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SCOREBUILDERS NPTE VOCAB > Non-systems > Flashcards

Non-systems Flashcards

1
Q

buoyancy

A

archimedes’ principle of buoyancy states that there is an upward force on the body when immersed in water equal to the amount of water that has been displaced by the body

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2
Q

resistance (aquatics)

A

water molecules tend to attract to each other and provide resistance to movement of the body in water. The resistance of water increases in proportion to the speed of motion.

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3
Q

specific gravity

A

the specific gravity of water is equal to 1.0.
The human body varies based on size and somatotype, but typically has a specific gravity of less than 1.0 (average 0.974).
Therefore, a person will generally float when submerged in water

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4
Q

specific heat

A

the measure of the ability of a fluid to store heat.
This is calculated as the amount of thermal energy required to increase the fluid’s temperature by one unit.
Water has a specific heat of 1.0 calorie/gram while air has a specific heat of .001 calorie/gram.

Water, therefore, retains heat 1,000 times more than a equivalent volume of air

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5
Q

total surface drag

A

comprised of profile drag, wave drag, and surface drag forces.
This is a hydromechanic force exerted on a person submerged in water that normally opposes the direction of the body’s motion.

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6
Q

viscosity

A

refers to the magnitude of the cohesive forces between the molecules specific to the fluid.
The greater the viscosity of the fluid, the greater the force required to create movement of the fluid

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7
Q

fibrillation potentials

A

indicative of a LMW disease

spontaneous

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8
Q

positive sharp wave

A

denervated muscle disorders at rest, primary muscle disease such as muscular dystrophy

spontaneous

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9
Q

fasciculations

A

irritation/degeneration of anterior horn cell, nerve root compression, or muscle spasms

spontaneous

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10
Q

repetitive discharges

A

myopathies, lesion of anterior horn cells and peripheral nerves

spontaneous

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11
Q

polyphasic potentials

A

myopathies, muscle or peripheral nerve involvement

voluntary

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12
Q

electric current

A

directed flow of charge from one place to another

measured in amperes

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13
Q

voltage

A

measure of electromotive force or the electrical potential difference

the magnitude of difference between the positive and negative poles

measured in volts

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14
Q

resistance

A

ability of a material to oppose the flow of ions through it

measured in ohms

ohms law: Resistance = Voltage / Current

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15
Q

rheobase

A

the minimum current amplitude of indefinite duration required to produce an action potential for any type of tissue

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16
Q

conduction

A

gain or loss of heat resulting from direct contact between two materials at different temperatures

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17
Q

convection

A

gain or loss of heat resulting from air or water moving in a constant motion across the body

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18
Q

conversion

A

heating that occurs when nonthermal energy (e.g., mechanical, electrical) is absorbed into tissue and transformed into heat

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19
Q

evaporation

A

transfer of heat that occurs as a liquid absorbs energy and changes form into a vapor

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20
Q

radiation

A

direct transfer of heat from a radiation energy source of higher temperature to one of a cooler temperature

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21
Q

Sequestration

A

stage of herniation in which the nucleus pulposus breaks through the annulus fibrosis and lies outside the disk in the spinal canal.

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22
Q

cavitation

A

formation of gas-filled bubbles that expand and compress secondary to pressure changes caused by ultrasound

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23
Q

acoustic microstreaming

A

unidirectional movement of fluids along the boundaries of cell membranes caused by ultrasound

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24
Q

Effective Radiating Area (ERA)

A

refers to the area of the transducer that transmits US energy

always smaller than the size of the transducer head

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25
Q

spatial-averaged intensity

A

intensity of the US beam averaged over the area of the transducer

calculated by dividing power output in watts by total ERA of the soundhead in cm2

(W/cm2)

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26
Q

spatial-peak intensity

A

intensity of the ultrasound beam at its highest point

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27
Q

Beam non-uniformity ratio (BNR)

A

ratio between the spatial-peak intensity and spatial-averaged intensity

lower BNR is more favorable (higher quality crystal = lower BNR)

the higher the BNR - the more rapid the transducer needs to be moved to decrease undesirable effects

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28
Q

attenuation

A

describes the inevitable decrease in energy intensity as the US waves travels through various tissues

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29
Q

nosocomial infections

A

infection that is acquired during a hospitalization

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30
Q

asepsis

A

elimination of the microorganisms that cause infection and the creation of a sterile field

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31
Q

contamination

A

term used to describe an area, surface, or item coming in contact with something that is not sterile.
contamination assumes an environment that contains microorganisms

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32
Q

medical asepsis

A

technique that attempts to contain pathogens to a specific area, object, or person.
A primary goal is to reduce the spread of pathogens.
EX) pt with TB is hospitalized and kept in isolation

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33
Q

surgical asepsis

A

a state in which an area or object is without any microorganisms.
EX) a sterile field

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34
Q

autonomy

A

requires that the wishes of competent individuals must be honored. Autonomy is often referred to as self-determination

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35
Q

beneficence

A

a moral obligation of health care providers to act for the benefit of others

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36
Q

confidentiality

A

the holding of professional secrets or discussions. Keeping client information within appropriate limits.

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37
Q

duty

A

the obligations that individuals have to others in society

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38
Q

fidelity

A

related to confidentiality and is defined as the moral duty to keep commitments that have been promised

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39
Q

justice

A

the quality of being just and fair; righteousness

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40
Q

nonmaleficence

A

the obligation of health care providers to above else, do no harm

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41
Q

paternalism

A

a term used when someone fails to recognize another individuals rights and autonomy

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42
Q

rights

A

the ability to take advantage of a moral entitlement to do something or not to do something

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43
Q

veracity

A

obligation of health care providers to tell the truth

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44
Q

abandonment

A

unacceptable one-sided termination of services by a HCP without pt consent or agreement

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45
Q

administrative law

A

administrative agencies at the federal and state level develop rules and regulations to supplement statutes and executive orders

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46
Q

common law

A

refers to court decisions in the absence of statutory law. Common law often creates legal precedent in areas where statutes have not be enacted

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47
Q

informed consent

A

pt is required to sign a document and give permission to the HCP to render treatment. This should be obtained from the pt in accordance with the standards of practice prior to initiation of treatment. the pt has the right to full disclosure of treatment procedures, risks, expected outcomes, and goals

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48
Q

malpractice

A

the failure to exercise the skills that would normally be exercise by other members of the profession with similar skills and training. This can include areas of professional negligence, breach of contract issues, and intentional conduct by a HCP

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49
Q

negligence

A

the failure to do what a reasonable and prudent person would ordinarily have done under the same or similar circumstances for a given situation.

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50
Q

risk management

A

the identification, analysis, and evaluation of risks and the selection of the most advantageous method for treating them

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51
Q

statutory law

A

congress and state legislatures are responsible for enacting statutes. Examples of federal statutes affecting health care include the ADA and the Family and Medical Leave Act

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52
Q

tort

A

a private or civil wrong or injury, involving omission and/or commission

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53
Q

self-actualization needs

A

the need to realize one’s full potential as a human being

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54
Q

esteem needs

A

the need to feel good about oneself and one’s capabilities, to be respected by others, and to receive recognition and appreciation

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55
Q

affiliative needs

A

the need for security, stability, and a safe environment

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56
Q

physiological needs

A

the need for basic things necessary in order to survive such as food, water, and shelter

57
Q

positive reinforcement

A

administering desirable consequences to individuals who perform a specific behavior

58
Q

negative reinforcement

A

removing undesirable consequences from individuals who perform a specific behavior

59
Q

extinction

A

removing selected variables that reinforce a specific behavior

60
Q

punishment

A

administering negative consequences to individuals who perform undesirable behaviors

61
Q

continuous reinforcement

A

a behavior is reinforced every time it occurs

62
Q

partial reinforcement

A

a behavior is reinforced intermittently

63
Q

fixed-interval schedule

A

the period of time between the occurrences of each instance of reinforcement is fixed or set

64
Q

variable-interval schedule

A

the amount of time between reinforcements varies around a constant average

65
Q

population

A

the complete collection of elements to be studied. the group to which the results of research are intended to be generalized.

66
Q

Sample

A

A subset of elements drawn from a population to draw conclusions or make estimates about the larger population

67
Q

sampling error

A

The chance difference between the statistic calculated from a sample and the true value of the parameter in the population. Sampling error is inherent in the use of sampling methods.

68
Q

Sampling with replacement

A

A sampling method in which each unit that is selected for the sample is put back into the population before the next unit Is drawn from the sample. This results in each unit truly having an equal chance of being selected throughout the sampling process. This method of sampling is rarely used in research on human subjects.

69
Q

Sampling without replacement

A

A sampling method in which a unit selected from the population is no returned to the population and therefore, cannot be selected again for the same sample. Thus, the size of the population decreases as the size of the sample increases.

70
Q

Simple random sampling

A

Subjects have an equal chance of being selected for the sample. The sampling method often relies on a table of random numbers or a random number generator on a computer to determine the sample. However, simple random sampling is not the most statistically efficient method of sampling and may not result in a representative sample, since it is the luck of the draw.

71
Q

Systematic sampling

A

Subjects are selected by taking every nth subject from the population. The size of the intervals is based on the size of the population and the desired sample size. The greatest advantage associated with this sampling technique is its simplicity.

72
Q

Stratified random sampling

A

Also called proportional or quota random sampling, the population is divided into homogenous subgroups (strata) and then a simple random sample is drawn from each. Stratified random sampling assures that the sample will be representative of key subgroups of the population in addition to the overall population.

73
Q

Probability sampling

A

A method of sampling that uses some form of random selection. Every member of the population must have the same probability of being selected for the sample, since the sample should be free of bias and representative of the population. Examples of probability sampling: simple random sampling, systematic sampling, stratified random sampling, cluster sampling.

74
Q

Cluster sampling

A

The population is divided into clusters or areas (usually along geographic boundaries) and a random sample of the clusters is selected. Then, all of the units in the selected samples are measured.

75
Q

Non-probability sampling

A

Any method of sampling that does not involve random selection of subjects. Examples include: convenience sampling, purposive sampling, quota sampling, and snowball sampling

76
Q

Convenience sampling

A

The sample is selected from subjects who are convenient or readily available to the researcher

77
Q

Purposive sampling

A

Subjects are deliberately selected base on predefined criteria chosen by the investigators

78
Q

Quota sampling

A

Similar to stratified random sampling, except that subjects form each subgroup are not selected randomly. After identifying the subgroups or strata of interest from the population, the researcher uses convenience sampling to select the required number of subjects from each stratum

79
Q

Snowball sampling

A

Subjects are identified by asking existing subjects to identify the names of other potential participants. Snowball sampling is used when the characteristic to be studied is rare and it would be extremely difficult and closely to identify individuals with this characteristic

80
Q

clinical trial

A

A type of research design that tests how well methods of screening, prevention, diagnosis, or treatment of a disease will work in people

81
Q

completely randomized design

A

Subjects are randomly assigned to different groups and each group receives a unique intervention. The outcomes of the different groups are compared at the end of the trial. This method is also known as a parallel groups design.

82
Q

crossover design

A

Subject receives both treatments (e.g., treatment and control) in random order separated by a period of no treatment. In this design, each subject serves as their own control.

83
Q

factorial design

A

Two or more independent variables are investigated with different subjects assigned to the various combinations of levels of the independent variables

84
Q

pretest-posttest control group design

A

Compares the outcomes of two or more groups formed by random assignment by testing all groups before and after the treatment. This represents the basic format of a randomized controlled trial.

85
Q

posttest only control group design

A

Compares the outcomes of two or more groups formed by random assignment by testing all groups only after the treatment

86
Q

Randomized controlled trial (RCT)

A

A clinical trial in which a group of individuals is randomly assigned to an experimental group and a control group

87
Q

Repeated measures design

A

Subject are tested under all conditions; therefore, each person acts as their own control. This is also known as within-subjects design.

88
Q

Sequential clinical trial

A

The data are analyzed as they become available, so the trial can be stopped as soon as the evidence is sufficient to show a significant difference between treatments

89
Q

Single-subject design

A

Permits drawing conclusions about the effects of a treatment based on the response of a single patient. Single-subject designs are characterized by the use of repeated measurement of a response over time and at least 2 test periods or phases: a baseline phase (A) prior to treatment and an intervention phase (B) after treatment. The baseline and intervention phases may be replicated to create a number of designs (e.g., A-B; A-B-A; A-B-A-B)

90
Q

Quasi-experimental design

A

A type of research design without a control group, random assignment of subjects to group, or both.

91
Q

One-group pretest-posttest design

A

A type of quasi-experimental research design in which measurements are made on one group of subjects before and after treatment. Time is the independent variable, with 2 levels (pretest and posttest)

92
Q

One-way repeated measures design over time

A

An extension of the one-group pretest-posttest design in which measurements are made on one group of subjects at multiple, prescribed time intervals. The intervention may be administered once or it may be repeated. If more than two measurements are made, trends over time may be evaluated by polynomial contrasts

93
Q

Time series design

A

A type of quasi-experimental research design in which multiple measurements are made before and after treatment to observe patterns or trends during the pretreatment and posttreatment periods.

94
Q

blinding

A

A term used to describe conditions that are imposed to keep groups of individuals from knowing which subjects have or have not received an intervention. Sometimes called masking, blinding is used to reduce bias and the placebo effect.

95
Q

single blind

A

Subjects are unaware of the research hypothesis and the group to which they were assigned until the end of the study

96
Q

double blind

A

Subjects and certain members of the research team are unaware of the research hypothesis and the group to which each subject was assigned until the end of the study.

97
Q

triple blind

A

The subject, certain members of the research team, and data analyzers are unaware of the research hypothesis and the group to which each subject was assigned until the end of the study.

98
Q

control group

A

In a clinical trial, the control group against which the treatment group is compared. The control group should be statistically identical to the treatment group, except for the variable of interest that is being evaluated in the experiment. Control groups are used to help isolate the effect of the independent variable and eliminate the unintended influence of extraneous factors that can confound the results. The two most common forms of control are placebo and active.

99
Q

active control

A

A known effective form of treatment in a clinical trial against which the experimental treatment is compared. When an effective treatment is available, it is unethical to use a placebo control for comparison to the experimental treatment.

100
Q

placebo control

A

An inactive substance or treatment that looks the same as and is administered in the same way as an active drug or treatment.

101
Q

matching/pairing

A

In research, a strategy for attempting to control for differences between subjects. Investigators identify pairs of subjects who have identical characteristics (e.g., weight, age, race) before randomizing them to ensure that the resultant groups are balance don important variables that may affect the outcome. Using identical twins is a classic example of matching.

102
Q

intention-to-treat analysis

A

A method of analysis in which all subjects randomly assigned to one of the treatments are analyzed together, regardless of whether they received or completed that treatment. The method preserves the original balance of subject groups achieved through randomization.

103
Q

external validity

A

The degree to which results of the research study are generalizable to populations or circumstances beyond those included in the study. Threats to external validity include the interaction of treatment with the specific type of subjects tested and the place (setting) and time (history) in which the experiment is performed

104
Q

internal validity

A

The degree to which an intervention being evaluated (independent variable) is the cause of the outcome measured in the study (dependent variable) and not the result of extraneous factors. Threats to internal validity include history, maturation, attrition, testing, instrumentation, and regression toward the mean.

105
Q

randomization

A

A means to assigning subjects to group in an experiment so that each subject has an equal chance of being assigned to each group. The most robust method of random assignment is accomplished by computer-generated random numbers or random number tables.

106
Q

Hawthorne effect

A

An untreated subject experiences a change simply from participating in a research study. The tendency for individuals to change their behavior in response to the fact that they are being observed or studied.

107
Q

placebo effect

A

A phenomenon in which an inactive treatment or procedure that is intended to mimic a real treatment causes an improvement in the patient’s condition simply because the patient has the expectation that it will be helpful.

108
Q

Hypothesis

A

A tentative statement to explain certain observations or facts that requires further experimentation to be verified

109
Q

Alternate hypothesis

Ha or H1

A

Also known as the experimental hypothesis, the alternate hypothesis is a statement that the population parameter has a value that different from the null hypothesis. In hypothesis testing, the alternate hypothesis is accepted when the null hypothesis is rejected.

110
Q

Null hypothesis (H0)

A

Also known as the statistical hypothesis, the null hypothesis is a statement that the value of a population parameter (e.g., mean, proportion or correlation coefficient) is equal to some claimed value. The null hypothesis is tested statistically by inferential statistics.

111
Q

Independent variable

A

The variable that is presumed to have caused or influenced the dependent variable. In research, the independent variable is what is controlled or manipulated by the researcher.

112
Q

Dependent variable

A

The response or outcome assumed to be caused by the effect of the independent variable

113
Q

p-value

A

Probability that a particular statistical result could have happened by chance. When the p-value is smaller than stated value of alphas, or level of significance, null hypothesis is rejected. When the p-value is larger than the stated value of alpha, or level of significance, null hypothesis is not rejected.

114
Q

alpha level (a level)

A

Also known as the significance level, the probability of rejecting the null hypothesis when it is true, or the chance of committing a Type 1 error. Traditional values for alpha are 0.05 and 0.01.

115
Q

type 1 error (alpha error)

A

The error the researcher makes when wrongly deciding to reject the null hypothesis, concluding that there is a difference or relationship when there is not. If the level of significance is set at 0.01, there is a 1% chance of a Type 1 error occurring. A type 1 error is a false positive finding.

116
Q

type 2 error (beta error)

A

The error the researcher makes when wrongly deciding not to reject the null hypothesis, concluding that there is no difference or relationship when there is. A type 2 error is a false negative finding.

117
Q

statistically significant

A

A statistical conclusion made when the probability is small that the difference between groups or the relationship between variables happened by chance.

118
Q

statistical power

A

Refers to the chance that a statistical test will lead to rejection of a false null hypothesis (i.e., find a “statistically significant” result

119
Q

effect size (ES)

A

A measure of the magnitude of the difference between two treatments or the magnitude of the relationship between two variables. The larger the ES, the more likely it will be statistically significant. ES is one of the statistical elements used to estimate sample size and perform a power analysis.

120
Q

effect size index

A 
A statistic that represents effect size using a standardized value. Generally, the effect size index is calculated by taking the difference between the two groups (e.g., the mean of the treatment group minus the mean of the control group) and dividing it by the standard deviation of one of the groups. To interpret the resulting index, this general guide is used: 
< 0.1 = trivial effect 
0.1	– 0.3 = small effect 
0.2	– 0.5 = moderate effect 
> 0.5 = large effect
121
Q

minimally clinically important difference (CMID)

A

The smallest difference in a patient’s condition that the patient or clinician considers worthwhile and that would, in the absence of side effects and excessive cost, warrant a change in the patient’s management. The MCID is an important concept for judging if changes reported in a research study indicate a meaningful or trivial effect on the patient’s status. The MCID is also known as the minimal clinically significant difference (MCSD)

122
Q

Minimal detectable difference (MDD)

A

The minimum detectable change in a patient’s condition beyond the threshold of measurement error. MDD represents the smallest difference or change that would be statistically significant. The standard error of measurement is a common statistic used to determine the MDD. MDD is also known as minimal detectable change (MDC)

123
Q

parameter

A

A numerical measurement describing some characteristic of a population. Parameters are rarely known and usually estimated by statistics computed from a sample. In research publications, Greek letters are used to designate parameters. For example,  (mu) is the symbol for the mean of the population and  (sigma) is the symbol for the standard deviation of the population.

124
Q

statistic

A

A numerical measurement describing some characteristic of a sample. Statistics are used to estimate population parameters. In research publications, English letters are used to designate statistics. For example, x̄ and M is the symbol for the sample mean and s is the symbol for the sample standard deviation.

125
Q

risk factor

A

something that increases the chance of developing a condition or disease

126
Q

incidence

A

the number of new cases of a particular disease or condition in the population at risk during a specified time interval.
Often expressed as the number of new cases per 100,000 people at risk.

127
Q

prevalence

A

the number of existing cases of a disease or condition at a point in time, including new and pre-existing cases.
Often expressed as the number of existing cases per 100,000 people at risk.

128
Q

Relative Risk (RR)

A

a measure of the risk of a certain event happening in one group compared to the risk of the same event happening in another group.
Ratio of 1.0 means the event is equally probably in both groups; > 1.0 implies that exposure increases the risk; < 1.0 implies the exposure decreases the risk.

129
Q

odds ratio (OR)

A

a measure of the odds of an event happening in one group compared to the odds of the same event happening in another group.
An odds ratio of 1.0 means that the exposure probably does not increase the risk of developing the disease; OR > 1.0 means that exposure may increase risk of getting the disease; OR < 1.0 means exposure may reduce the risk.

130
Q

number needed to treat (NNT)

A

the number of patients that need to be treated to prevent 1 bad outcome or result in 1 additional good outcome.
The ideal NNT is 1, where everyone improves with treatment.
The higher the NNT, the less effective the treatment

131
Q

sensitivity

A

When referring to a medical test, sensitivity refers to the percentage of people who test positive for a specific disease among a group of people who have the disease

132
Q

specificity

A

When referring to a medical test, specificity refers to the percentage of people who test negative for a specific disease among a group of people who do not have the disease

133
Q

false negative test

A

A test that indicates a person does not have a specific disease or condition when the person actually does have the disease or condition

134
Q

false positive test

A

A test that indicates a person has a specific disease or condition when the person actually does not have the disease or condition

135
Q

negative predictive value

A

The ability of a diagnostic test to correctly determine the proportion of patients without the disease from all the patients with negative test results

136
Q

positive predictive value

A

The ability of a diagnostic test to correctly determine the proportion of patients with the disease from all the patients with positive test results

137
Q

SpPin

A

A mnemonic used to remember the relationship between a diagnostic or screening test with a high specificity value and the confidence we have in ruling in the diagnosis. In a test with high specificity, a positive diagnostic test rules in the diagnosis.

138
Q

SnNout

A

A mnemonic used to remember the relationship between a diagnostic or screening test with a high sensitivity value and the confidence we have in ruling out the diagnosis. In a test with high sensitivity, a negative diagnostic test rules out the diagnosis

SCOREBUILDERS NPTE VOCAB (5 decks)

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