Other Flashcards

1
Q

perivenous infiltration seen in ___ ___

A

postinfectious encephalomyelitis

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2
Q

hypodense circles on CT seen in ___ ___

A

postinfectious encephalomyelitis

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3
Q

charcot-marie-tooth presentation

A

deformaties
weakness

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4
Q

arylsulfatase A deficiency seen in ___ ___

A

metachromatic leukodystophy

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5
Q

GBS Tx

A

IVIG (blocks macrophage receptors)

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6
Q

carbidopa inhibits DOPA ___

A

decarboxylase

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7
Q

vitamin ___ should be avoided in parkinson patients

A

B6

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8
Q

myoclonus is common in ___ or ___ failure patients

A

liver
renal

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9
Q

wing-beating tremor seen in ___ ___

A

wilson disease

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10
Q

resting tremor seen in ___ ___

A

parkinson disease

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11
Q

the ___ and ___ are damaged in huntingtons

A

caudate
putamen

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12
Q

vasogenic edema due to lost ___

A

BBB

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13
Q

vitamin ___ needed to synthesize GABA

A

B6

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14
Q

the raphe nucleus is in the ___

A

pons

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15
Q

___ ___ is lost in minimal change disease

A

heparan sulfate

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16
Q

___ deposition is seen in RPGN

A

fibrin

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17
Q

uremic pericarditis is treated by ___

A

dialysis

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18
Q

DNA primers contain ___

A

RNA

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19
Q

when does nucleotide excision repair occur in the cell cycle?

A

G1

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20
Q

when does DNA mismatch repair occur in the cell cycle?

A

S/G2

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21
Q

actinomycin D MOA

A

inhibit RNA pol

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22
Q

anti-Sm

A

SLE

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23
Q

anti-RNP

A

mixed connective tissue disease

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24
Q

___ modifies gene expression at mRNA level

A

miRNA

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25
Q

p bodies

A

sequester mRNA

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26
Q

___ loop contains dihydrouridine

A

D

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27
Q

3’ end of tRNA ends in ___

A

CCA

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28
Q

___ blotting is for transcription factors

A

SW

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29
Q

___ technology used for HIV AB detection

A

ELISA

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30
Q

___ ___ used to see which genes are on

A

DNA microarray

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31
Q

all the cyclins

A

DEA B

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32
Q

ATM vs ATR pathway

A

double vs single strand breaks

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33
Q

nuclear envelope made of ___

A

lamin

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34
Q

caudal regression syndrome associated with ___ ___

A

maternal diabetes

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35
Q

plan B

A

mifepristone + misoprostol

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36
Q

bloom syndrome is caused by a ___ deficiency

A

helicase

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37
Q

NHEJ is an issue in ___ ___

A

ataxia telangectasia

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38
Q

homologous recombination is an issue in ___ ___ and ___ mutations

A

fanconi anemia
BRCA

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39
Q

how to remember base excision repair

A

GEL PLease

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40
Q

mismatch repair is defective in ___ syndrome

A

lynch (HNPCC)

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41
Q

example of missense mutation

A

sickle cell

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42
Q

what regulates lac operon

A

(+) cap
(-) repressor

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43
Q

initial RNA transcript called ___

A

hnRNA

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44
Q

how to remember introns

A

GU-AG

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45
Q

congenital degeneration of anterior horn is caused by a defect in ___

A

snRNPs

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46
Q

___ remain in G0 with the permanent tissues

A

RBCs

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47
Q

germ cells are said to be ___ and never enter G0

A

labile

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48
Q

where is G-6-phosphatase located?

A

sER

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49
Q

where does N-glycosylation occur

A

rER

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50
Q

___ synthesize bile acids and plasmalogens

A

peroxisomes

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51
Q

adrenoleukodystophy

A

B oxidation defect
VLCFA buildup

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52
Q

refsum disease

A

A oxidation defect
phytanic acid buildup
scales, ataxia, epiphyseal dysplasia

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53
Q

zellweger syndrome

A

defective peroxisome biosynthesis
hypotonia, seizures, craniofacial defects

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54
Q

___ ___ are used to detect SNPs and copy number variants

A

DNA microarrays

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55
Q

___ is the technology used to screen for HIV infection

A

ELISA

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56
Q

___ is used to find a certain gene, deletion, or translocation

A

FISH

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57
Q

if parents don’t have disease, but offspring do, suspect ___ mosaicism

A

germline

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58
Q

mccune-albright syndrome is an example of ___ mosaicism

A

somatic
(germline = lethal)

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59
Q

hetero = meiosis ___ error

A

I

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60
Q

prader-willi presentation

A

obesity

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61
Q

angelman presentation

A

seizures
ataxia
laughter

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62
Q

defective Cl ___ in lungs leads to increased ___ and ___ reabsorption

A

secretion
Na + H2O

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63
Q

lumacaftor

A

correct misfolding

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64
Q

ivacaftor

A

opens Cl channels

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65
Q

XLR LSDs

A

fabry
hunter

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66
Q

how do duchenne patients die

A

DCM

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67
Q

CTG repeat

A

cataracts
early balding (toupee)
gonadal atrophy

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68
Q

bilateral vision loss in young adults

A

leber hereditary optic neuropathy
(complex I of ETC)

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69
Q

fragile X syndrome due to DNA ___

A

hypermethylation

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70
Q

increased ___ and ___ are specific markers for DS

A

hCG
inhibin

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71
Q

cri du chat associated with ___ heart defects

A

VSD

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72
Q

___ acid is a precursor to AA

A

linoleic

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73
Q

vitamin ___ deficiency causes foamy conjunctiva

A

A

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74
Q

excess vitamin ___ causes increased ICP

A

A

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75
Q

B3 synthesis requires ___ and ___

A

B6 and B2

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76
Q

vitamin ___ is needed for CoA and FA synthase

A

B5

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77
Q

FOXP3 mutation

A

IPEX syndrome

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78
Q

AIRE mutation

A

loss of central tolerance

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79
Q

ALPS is caused by ___ mutations

A

CD95

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80
Q

excess vitamin ___ causes enterocolitis in neonates

A

E

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81
Q

tocopherol and tocotrienol are ___ ___ analogs

A

vitamin E

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82
Q

___ stimulates glycolysis

A

F-2,6-BP

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83
Q

NAD+ is used in ___ reactions

A

catabolic

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84
Q

___ deficiency causes diabetes of the young and gestational diabetes

A

glucokinase

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85
Q

insulin decreases ___ concentrations, ___ protein kinase A, ___ PFK2

A

cAMP
decreases
increases

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86
Q

garlic breath

A

arsenic

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87
Q

___ inhibits lipoic acid

A

arsenic

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88
Q

rotenone inhibits complex ___

A

1

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89
Q

antimycin inhibits complex ___

A

3

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90
Q

the -ides inhibit complex ___

A

4

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91
Q

___ regulates the urea cycle

A

N-acetylglutamate

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92
Q

heme is from the AA ___

A

glycine

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93
Q

fat malabsorption
retinitis pigmentosa
spinocerebellar degeneration

A

abetalipoproteinemia

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94
Q

fallopian tube node drainage

A

para-aortic

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95
Q

detrusor contraction =

A

urination

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96
Q

___ ___ remnant may form a hydrocele

A

tunica vaginalis

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97
Q

tonsils receive blood from what main artery?

A

facial

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98
Q

palatine tonsils drain to the ___ nodes

A

jugulodigastric

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99
Q

posterior cricoarytenoid function

A

abduct

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100
Q

the left recurrent laryngeal nerve hooks around what?

A

aorta

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101
Q

discoid rash seen in ___

A

SLE

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102
Q

lupus anticoagulant causes what?

A

prolonged PTT

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103
Q

anti-dsDNA can be used for what?

A

monitoring SLE nephropathy

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104
Q

SS is a type ___ HSR

A

IV

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105
Q

anemia seen in SLE is a type ___ HSR

A

II

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106
Q

anti-SSA and anti-SSB are anti-___

A

ribonucleoproteins

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107
Q

anti-SSA/B are associated with neonatal lupus and ___ ___ ___

A

congenital heart block

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108
Q

AIRE mutation causes ___, ___ ___, and ___ ___

A

hypoparathyroidism
adrenal insufficiency
recurrent candidiasis

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109
Q

___ contain lactoferrin

A

neutrophils

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110
Q

anti-B2 glycoprotein associated with ___ ___

A

antiphospholipid syndrome

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111
Q

___ deficiency can cause false + celiac disease test

A

IgA

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112
Q

hyper IgE syndrome due to ___ deficiency

A

Th17

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113
Q

chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis due to what mutation

A

AIRE

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114
Q

SCID causes (3)

A

defective IL-2R
ADA deficiency
VDJ recombination defect

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115
Q

___ binds cyclophilin

A

cyclosporine

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116
Q

the ___ gene confers PBP resistance

A

mecA

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117
Q

tuberculoid response

A

Th1

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118
Q

tuberculoid Tx

A

dapsone + rifampin

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119
Q

lepromatous Tx

A

dapsone + rifampin + clofazimine

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120
Q

what fungus can cause verrucus lesions

A

blasto

121
Q

trichinella presentation

A

myalgia

122
Q

the only dsRNA

A

reovirus

123
Q

where does poxvirus replicate

A

cytoplasm

124
Q

HPV is a naked or enveloped

A

naked

125
Q

BK virus hurts the ___

A

kidney

126
Q

roseola presenation

A

fever, then rosie (rash) later

127
Q

CMV receptor

A

integrin (heparan sulfate)

128
Q

parvovirus receptor

A

p Ag on RBCs

129
Q

the segmented viruses

A

BOAR

bunya
ortho
arena
reo

130
Q

virus that causes villus destruction

A

rotavirus

131
Q

___ promotes influenza entry

A

HA

132
Q

what do paramyxoviruses contain to create multinucleated cells

A

fusion (f) protein

133
Q

HCV has many replication errors because it lacks what?

A

3’ to 5’ exonuclease activity

134
Q

penicillinase-resistant penicillins

A

dic
naf
ox

135
Q

carbapenems given with ___

A

cilastin
(prevent deactivation in tubules)

136
Q

tetracyclines are ___-eliminated

A

fecally (safe for renal patients)

137
Q

brucei Tx

A

suramin + melarsoprol

138
Q

cruzi Tx

A

nifurtimox

139
Q

leishmania Tx

A

sodium stibogluconate

140
Q

chloroquine MOA

A

blocks heme detoxification

141
Q

praziquantel MOA

A

increase Ca permeability

142
Q

remdesivir MOA

A

inhibit viral RNA dependent RNA pol

143
Q

___-navir is a cyp inhibitor

A

ritonavir

144
Q

ribavirin MOA

A

inhibit IMP dehydrogenase

145
Q

___ increases in bacterial infection, decreases in viral infection

A

procalcitonin

146
Q

negative acute phase reactants

A

albumin
transferrin
transthyretin

147
Q

E- and P- selectin = what step

A

margination and rolling

148
Q

ICAM and VCAM (LFA-1) = what step

A

adhesion

149
Q

PECAM = what step

A

diapedesis

150
Q

___ ___ can cause anti-NMDA encephalitis

A

ovarian teratomas

151
Q

___ and ___ ___ can cause opsoclonus myoclonus ataxia

A

neuroblastoma
small cell

152
Q

small cell, breast cancer, and ___ can cause paraneoplastic cerebellar degeneration

A

HL

153
Q

___ shift = increased potency

A

left

154
Q

TI =

A

TD/ED

155
Q

+M3 on the bladder

A

contract detrusor

156
Q

-M3 on the bladder

A

relax detrusor (SUI)

157
Q

+B3 on the bladder

A

relax detrusor (SUI)

158
Q

what are the effects of +B3

A

lipolysis
thermogenesis
detrusor relaxation

159
Q

D1 is _ and D2 is _

A

s
i

160
Q

H1/V1 is _ and H2/V2 is _

A

q
s

161
Q

pralidoxime

A

reverse nAchR blockade

162
Q

glycopyrrolate

A

reduce airway secretions

163
Q

which B blocker increases NO release

A

nebivolol

164
Q

carvedilol and labetalol relevance

A

A and B antagonists

165
Q

___ causes cyanopia

A

sildenafil (PDE6-I)

166
Q

arsenic Tx

A

dimercaprol

167
Q

mercury Tx

A

dimercaprol

168
Q

creating new cells from stem cells = hyper___

A

plasia

169
Q

increasing gene expression, protein production, and organelle production = hyper___

A

hypertrophy

170
Q

common cause of budd chiari

A

polycythemia vera

(or hypercoagulable state)

171
Q

__O2 is decreased in CO poisoning and methemoglobenemia

A

SaO2

172
Q

___ mediate apoptosis

A

caspases

173
Q

___ pemphigoid exhibits eosinophils

A

bullous

174
Q

ubiquitination of hypoxia inducible factor seen in ___

A

VHL

175
Q

hemangioblastomas seen in ___

A

VHL

176
Q

sturge weber inheritance pattern

A

SOMATIC MUTATION

177
Q

walls of bronchogenic cyst contain ___

A

cartilage

178
Q

cooperative binding is a positive ___ effect

A

allosteric

179
Q

rhonchi heard in ___

A

COPD

180
Q

curschmann spirals and charcot-leyden crystals seen in what?

A

asthma

181
Q

sulfatide function

A

prevent phagylosome fusion

182
Q

most damaging free radical

A

-OH

183
Q

familial mediteranean fever is a dysfunction of ___

A

neutrophils

184
Q

amyloid most commonly deposits in ___

A

kidneys (»> nephrotic syndrome)

185
Q

___ ___ cells secrete milk, and the ___ cells respond to oxytocin

A

luminal epithelial
myoepithelial

186
Q

___ acts mostly on ducts, whereas ___ acts mostly on lobules

A

estrogen
progesterone

187
Q

in addition to paget disease, ___ ___ can present with bloody/serous discharge

A

intraductal papilloma

188
Q

presents with white, green, or black nipple discharge

A

mammary duct ectasia

189
Q

periductal mastitis risk factor

A

smoking (causes vitamin A deficiency)

190
Q

BRCA2 increases risk for ___ cancer as well

A

pancreatic

191
Q

___ syndrome associated with male breast cancer

A

klinefelter

192
Q

sickle cell priapism is due to ___-occlusion

A

veno
(no outflow)

193
Q

homogenous testicular mass secreting PLAP and BhCG

A

seminoma

194
Q

how is a embryonal/non-seminoma tumor different from a seminoma?

A

PAINFUL

195
Q

testicular tumor that secretes AFP

A

endodermal sinus tumor

196
Q

seminoma appearance on histology

A

fried egg

197
Q

___ ___ are seen in leydig cell tumors

A

reinke crystals

198
Q

most common testicular lymphoma

A

NHL (diffuse large B cell)

199
Q

extragonal germ cell tumors are caused by what?

A

migration failure

200
Q

PSA is often bound to ___ and ___ in the blood

A

antichymotrypsin
macroglobulin

201
Q

cancer ___ the amount of PSA bound to protease inhibitors

A

increases

202
Q

androgens and ___ is increased in 21 hydroxylase deficiency

A

ACTH

203
Q

swyer syndrome

A

XY
female genitals and streak gonads

204
Q

how to tell 5a-reductase deficiency apart

A

males develop external genitals at puberty

205
Q

how to tell complete androgen insensitivity

A

XY male with no hair development at puberty

206
Q

the ___ is damaged in asherman syndrome

A

basalis

207
Q

___ and ___ upregulate integrins in neutrophil migration

A

LTB4
c5a

208
Q

rolling uses ___

A

selectins

209
Q

___ and ___ upregulate adhesion molecules in neutrophil migration

A

TNF
IL-1

210
Q

what is bound on selectin

A

sialyl lewis x

211
Q

what upregulates p selectin

A

histamine

212
Q

what upregulates e selectin

A

TNF
IL-1

213
Q

what is defective in chediak higashi

A

microtubule trafficking

214
Q

metanephric blastema forms what?

A

glomerulus

215
Q

urachal remnant can lead to ___

A

adenocarcinoma

216
Q

ureteral obstruction = ___ GFR and ___ FF

A

decreased
decreased

217
Q

afferent dilation ___ FF and efferent constriction ___ FF

A

N/A
increases

218
Q

how to estimate FF

A

creatinine/PAH

219
Q

ACE inhibitors ___ GFR, ___ RPF, and ___ FF

A

decrease
increase
decrease

220
Q

hartnup disease leads to ___ deficiency

A

tryptophan

221
Q

fanconi syndrome associated with ___ accumulation

A

cysteine

222
Q

explain milk alkali syndrome

A

inhibit Na/K/2Cl in TAL
block ADH water reabsorption
leads to increased BUN/Cr

223
Q

what is really high in bartter syndrome (dehyrated and cramping muscles)

A

Ca

224
Q

gitelman syndrome similar to ___

A

thiazides (but low Ca)

225
Q

liddle syndrome similar to ___

A

hyperaldosteronism
(but aldosterone levels are LOW)

226
Q

RTA 2 can be seen in ___ ___

A

multiple myeloma

227
Q

RTA 1 associated with ___ ___

A

autoimmune disorders

228
Q

RTA 1 presents with ___ formation

A

stone (decreased H+ secretion)

229
Q

NAG due to what?

A

HCO3 loss

230
Q

AG due to what?

A

H+ retention

231
Q

___ levels control K levels

A

Mg

232
Q

__calcemia increases Na excitability

A

hypocalcemia

233
Q

hyperphosphatemia can cause skin ___

A

necrosis

234
Q

___magnesemia decreases PTH

A

hypermagnesemia

235
Q

___ suppresses ADH release

A

cortisol

236
Q

full house IF seen in ___

A

DPGN

237
Q

minimal change disease associated with ___

A

HL

238
Q

SCID etiologies

A

TCR defect
MHC II defect
ADA deficiency

239
Q

what immune deficiency condition increases risk for lymphoma and AI disease?

A

CVID

240
Q

celiac disease associated with ___ deficiency

A

IgA

241
Q

collagenase requires ___ as a cofactor

A

Zn

242
Q

___ promotes angiogenesis

A

FGF

243
Q

medullary cystic kidney disease presentation

A

small, fibrotic kidney

244
Q

clonality can be determined by ___ isoforms

A

G6PD

245
Q

___ above the pectinate line, ___ below

A

adenocarcinoma
squamous

246
Q

meningiomas express ___ receptors

A

estrogen

247
Q

the ___ ___ ___ cells produce alkaline phosphatase

A

bile duct epithelial

248
Q

dark urine is caused by ___ bilirubin

A

conjugated

249
Q

Ach and gastrin work via G_ receptors

A

Gq

250
Q

histamine works via G_ receptors

A

Gs

251
Q

gastrin is released in response to what 2 AAs

A

phenylalanine
tryptophan

252
Q

GIP released by ___ cells in the duodenum/jejunum

A

K

253
Q

PL A2 activated by ___

A

trypsin

254
Q

AST is found in the ___, whereas ALT is found in the ___

A

mitochondria
cytoplasm

255
Q

___ ___ are damaged in mallory bodies

A

intermediate filaments

256
Q

what is missing in microscopic polyangiitis?

A

granulomas

257
Q

TIPS connects the ___ and ___ veins

A

portal
hepatic

258
Q

absence of gamma region spike = ___ ___

A

Ig deficiency

259
Q

gamma region spike = what conditions

A

MM
waldenstrom
MGUS

260
Q

B2+Y fusion denotes increased ___ or ___

A

IgA
CRP

261
Q

mutations in HGPRT affect ___ nucleotides

A

purine

262
Q

closure of coronal suture creates ___, ___ head

A

broad, flat

263
Q

the ___ ___ nerve services the cricothyroid muscle

A

superior laryngeal

264
Q

___ ___ acid reduces gallstone formation by decreasing cholesterol secretion into bile

A

ursodeoxycholic acid

265
Q

AIDS cholangiopathy due to ___ or ___

A

cryptosporidium
CMV

266
Q

what causes air in the biliary tract

A

gallstone ileus

267
Q

where do you check for SIBO?

A

jejunum

268
Q

serum ___ is elevated in autoimmune pancreatitis

A

IgG4

269
Q

___ cancer presents with painless jaundice

A

pancreatic

270
Q

___ and SMAD mutations are associated with pancreatic cancer

A

KRAS

271
Q

whipple procedure

A

gallbladder
duodenum
pancreas

272
Q

___ causes appendicitis in children, versus ___ in adults

A

hypertrophy (lymphoid)
fecaliths

273
Q

intussusception is associated with ___ infections

A

adenovirus

274
Q

pyoderma gangrenosum associated with ___

A

UC

275
Q

smoking improves ___, but worsens ___

A

UC
CD

276
Q

why is sulfasalazine perfect for UC?

A

not active until in colon

277
Q

___ is overexpressed in colon cancer

A

COX2 (NSAIDs might protect)

278
Q

flat dark spot in retina, multiple polyps. Dx?

A

gardner syndrome

279
Q

FAP is common on the ___, HNPCC is common on the ___

A

left (chromosomal)
right (micro-satellite)

280
Q

meningococcus ferments ___

A

maltose

281
Q

fitz-hugh-curtis

A

violin adhesions to liver

282
Q

where is beta lactamase found?

A

periplasm (or secreted in Gm+)

283
Q

cephalosporins can create vitamin ___ deficiency

A

K (prolongs PT)

284
Q

macrolides bind to the ___ site

A

P

285
Q

___ antibiotics can prolong the QT

A

macrolides (and quinolones)

286
Q

streptogranins (-pristin) MOA

A

block 50s ribosome

287
Q

metronidazole must be ___ to function

A

reduced

288
Q

griseofulvin is a cyp450 ___

A

inducer

289
Q

plasmodium ___ induces PfEMP1 on RBCs

A

falciparum
(occludes BVs)

290
Q

___ Ag necessary for P. vivax infection

A

duffy

291
Q

amastigotes in macrophages

A

leishmania

292
Q

___ papillary muscle only has single blood supply

A

PM

293
Q

___ receive 100% CO

A

lungs

294
Q

increased VR curve = veno___ and vaso___

A

venoconstriction
vasodilation

295
Q

the vasa vasorum is found in the ___

A

adventitia

296
Q

CK-MM

A

muscle

297
Q

CK-BB

A

brain

298
Q

nitrates should be given with what to prevent reflex tachycardia?

A

beta blocker
(or CCBs)