Other Limitations and Knowledge Flashcards

1
Q

Is the aircraft certified for ditching when appropriate safety equipment is installed?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Maneuvering Load Limit Flaps Up

A

+2.6 to -1.0

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Maneuvering Load Limit Flaps Extended

A

+2.0 to 0.0

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Maximum Pressure Altitude for Flight

A

FL450

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

When Type II, III, IV anti-icing funds have been applied the wing anti-ice system must only be selected on…?

A

just prior to thrust application for takeoff.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

In accordance with FCOM, Supplement 1, -Cold Weather Operations, takeoff IS permitted with frost adhering to the:

(2)

A

a) underside of the wing that is caused by cod soaked fuel.

b) Upper surface of the fuselage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Selecting the AIR SOURCE switch to TRIM AIR ONLY is prohibited when?

A

The aircraft is on the ground

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The ________ must be operating when the aircraft electrical power is ON for more than 30 minutes and the OAT is >40C (104F)

A

PACK

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Crew and Passenger oxygen masks are only approved up to what cabin altitude?

A

40,000 feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Prolonged operation of passenger oxygen masks above what altitude is not recommended?

A

25,000 feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Maximum differential pressure on the ground is?

A

0.1 psi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Maximum differential pressure during landing must not exceed?

A

1.0 psi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Maximum positive differential pressure is?

A

9.4 psi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Maximum negative differential pressure is?

A

-0.5 psi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Autopilot minimum engaged height on Climbs, Enroute flight, and Descent is?

A

700’ AGL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Autopilot minimum use height on a Precision Approach with a glide slope angle of 3.5 degrees or less is?

A

80’ AGL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Autopilot minimum use height on a Precision Approach with a glide slope angle between 3.5 to 4.5 degrees is?

A

160’ AGL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Autopilot minimum use height on a Visual or Non-Precision approach is?

A

200’ AGL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Maximum altitude with Yaw Damper OFF is?

A

31,000’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Required Equipment for RVSM?

A
  1. Operational Autopilot
  2. Operational Altitude Alerting System
  3. One Operational Altitude Reporting Transponder
  4. Two Operational Air Data Computers
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

To use the FMS as a Navigation Source it must be receiving navigation information from the following:

A

a. Two GNSS -or-
b. Two DMEs -or-
c. One VOR/DME -or-
d. One IRS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Use of the FMS Secondary flight plan function is?

A

Prohibited

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Use of FMS navigation South of 60 degrees S is?

A

Prohibited

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Use of FMS navigation North of 73 degrees N is?

A

Prohibited

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

RNP APCH CDI Scale is?

A

0.3 nm

26
Q

Basic RNP-1 CDI Scale is?

A

1.0 nm

27
Q

RNP-2 CDI Scale is?

A

2.0 nm

28
Q

RNP-4 CDI Scale is?

A

4.0 nm

29
Q

RNP-10 CDI Scale is?

A

4.0 nm

30
Q

What must be annunciated on the PFD in order to use an FMS approach?

A

RNP APPR or LPV APPR

31
Q

What type of approach is prohibited with the Standby Instrument?

A

Localizer Backcourse

32
Q

Do not extend the Flaps above?

A

FL180

33
Q

Do not extend Flight Spoilers except during an ___________?

A

Emergency Condition

34
Q

Flight Spoilers must not be extended in flight at airspeeds below?

A

Approach Speed +8 KIAS

35
Q

Flight Spoilers must not be extended in flight below _____AGL.

A

500’

36
Q

Do not extend the landing gear above?

A

FL180

37
Q

Max continuous Amps with 2 or 3 generators?

A

400 amps

38
Q

Max continuous Amps 1 generator on the ground?

A

400 amps

39
Q

Max continuous Amps 1 generator in flight?

A

500 amps

40
Q

Max continuous Amps Transient (5 minutes)

A

600 amps

41
Q

Usable Fuel Load with Pressure fueling?

A

14,150

42
Q

Usable Fuel Load with Gravity fueling?

A

13,000

43
Q

Approved Fuels?

A

Jet A, JETA1, JET B, JP-4, JP-5, JP-8.

JET B and JP-4 maximum altitude 16,000’

44
Q

CL350 Engine Type and Thrust

A

HTF7350

7,323 lbs of thrust

45
Q

The engines must be motored for _____ seconds after an aborted start.

A

30 seconds

46
Q

How many engine start cycles may be attempted?

A

3 consecutive start cycles followed by a 15 minute cooling period.

47
Q

Reverse Thrust is limited to Idle Reverse below _____KIAS.

A

40 KIAS

48
Q

APU Maximum altitude to be operated?

A

37,000’

49
Q

APU Maximum Altitude to be used as a generator?

A

30,000’

50
Q

APU Maximum altitude to use Bleed Air for Engine Start?

A

20,000’

51
Q

APU Maximum altitude to use Bleed Air for ECS?

A

20,000’

52
Q

Do not use APU to start the left engine on the ground above?

A

9,000’

53
Q

Can the APU be operated during fluid deicing/anti-icing?

A

NO

54
Q

The APU may be started up to an altitude of?

Ground/Flight

A

30,000’ Flight

14,000’ Ground

55
Q

What numbers/time do you watch for when starting APU?

hung start

A

RPM 30% within 30 seconds.

56
Q

APU starting attempt limitations?

A

1-1 minute
2-1 minute
3-20 minutes
4 and 5 may then be attempted followed by a cooling period of 40 minutes.

57
Q

Flexjet APU Airstart limitation?

A

250 KIAS, 10,000; maximum, 1 attempt.

58
Q

APU maximum RPM?

A

108%

59
Q

APU Start EGT Limit?

A

973C

60
Q

APU Normal Operations EGT?

A

718C.

61
Q

CAS messages are inhibited on takeoff when?

A

Starts when you accelerate through 80 knots.

Ends when you reach 400’ or 60 seconds.

62
Q

CAS messages are inhibited for landing when?

A

Starts when you descend through 400’.

Ends when you decelerate through 40 knots or 60 seconds.