q

seropurulent

A
  • presents as cloudy or opaque, with a yellow or tan color and thin, watery consistency
  • may be an early warning sign of an impending infection a
  • always considered an abnormal finding
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17
Q

purulent

A
  • presents with a yellow or green and a thick, viscous consistency
  • generally an indicator of wound infection
  • always considered an abnormal finding
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18
Q

eschar tissue

A

described as hard or leathery, black/brown, dehydrated tissue that tends to be firmly adhered to the wound bed

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19
Q

gangrene tissue

A

 refers to the death and decay of tissue resulting from an interruption in blood flow to an area of the body
 some types of gangrene are also characterized by the presence of bacterial infection
 most commonly affects the extremities, but can also occur in muscles and internal organs

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20
Q

hyperkeratosis tissue

A

 also referred to as a callus
 typically white/grey in color and can vary in texture from firm to soggy depending on the moisture level in surrounding tissue

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21
Q

slough tissue

A

described as moist, stringy or mucinous, white/yellow tissue that tends to be loosely attached in clumps to the wound bed

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22
Q

contusion

A

an injury, usually caused by a blow, that does not disrupt skin integrity. The injury is characterized by pain, edema, and discoloration which appears as a result of blood seepage under the surface of the skin

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23
Q

dehiscence

A

The separation, rupture, or splitting of a wound closed by primary intention. This disruption of previously approximated surfaces may be superficial or involve all layers of tissue.

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24
Q

dermis

A

The vascular layer of skin located below the epidermis containing hair follicles, sebaceous glands, sweat glands, lymphatic and blood vessels, and nerve endings.

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25
Q

desiccated

A

The drying out or dehydration of a wound. Desiccation often results from poor dressing selection that does not control the evaporation of wound bed moisture.

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26
Q

desquamation

A

the peeling or shedding of the outer layers of the epidermis. Desquamation normally occurs in small scales, although certain conditions, injuries, and medications may cause peeling in larger scales or sheets and extend to deeper layers of the skin.

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27
Q

ecchymosis

A

The discoloration occurring below intact skin resulting from trauma to underlying blood vessels and blood seeping into the tissues. The discoloration is typically blue-black, changing in time to a greenish brown or yellow color.An area where ecchymosis is present is commonly referred to as a bruise.

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28
Q

epidermis

A

The superficial, avascular epithelial layer of the skin that includes flat, scale-like squamous cells, round basal cells, and melanocytes which produce melanin and gives skin its color.

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29
Q

erythema

A

A diffuse redness of the skin often resulting from capillary dilation and congestion or inflammation.

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30
Q

friable

A

Tissue that readily tears, fragments, or bleeds when gently palpated or manipulated.

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31
Q

hematoma

A

A localized swelling or mass of clotted blood confined to a tissue, organ, or space usually caused by a break in a blood vessel.

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32
Q

hypergranulation

A

increased thickness of the granular layer of the epidermis that exceeds the surface height of the skin

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33
Q

hyperpigmentation

A

an excess of pigment in a tissue that causes it to appear darker than surrounding tissues

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34
Q

hypertrophic scar

A

an abnormal scar resulting from excessive collagen formation during healing. A hypertrophic scar is typically raised, red, and firm with disorganized collagen fibers.

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35
Q

keloid

A

An abnormal scar formation that is out of proportion to the scarring required for normal tissue repair and is comprised of irregularly distributed collagen bands. A keloid scar typically exceeds the boundaries of the original wound appearing red, thick, raised, and firm.

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36
Q

maceration

A

the skin softening and degeneration that results from prolonged exposure to water or other fluids.

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37
Q

normotrophic scar

A

A scar characterized by the organized formation of collagen fibers that align in a parallel fashion.

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38
Q

turgor

A

The relative speed with which the skin resume its normal appearance after being lightly pitched. Turgor is an indicator of skin elasticity and hydration and normally occurs more slowly in older adults.

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39
Q

ulcer

A

An open sore or lesion of the skin accompanied by sloughing or inflamed necrotic tissue.

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40
Q

allograft (homograft)

A

a temporary skin graft taken from another human, usually a cadaver, in order to cover a large burned area

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41
Q

autograft

A

a permanent skin graft taken from a donor site on the pts own body

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42
Q

donor site

A

a site where healthy skin is taken and used as a graft

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43
Q

escharotomy

A

a surgical procedure that opens or removes eschar from a burn site to reduce tension on a surrounding structure, relieve pressure from interstitial edema, and subsequently enhance circulation

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44
Q

full-thickness graft

A

a skin graft that contains the dermis and epidermis

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45
Q

heterograft (xenograft)

A

a temporary skin graft taken from another species

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46
Q

mesh graft

A

a skin graft that is altered to create a mesh-like pattern in order to cover a larger surface area

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47
Q

recipient site

A

a site that has been burned and requires a graft

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48
Q

sheet graft

A

a skin graft that is transferred directly from the unburned donor site to the prepared recipient site

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49
Q

split-thickness graft

A

a skin graft that contains only a superficial layer of the dermis in addition to the epidermis

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50
Q

z-plasty

A

a surgical procedure to eliminate a scar contracture. an incision in the shape of a “z” allows the contracture to change configuration and lengthen the scar

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51
Q

contaminated

A

presence of non-replicating bacteria on a wound that causes no additional tissue injury and does not stimulate an inflammatory immune response

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52
Q

colonization

A

presence of replicating bacteria on a wound surface that does not invade or further injure tissues and does not stimulate an inflammatory immune response.
Colonization can delay wound healing, however, colonized bacteria occasionally benefit wound healing by preventing more virulent organisms from proliferating in the wound bed.

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53
Q

infection

A

the presence of replicating bacteria that invades viable tissue beyond the wound surface causing a visible inflammatory immune response. Infection will significantly delay wound healing and, if untreated, can progress to sepsis, osteomyelitis, and gangrene

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54
Q

abrasion

A

wound caused by a combination of friction and shear forces, typically over a rough surface, resulting in the scraping away fo the skins superficial layers

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55
Q

avulsion

A

a soft tissue avulsion, sometimes referred to as degloving, is a serious wound resulting from tension that causes skin to become detached from underlying structures

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56
Q

incisional wound

A

most often associated with surgery and is created intentionally by means of a sharp object such as a scalpel or scissors

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57
Q

laceration

A

a wound or irregular tear of tissues often associated with trauma
can result from shear, tension, or high force compression with the resultant wound characteristics dependent on the mechanism of injury

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58
Q

penetrating

A

a penetrating wound can result from various mechanisms of injury and is described as a wound that enters the interior of an organ or cavity

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59
Q

puncture

A

made by a sharp pointed object as it pentetrates the skin and underlying tissues
typically, there is relatively little tissue damage beyond the wound tract, however, the risks of contamination and infection can be significant

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60
Q

skin tear

A

often results from trauma to fragile skin such as bumping into an object, adhesive removal, shear or friction forces
the severity of a skin tear can range from a flap-like tear, that may or may not remain viable, to full-thickness tissue loss

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61
Q

aerobic metabolism

A

the ATP producing metabolic processes that are dependent on oxygen transported via the circulatory system.

typically provide energy for low intensity and/or longer duration activities

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62
Q

anabolism

A

the metabolic process in which simple molecules (e.g., nucleic acids, polysaccharides, amino acids) are combine to create the complex molecules (e.g., proteins) needed for tissue and organ growth

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63
Q

anaerobic metabolism

A

metabolic functions that do not require the presence of oxygen and produce energy for high intensity, shorter duration activities

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64
Q

adenosine triphosphate (ATP)

A

the molecular unit within the body which transports the chemical compounds used for cellular metabolism

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65
Q

catabolism

A

the metabolic process in which complex materials (e.g., proteins, lipids) are broken down in the body for the purpose of creating and releasing heat and energy

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66
Q

DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid)

A

a double helix molecule that contains the genes that provide the blueprint for all of the structures and functions of a living being

67
Q

gene

A

a fundamental unit of heredity

68
Q

metabolism

A

the physical and chemical processes of cells burning fuel to produce and use energy.

Examples include digestion, elimination of waste, breathing, thermoregulation, muscular contraction, brain function, and circulation

69
Q

mitochondria

A

the part of the cell that is responsible for energy production.

the mitochondria are also responsible for converting nutrients into energy and other specialized tasks

70
Q

osteopenia

A

a condition presenting with low bone mass that is not severe enough to qualify as osteoporosis.

individuals with osteopenia may not have actual bone loss, but a naturally lower bone density than established norms

71
Q

osteopetrosis

A

a group of conditions characterized by impaired osteoclast function which causes bone to become thickened but fragile.

osteopetrosis is an inherited condition that can vary widely in symptoms and severity

72
Q

pH

A

a measure of the hydrogen ion concentration in body fluid

73
Q

acromegaly

A

increase in growth hormone (giantism)

enlarged face, hands, feet

74
Q

hirsutism

A

unwanted male-pattern hair growth in females

75
Q

galactorrhea

A

abnormal lactation in males or females

76
Q

gynecomastia

A

enlarged breasts in males

77
Q

exophthalmos

A

bulging of eye anteriorly out of the orbit

also called - exophthalmus, exophthalmia, proptosis, or exorbitism

78
Q

macrosomia

A

larger than normal size child at birth

79
Q

adhesion

A

fibrous bands of tissue that bind together normally separate anatomic structures

80
Q

anastomosis

A

joining of two ducts, blood vessels, or bowel segments to allow flow from one to the other. An anastomosis may be naturally occurring or may be created during embryonic development, surgery, or by pathologic means

81
Q

ascites

A

fluid in the peritoneal cavity, usually causing abdominal swelling

82
Q

barium

A

a substance that, when swallowed or given rectally as an enema, makes the upper GI tract visible on x-ray

83
Q

biopsy

A

removal of a sample of tissue taken from the body for study, usually under a microscope

84
Q

colectomy

A

the surgical removal of part or all of the colon

85
Q

colonoscopy

A

visual inspection of the interior of the colon with a flexible, lighted instrument inserted through the rectum

86
Q

colostomy

A

the surgical creation of an opening from the colon through the abdominal wall

87
Q

constipation

A

infrequent or difficult passage of stool, secondary to an increase in the hardness of the stool

88
Q

diarrhea

A

abnormal frequency or volume of stool that often appears as a symptom of certain GI pathologies

89
Q

endoscopy

A

a method of physical examination using a lighted, flexible instrument that allows a physician to examine the inside of the digestive tract

90
Q

endosonography

A

a diagnostic tool used to visualize the GI organs using high-frequency sound waves

91
Q

enema

A

injection of fluid into the rectum and colon to induce a bowel movement

92
Q

esophagus

A

a muscular tube connecting the pharynx with the stomach

93
Q

fecal diversion

A

surgical creation of an opening of part of the colon or small intestine to the surface of the skin to allow for stool to exit the body

94
Q

fecal incontinence

A

inability to retain stool, resulting in leakage of stool from the rectum

95
Q

fecal occult blood test

A

a lab test used to check a stool sample for blood

96
Q

fistula

A

an abnormal or surgically made passage that forms between two internal organs or between two different parts of the intestine

97
Q

gas

A

a product of digestion that is made primarily of odorless vapors

98
Q

gastrectomy

A

surgical procedure in which all or part of the stomach is removed

99
Q

gastric

A

pertaining to the stomach

100
Q

gastroscopy

A

procedure to examine the upper GI tract using an endoscope which is passed through the mouth and into the stomach

101
Q

heartburn

A

a form of indigestion

102
Q

Helicobacter pylori

A

a type of bacterium that causes infection in the stomach. The bacterium is often the causative agent in peptic ulcers

103
Q

ileocolectomy

A

surgical removal of a section of the ileum and ascending colon

104
Q

ileostomy

A

the surgical creating of an opening from the ileum through the abdominal wall

105
Q

jaundice

A

a condition in which the skin and eyes turn yellow because of increased levels of bilirubin in the blood

106
Q

laparoscopy

A

a surgical diagnostic procedure utilizing a fiber optic instrument inserted through the abdominal wall to view organs

107
Q

large intestine

A

the portion of the digestive tract made up of the ascending colon, transverse colon, descending colon, sigmoid colon, and appendix. the large intestine receives the liquid contents from the small intestine and absorbs the water and electrolytes from this liquid to form feces or waste

108
Q

laxative

A

medications that increase the action of the intestines or stimulate the addition of water to the stool to facilitate bowel evacuation

109
Q

mesentery

A

a fold of the peritoneum that carries blood vessels and lymph glands, and attaches various organs to the abdominal wall

110
Q

paracentesis

A

the removal of accumulated fluid from the abdomen

111
Q

peristalsis

A

involuntary contraction and relaxation fo the muscles of the intestines which propel food

112
Q

polyps (colon)

A

small, non-cancerous growths on the inner lining of the colon

113
Q

small intestine

A

the portion of the digestive tract that first receives food from the stomach. The small intestine is comprised of the duodenum, jejunum, and ileum

114
Q

stoma

A

an artificial opening of the intestine through the abdominal wall

115
Q

thrombosis

A

the formation of a blood clot in a blood vessel

116
Q

ulcers

A

a break in the lining of the stomach or duodenum

117
Q

varices

A

large, swollen veins that develop in the esophagus or stomach, often causing internal bleeding

118
Q

vomiting

A

the forcible expulsion of the contents of the stomach through the mouth

119
Q

anuria

A

inadequate urine output in a 24-hour period;

less than 100 ml (e.g., severe dehydration, shock, end-stage renal disease)

120
Q

benign prostatic hypertrophy

A

a non-cancerous enlargement of the prostate gland that is progressive. common in males over 60 and can interfere with normal voiding

121
Q

cystocele

A

bulging of the bladder into the vagina

122
Q

ectopic

A

implantation of a fertilized ovum outside of the uterus. The fallopian tube is the most common site of an ectopic pregnancy.

123
Q

endometrium

A

the inner lining of the uterus that is shed monthly in response to hormonal influence

124
Q

glomerular filtration rate

A

an estimate of the filtering capacity of the kidneys; volume of filtrate produced per minute by the kidneys

125
Q

glomerulus

A

the specialized tuft of capillaries that are needed for the filtration of fluid as blood passes through the arterioles of the kidneys

126
Q

hematuria

A

presence of blood in the urine (e.g., cancer, faulty catheterization, serious disease)

127
Q

impotence

A

impairment with ejaculation, orgasm, erection, and/or libido

128
Q

myometrium

A

the muscular outer layer of the uterus

129
Q

nephrolithiasis

A

the condition of developing kidney stones. There are various types of crystal formations that create stones.

130
Q

nocturia

A

urinary frequency at night (e.g., diabetes mellitus, congestive heart failure)

131
Q

oliguria

A

inadequate urine output in a 24-hour period; less than 400 ml (e.g., acute renal failure, diabetes mellitus)

132
Q

polyuria

A

large volume of urine excreted at one time (e.g., diabetes mellitus, chronic renal failure)

133
Q

perimetrium

A

the serous peritoneal coat of the uterus

134
Q

radical mastectomy

A

a surgical procedure in which the entire breast, pectoral muscles, axillary lymph nodes, and some skin are removed usually secondary to breast cancer

135
Q

rectocele

A

the bulging of the anterior wall of the rectum into the vagina secondary to weakening of the pelvic supporting structures

136
Q

seminiferous tubules

A

coiled tubes found within each lobe of the testes where spermatogenesis takes place

137
Q

urea

A

major nitrogen-containing end product of protein metabolism normally cleared from the blood by the kidney into the urine

138
Q

urinary frequency

A

voiding more than 8x in a 24-hour period.
Etiology may include overactive bladder, reduced bladder capacity, painful bladder syndrome, or increased urine output caused by uncontrolled DM

139
Q

urinary urgency

A

the sudden desire to urinate that is stronger than usual and difficult to defer.
Etiology may include detrusor overactivity, bladder infection, inflammation or the presence of a foreign body such as stones or tumors.
Urgency may lead to urinary urge incontinence

140
Q

adjuvant

A

treatment provided, in addition to other cure-focused interventions, with the intention of preventing cancer recurrence

141
Q

benign neoplasm

A

an abnormal cell growth that is usually slow growing and harmless, closely resembling the composition of adjacent tissues

142
Q

cancer

A

group of disease characterized by uncontrolled cell proliferation with mutation and spreading of the abnormal cells. The etiology is based on the type and location of the cancer. The most common causes include cigarette smoking, diet and nutrition, chemical agents, physical agents, environmental causes, viral causes, and genetics

143
Q

differentiated cells

A

cells that have matured from a less specific to a more specific cell type

144
Q

dysplasia

A

an abnormal development of cells or tissue that is often an early sign of neoplasia

145
Q

hyperplasia

A

an increase in cell number that may be normal or abnormal depending on additional characteristics

146
Q

malignant neoplasm

A

an abnormal uncontrolled cell growth that invades and destroys adjacent tissues and may metastasize to other sites and systems of the body

147
Q

metaplasia

A

a change in a cell from one type to another that may be normal or abnormal

148
Q

neoadjuvant

A

chemotherapy or radiation given prior to surgical oncology intervention

149
Q

tumor (neoplasm)

A

an abnormal new growth of tissue that increases the overall tissue mass. Tumors are benign (non-cancerous) or malignant (cancerous) as well as primary or secondary.
Primary tumors form from cells that belong to the area of the tumor.
Secondary Tumors grow from cells that have metastasized from another affected area within the body.
Tumor classification is defined by cell type, tissue or origin, amount of differentiation, benign versus malignant, and anatomic site

150
Q

undifferentiated cells

A

cells which have not differentiated into a specific type (e.g., primitive, embryonic) or have no special structure or function

151
Q

enteral administration

A

involves the use of the GI tract for administration of the drug

oral, sublingual, and rectal

152
Q

parenteral administration

A

involves any form of drug administration that does not involve the GI tract

inhalation, topical, transdermal, injection (IV, intra-arterial, subcutaneous, intramuscular, intrathecal)

153
Q

bioavailability

A

refers to the percentage of a drug that makes it into the systemic circulation from the site of original administration. Bioavailability will vary depending on how much the drug becomes degraded before reaching the systemic circulation.

A drug that is injected through IV is 100% bioavailable

154
Q

chemical name

A

the name for the drug’s specific compound structure

e.g., N-acetyl-p-aminophenol

155
Q

dose-response curve

A

graphic representation of the relationship between the dosage of a drug and the bodys response to that drug.
As the dosage of a drug increases, more receptors for the drug become activated which increases the body’s response to the drug.
However, the body’s response will plateau at a certain dosage.
The dose-response curve can be used to compare the potency of two different drugs.

156
Q

generic name

A

the official name given to a drug that is derived from its chemical name (e.g., acetaminophen)

157
Q

half-life

A

refers to the rate of elimination of the drug.
if the drug has a half-life of 2 hours and 4,000 units of the drug are administered initially, then only 2,000 units will remain after 2 hours and only 1,000 units will remain after 4 hours.

158
Q

pharmacodynamics

A

the study of how a drug exerts its therapeutic effect on the body at the cellular or organ level

159
Q

pharmacotherapeutics

A

the division of pharmacology that deals with the use of drugs for preventing, treating, and diagnosing diseases

160
Q

pharmacokinetics

A

the study of how drugs are absorbed, distributed, metabolized, and eliminated by the body

161
Q

therapeutic index

A

the therapeutic index (TI) is a measurement of the safety of a drug.
It is calculated as a ratio and compares the effectiveness of a drug against its lethal effects.
A drug with a low TI indicates that the drug is less safe, resulting in pts taking these drugs being frequently monitored for adverse reactions.

162
Q

toxicology

A

the division of pharmacology that studies the adverse affects of drugs

163
Q

trade name

A

the brand name of a drug that is assigned by the pharmaceutical company (e.g., tylenol)
there can be several trade names for a single drug if there are multiple companies manufacturing it

SCOREBUILDERS NPTE VOCAB (5 decks)

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