Other Flashcards by Adam Sattler

perivenous infiltration seen in ___ ___

postinfectious encephalomyelitis

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hypodense circles on CT seen in ___ ___

postinfectious encephalomyelitis

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charcot-marie-tooth presentation

deformaties
weakness

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arylsulfatase A deficiency seen in ___ ___

metachromatic leukodystophy

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GBS Tx

IVIG (blocks macrophage receptors)

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carbidopa inhibits DOPA ___

decarboxylase

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vitamin ___ should be avoided in parkinson patients

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myoclonus is common in ___ or ___ failure patients

liver
renal

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wing-beating tremor seen in ___ ___

wilson disease

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resting tremor seen in ___ ___

parkinson disease

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the ___ and ___ are damaged in huntingtons

caudate
putamen

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vasogenic edema due to lost ___

BBB

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vitamin ___ needed to synthesize GABA

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the raphe nucleus is in the ___

pons

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___ ___ is lost in minimal change disease

heparan sulfate

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___ deposition is seen in RPGN

fibrin

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uremic pericarditis is treated by ___

dialysis

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DNA primers contain ___

RNA

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when does nucleotide excision repair occur in the cell cycle?

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when does DNA mismatch repair occur in the cell cycle?

S/G2

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actinomycin D MOA

inhibit RNA pol

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anti-Sm

SLE

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anti-RNP

mixed connective tissue disease

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___ modifies gene expression at mRNA level

miRNA

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p bodies

sequester mRNA

___ loop contains dihydrouridine

3' end of tRNA ends in ___

CCA

___ blotting is for transcription factors

___ technology used for HIV AB detection

ELISA

___ ___ used to see which genes are on

DNA microarray

all the cyclins

DEA B

ATM vs ATR pathway

double vs single strand breaks

nuclear envelope made of ___

lamin

caudal regression syndrome associated with ___ ___

maternal diabetes

plan B

mifepristone + misoprostol

bloom syndrome is caused by a ___ deficiency

helicase

NHEJ is an issue in ___ ___

ataxia telangectasia

homologous recombination is an issue in ___ ___ and ___ mutations

fanconi anemia BRCA

how to remember base excision repair

GEL PLease

mismatch repair is defective in ___ syndrome

lynch (HNPCC)

example of missense mutation

sickle cell

what regulates lac operon

(+) cap (-) repressor

initial RNA transcript called ___

hnRNA

how to remember introns

GU-AG

congenital degeneration of anterior horn is caused by a defect in ___

snRNPs

___ remain in G0 with the permanent tissues

RBCs

germ cells are said to be ___ and never enter G0

labile

where is G-6-phosphatase located?

sER

where does N-glycosylation occur

rER

___ synthesize bile acids and plasmalogens

peroxisomes

adrenoleukodystophy

B oxidation defect VLCFA buildup

refsum disease

A oxidation defect phytanic acid buildup scales, ataxia, epiphyseal dysplasia

zellweger syndrome

defective peroxisome biosynthesis hypotonia, seizures, craniofacial defects

___ ___ are used to detect SNPs and copy number variants

DNA microarrays

___ is the technology used to screen for HIV infection

ELISA

___ is used to find a certain gene, deletion, or translocation

FISH

if parents don't have disease, but offspring do, suspect ___ mosaicism

germline

mccune-albright syndrome is an example of ___ mosaicism

somatic (germline = lethal)

hetero = meiosis ___ error

prader-willi presentation

obesity

angelman presentation

seizures ataxia laughter

defective Cl ___ in lungs leads to increased ___ and ___ reabsorption

secretion Na + H2O

lumacaftor

correct misfolding

ivacaftor

opens Cl channels

XLR LSDs

fabry hunter

how do duchenne patients die

DCM

CTG repeat

cataracts early balding (toupee) gonadal atrophy

bilateral vision loss in young adults

leber hereditary optic neuropathy (complex I of ETC)

fragile X syndrome due to DNA ___

hypermethylation

increased ___ and ___ are specific markers for DS

hCG inhibin

cri du chat associated with ___ heart defects

VSD

___ acid is a precursor to AA

linoleic

vitamin ___ deficiency causes foamy conjunctiva

excess vitamin ___ causes increased ICP

B3 synthesis requires ___ and ___

B6 and B2

vitamin ___ is needed for CoA and FA synthase

FOXP3 mutation

IPEX syndrome

AIRE mutation

loss of central tolerance

ALPS is caused by ___ mutations

CD95

excess vitamin ___ causes enterocolitis in neonates

tocopherol and tocotrienol are ___ ___ analogs

vitamin E

___ stimulates glycolysis

F-2,6-BP

NAD+ is used in ___ reactions

catabolic

___ deficiency causes diabetes of the young and gestational diabetes

glucokinase

insulin decreases ___ concentrations, ___ protein kinase A, ___ PFK2

cAMP decreases increases

garlic breath

arsenic

___ inhibits lipoic acid

arsenic

rotenone inhibits complex ___

antimycin inhibits complex ___

the -ides inhibit complex ___

___ regulates the urea cycle

N-acetylglutamate

heme is from the AA ___

glycine

fat malabsorption retinitis pigmentosa spinocerebellar degeneration

abetalipoproteinemia

fallopian tube node drainage

para-aortic

detrusor contraction =

urination

___ ___ remnant may form a hydrocele

tunica vaginalis

tonsils receive blood from what main artery?

facial

palatine tonsils drain to the ___ nodes

jugulodigastric

posterior cricoarytenoid function

abduct

the left recurrent laryngeal nerve hooks around what?

aorta

discoid rash seen in ___

SLE

lupus anticoagulant causes what?

prolonged PTT

anti-dsDNA can be used for what?

monitoring SLE nephropathy

SS is a type ___ HSR

anemia seen in SLE is a type ___ HSR

anti-SSA and anti-SSB are anti-___

ribonucleoproteins

anti-SSA/B are associated with neonatal lupus and ___ ___ ___

congenital heart block

AIRE mutation causes ___, ___ ___, and ___ ___

hypoparathyroidism adrenal insufficiency recurrent candidiasis

___ contain lactoferrin

neutrophils

anti-B2 glycoprotein associated with ___ ___

antiphospholipid syndrome

___ deficiency can cause false + celiac disease test

IgA

hyper IgE syndrome due to ___ deficiency

Th17

chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis due to what mutation

AIRE

SCID causes (3)

defective IL-2R ADA deficiency VDJ recombination defect

___ binds cyclophilin

cyclosporine

the ___ gene confers PBP resistance

mecA

tuberculoid response

Th1

tuberculoid Tx

dapsone + rifampin

lepromatous Tx

dapsone + rifampin + clofazimine

what fungus can cause verrucus lesions

blasto

trichinella presentation

myalgia

the only dsRNA

reovirus

where does poxvirus replicate

cytoplasm

HPV is a naked or enveloped

naked

BK virus hurts the ___

kidney

roseola presenation

fever, then rosie (rash) later

CMV receptor

integrin (heparan sulfate)

parvovirus receptor

p Ag on RBCs

the segmented viruses

BOAR bunya ortho arena reo

virus that causes villus destruction

rotavirus

___ promotes influenza entry

what do paramyxoviruses contain to create multinucleated cells

fusion (f) protein

HCV has many replication errors because it lacks what?

3' to 5' exonuclease activity

penicillinase-resistant penicillins

dic naf ox

carbapenems given with ___

cilastin (prevent deactivation in tubules)

tetracyclines are ___-eliminated

fecally (safe for renal patients)

brucei Tx

suramin + melarsoprol

cruzi Tx

nifurtimox

leishmania Tx

sodium stibogluconate

chloroquine MOA

blocks heme detoxification

praziquantel MOA

increase Ca permeability

remdesivir MOA

inhibit viral RNA dependent RNA pol

___-navir is a cyp inhibitor

ritonavir

ribavirin MOA

inhibit IMP dehydrogenase

___ increases in bacterial infection, decreases in viral infection

procalcitonin

negative acute phase reactants

albumin transferrin transthyretin

E- and P- selectin = what step

margination and rolling

ICAM and VCAM (LFA-1) = what step

adhesion

PECAM = what step

diapedesis

___ ___ can cause anti-NMDA encephalitis

ovarian teratomas

___ and ___ ___ can cause opsoclonus myoclonus ataxia

neuroblastoma small cell

small cell, breast cancer, and ___ can cause paraneoplastic cerebellar degeneration

___ shift = increased potency

left

TI =

TD/ED

+M3 on the bladder

contract detrusor

-M3 on the bladder

relax detrusor (SUI)

+B3 on the bladder

relax detrusor (SUI)

what are the effects of +B3

lipolysis thermogenesis detrusor relaxation

D1 is _ and D2 is _

s i

H1/V1 is _ and H2/V2 is _

q s

pralidoxime

reverse nAchR blockade

glycopyrrolate

reduce airway secretions

which B blocker increases NO release

nebivolol

carvedilol and labetalol relevance

A and B antagonists

___ causes cyanopia

sildenafil (PDE6-I)

arsenic Tx

dimercaprol

mercury Tx

dimercaprol

creating new cells from stem cells = hyper___

plasia

increasing gene expression, protein production, and organelle production = hyper___

hypertrophy

common cause of budd chiari

polycythemia vera (or hypercoagulable state)

__O2 is decreased in CO poisoning and methemoglobenemia

SaO2

___ mediate apoptosis

caspases

___ pemphigoid exhibits eosinophils

bullous

ubiquitination of hypoxia inducible factor seen in ___

VHL

hemangioblastomas seen in ___

VHL

sturge weber inheritance pattern

SOMATIC MUTATION

walls of bronchogenic cyst contain ___

cartilage

cooperative binding is a positive ___ effect

allosteric

rhonchi heard in ___

COPD

curschmann spirals and charcot-leyden crystals seen in what?

asthma

sulfatide function

prevent phagylosome fusion

most damaging free radical

-OH

familial mediteranean fever is a dysfunction of ___

neutrophils

amyloid most commonly deposits in ___

kidneys (>>> nephrotic syndrome)

___ ___ cells secrete milk, and the ___ cells respond to oxytocin

luminal epithelial myoepithelial

___ acts mostly on ducts, whereas ___ acts mostly on lobules

estrogen progesterone

in addition to paget disease, ___ ___ can present with bloody/serous discharge

intraductal papilloma

presents with white, green, or black nipple discharge

mammary duct ectasia

periductal mastitis risk factor

smoking (causes vitamin A deficiency)

BRCA2 increases risk for ___ cancer as well

pancreatic

___ syndrome associated with male breast cancer

klinefelter

sickle cell priapism is due to ___-occlusion

veno (no outflow)

homogenous testicular mass secreting PLAP and BhCG

seminoma

how is a embryonal/non-seminoma tumor different from a seminoma?

PAINFUL

testicular tumor that secretes AFP

endodermal sinus tumor

seminoma appearance on histology

fried egg

___ ___ are seen in leydig cell tumors

reinke crystals

most common testicular lymphoma

NHL (diffuse large B cell)

extragonal germ cell tumors are caused by what?

migration failure

PSA is often bound to ___ and ___ in the blood

antichymotrypsin macroglobulin

cancer ___ the amount of PSA bound to protease inhibitors

increases

androgens and ___ is increased in 21 hydroxylase deficiency

ACTH

swyer syndrome

XY female genitals and streak gonads

how to tell 5a-reductase deficiency apart

males develop external genitals at puberty

how to tell complete androgen insensitivity

XY male with no hair development at puberty

the ___ is damaged in asherman syndrome

basalis

___ and ___ upregulate integrins in neutrophil migration

LTB4 c5a

rolling uses ___

selectins

___ and ___ upregulate adhesion molecules in neutrophil migration

TNF IL-1

what is bound on selectin

sialyl lewis x

what upregulates p selectin

histamine

what upregulates e selectin

TNF IL-1

what is defective in chediak higashi

microtubule trafficking

metanephric blastema forms what?

glomerulus

urachal remnant can lead to ___

adenocarcinoma

ureteral obstruction = ___ GFR and ___ FF

decreased decreased

afferent dilation ___ FF and efferent constriction ___ FF

N/A increases

how to estimate FF

creatinine/PAH

ACE inhibitors ___ GFR, ___ RPF, and ___ FF

decrease increase decrease

hartnup disease leads to ___ deficiency

tryptophan

fanconi syndrome associated with ___ accumulation

cysteine

explain milk alkali syndrome

inhibit Na/K/2Cl in TAL block ADH water reabsorption leads to increased BUN/Cr

what is really high in bartter syndrome (dehyrated and cramping muscles)

gitelman syndrome similar to ___

thiazides (but low Ca)

liddle syndrome similar to ___

hyperaldosteronism (but aldosterone levels are LOW)

RTA 2 can be seen in ___ ___

multiple myeloma

RTA 1 associated with ___ ___

autoimmune disorders

RTA 1 presents with ___ formation

stone (decreased H+ secretion)

NAG due to what?

HCO3 loss

AG due to what?

H+ retention

___ levels control K levels

__calcemia increases Na excitability

hypocalcemia

hyperphosphatemia can cause skin ___

necrosis

___magnesemia decreases PTH

hypermagnesemia

___ suppresses ADH release

cortisol

full house IF seen in ___

DPGN

minimal change disease associated with ___

SCID etiologies

TCR defect MHC II defect ADA deficiency

what immune deficiency condition increases risk for lymphoma and AI disease?

CVID

celiac disease associated with ___ deficiency

IgA

collagenase requires ___ as a cofactor

___ promotes angiogenesis

FGF

medullary cystic kidney disease presentation

small, fibrotic kidney

clonality can be determined by ___ isoforms

G6PD

___ above the pectinate line, ___ below

adenocarcinoma squamous

meningiomas express ___ receptors

estrogen

the ___ ___ ___ cells produce alkaline phosphatase

bile duct epithelial

dark urine is caused by ___ bilirubin

conjugated

Ach and gastrin work via G_ receptors

histamine works via G_ receptors

gastrin is released in response to what 2 AAs

phenylalanine tryptophan

GIP released by ___ cells in the duodenum/jejunum

PL A2 activated by ___

trypsin

AST is found in the ___, whereas ALT is found in the ___

mitochondria cytoplasm

___ ___ are damaged in mallory bodies

intermediate filaments

what is missing in microscopic polyangiitis?

granulomas

TIPS connects the ___ and ___ veins

portal hepatic

absence of gamma region spike = ___ ___

Ig deficiency

gamma region spike = what conditions

MM waldenstrom MGUS

B2+Y fusion denotes increased ___ or ___

IgA CRP

mutations in HGPRT affect ___ nucleotides

purine

closure of coronal suture creates ___, ___ head

broad, flat

the ___ ___ nerve services the cricothyroid muscle

superior laryngeal

___ ___ acid reduces gallstone formation by decreasing cholesterol secretion into bile

ursodeoxycholic acid

AIDS cholangiopathy due to ___ or ___

cryptosporidium CMV

what causes air in the biliary tract

gallstone ileus

where do you check for SIBO?

jejunum

serum ___ is elevated in autoimmune pancreatitis

IgG4

___ cancer presents with painless jaundice

pancreatic

___ and SMAD mutations are associated with pancreatic cancer

KRAS

whipple procedure

gallbladder duodenum pancreas

___ causes appendicitis in children, versus ___ in adults

hypertrophy (lymphoid) fecaliths

intussusception is associated with ___ infections

adenovirus

pyoderma gangrenosum associated with ___

smoking improves ___, but worsens ___

UC CD

why is sulfasalazine perfect for UC?

not active until in colon

___ is overexpressed in colon cancer

COX2 (NSAIDs might protect)

flat dark spot in retina, multiple polyps. Dx?

gardner syndrome

FAP is common on the ___, HNPCC is common on the ___

left (chromosomal) right (micro-satellite)

meningococcus ferments ___

maltose

fitz-hugh-curtis

violin adhesions to liver

where is beta lactamase found?

periplasm (or secreted in Gm+)

cephalosporins can create vitamin ___ deficiency

K (prolongs PT)

macrolides bind to the ___ site

___ antibiotics can prolong the QT

macrolides (and quinolones)

streptogranins (-pristin) MOA

block 50s ribosome

metronidazole must be ___ to function

reduced

griseofulvin is a cyp450 ___

inducer

plasmodium ___ induces PfEMP1 on RBCs

falciparum (occludes BVs)

___ Ag necessary for P. vivax infection

duffy

amastigotes in macrophages

leishmania

___ papillary muscle only has single blood supply

___ receive 100% CO

lungs

increased VR curve = veno___ and vaso___

venoconstriction vasodilation

the vasa vasorum is found in the ___

adventitia

CK-MM

muscle

CK-BB

brain

nitrates should be given with what to prevent reflex tachycardia?

beta blocker (or CCBs)