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[COMPRE] LU III > OS 205 Compre > Flashcards

OS 205 Compre Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following have anchoring filaments to prevent collapse of the lumen?

a. blood capillaries
b. blood vessels
c. lymphatic capillaries
d. lymphatic vessels

A

C

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2
Q

At what age is the breast most prominent in a Mammogram?

a. 30 y/o
b. 40
c. 50
d. 60

A

D

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3
Q

The lining epithelium of the conducting airways is specialized for

a. O2 exchange with capillary blood
b. CO2 exchange with capillary blood
c. lung defense
d. surfactant generation

A

C

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4
Q

Which of the following explains why apical alveoli are less ventilated than their basal counterparts in the upright position?
A. Apical alveoli have less compliance.
B. Oxygen is less dense than other gases.
C. There is greater distension in the basal alveoli at end-expiration volume.
D. Blood tends to perfuse the basal alveoli more.

A

C

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5
Q 
Which of the following causes vasoconstriction of the pulmonary vasculature?
A. Prostaglandin
B. Acetylcholine
C. Histamine
D. Bradykinin
A

C

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6
Q 
Chest CT scan showed large mass density seen anterior to heart and great vessels. This can be any of the following except; 
A. Thymus tumor
B. Lymphoma
C. Teratoma
D. Substernal Goiter
E. Neurologenic tumor
A

B

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7
Q 
Which of the following does not describe a Right Atrial Enlargement?
A. Lateral right border enlargement
B. Mediastinal shadow is 50%
C. Cardiac border > 2.5 cm
D. Increasing of the Cardiac Waistline
A

D

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8
Q 
The following borders of the heart are seen at the frontal plane of chest radiography except 
A. Right atrium
B. Right ventricle
C. Left atrium
D. Left ventricle
E. Ascending aorta
A

B

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9
Q

The following are advantages of echocardiography except:
A. Operator and interpreter-dependent
B. Displays image of the heart in real time
C. Portable
D. Useful in emergency situations

A

A

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10
Q 
True about echocardiography:
A. Uses frequencies from 2.5 - 5 mhz
B. Calcium appears gray
C. Blood appears white
D. Valves and great vessels appear black
E. Not useful for assessing movement of cardiac walls
A

A

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11
Q 
65 years old, 2-hour history of severe chest heaviness radiating to the left shoulder area, with dyspnea and diaphoresis. What test would you ask the patient take?
A. X-ray
B. ECG
C. Echocardiogram
D. Angiogram
E. Treadmill Exercise Test
A

A

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12
Q 
The S1 (lub sound) corresponds to…
A. Opening of atrioventricular valves
B. Opening of semilunar valves
C. Closing of atrioventricular valves
D. Closing of semilunar valves
A

C

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13
Q 
During ausculatation, the swishing sounds heard are called:
A. thrills
B. murmurs
C. Heaves
D. Bruits
A

B

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14
Q 
A thrill is first heard with this murmur (softest murmur with thrills).
A. Grade 1/6
B. Grade 2/6
C. Grade 3/6
D. Grade 4/6 
E. Grade 6/6
A

D

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15
Q

In BP determination, these are the sounds heard as blood flows along the collapsed blood vessels:
A. Korotkoff’s sounds
B. Qunicke’s sounds

A

A

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16
Q

The brachial pulse can be felt on
A. the medial and anterior side of the elbow crease
B. the medial and anterior side of the axillary area
C. the lateral and posterior side of the elbow crease
D. the lateral and posterior side of the axillary area

A

A

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17
Q 
Blood Pressure =
A. CO x TPR
B. HR x SV
C. HR x TPR
D. HR x CO
A

A

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18
Q 
These are palpable low-frequency vibrations asssociated with murmurs
A. Heaves
B. Wheezing
C.Thrills
D. Friction Rub
A

C

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19
Q 
As of 2005, the leading cause of mortality in the Philippines
A. Malignant neoplasms
B. Pneumonia
C. TB
D. Diseases of the heart
E. Accidents
A

D

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20
Q

Signs of left atrial enlargement, except:
A. upliftment of left mainstem bronchus
B. double density on the left
C. widening of the carinal angle
D. posterior displacement of left mainstem bronchus

A

B

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21
Q 
This allows ions to pass through adjacent myocardial cells and depolarize them(not exact question)
A. Nexus
B. Gap Junction
C. Sarcoplasmic reticulum
D. T tubule
A

B

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22
Q

What is the difference between cardiac and skeletal muscles?
A. Cardiac muscles have well-developed Sarcoplasmic Reticulum
B. Cardiac muscles have well-developed T-tubules
C. Cardiac muscles have faster action potential

A

B

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23
Q

A widening of the QRS complex can be brought about by:
A. a right bundle branch block
B. conduction delay in av node
C. premature atrial depolarization
D. slowing down of sinus node depolarization

A

A

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24
Q

True of Action Potential and Muscle Fiber contraction EXCEPT
A. Rapid depolarization precedes development of force
B. Completion of depolarization coincides with peak force
C. Relaxation occurs during phase III
D. Duration of contraction parallels muscle action potential

A

C

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25
Q 
Increase in peripheral resistance is due to 
A. Polycythemia
B. Short, wide vessels
C. Shot, narrow veins
D. Autoregulation
A

A

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26
Q 
. The most common heart disease in children.
A. Congenital heart disease
B. Rheumatic heart disease
C. Arrhythmia
D. None of the above
A

B

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27
Q 
The Sin Tax Law is an act regulating the \_\_\_ of tobacco?
A. Packaging
B. Sale and Distribution
C. Advertising
D. Taxation
A

D

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28
Q 
The “key” to activating the function of Helper T cells
A. Antibody specificity
B. MHC Complex 1 specificity 
C. Il-12 signalling
D. Antigen-MHC Complex signalling
A

D

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29
Q 
Gas exchange begins at the level of (not exact question)
A.trachea
B bronchi
C terminal bronchiole
D alveoli
A

D

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30
Q 
Increased voice upon auscultation with lobar consolidation due to pneumonia:
A. Bronchophony 
B. Egophony
C. Whispered Pectoriloquy
D. Hyperresonance
A

A

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31
Q

Bronchial breath sounds is heard:
A. Consolidation or atelectasis with patent airway
B. Consolidation or atelectasis with blocked airway
C. Pleural effusion
D. Pneumothroax

A

B

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32
Q 
Breath sound heard throughout the surface of the lungs.
A. Tracheal
B. Vesicular
C. Bronchovesicular
D. Bronchial
A

C

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33
Q 
Which adventitious lung sound is present during the early stages of pneumonia due to edema, inflammation and presence of alveolar infiltrates?
A. Coarse Crackles
B. Fine Crackles
C. Rhonchi
D. Wheezes
A

A

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34
Q 
Breast surface manifestatioon of cancerous involvement of the skin:
A. Nipple retraction
B. Skin dimpling
C. Skin erythema
D. Skin excavation
A

B

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35
Q 
This is not an abnormal finding in the areola
A. Marked Asymmetry
B. Surface elevations
C. Crusting
D. Cracking
A

B

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36
Q

Characteristic of a supernumerary nipple
A. Pink nodule with a lot of glandular tissue
B. Brown nodule along the milk line
C. Increases the risk of breast cancer

A

B

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37
Q 
Hazards of smoking related to pregnancy include the following (not the exact question)
A. Spontaneous Abortion
B. Low birth weight infants
C. Perinatal Mortality
D. All of the above
A

D

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38
Q 
Which stage of change in smoking is the patient ambivalent ?
A. Pre-contemplation
B. Contemplation
C. Preparation
D. Action
A

B

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39
Q 
Which stage of change in smoking cessation does ‘decision to change’ is necessary to occur?
A. Pre-contemplation
B. Contemplation
C. Preparation
D. Action
A

C

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40
Q 
The stage of change wherein the smoker needs the most help and support:
A. Contemplation
B. Preparation
C. Action
D. Maintenance
A

C

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41
Q

The following are true of nicotine except: (I forgot the other choice. Sorry!)
A. Its true/base form is liquid
B. Arterial concentration is 2-4x the venous concentration
C. Its half life is 20 min

A

C

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42
Q

Preventable risk factor for developing asthma in later life

a. Repiratory infection during childhood
b. Exposure to second-hand smoke
c. Allergy
d. Parental asthma

A

B

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43
Q

In DOTS, the responsbility of tubercolosis treatment is given to the

a. the patient
b. the health care system
c. the relatives of the patient

A

B

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44
Q 
All except the following may exhibit holosystolic murmur:
A. mitral regurgitation
B. atrial regurgitation
C. VSD
D. ASD
A

D

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45
Q 
If a movable mass does not move when patient is examined with hands on hips, then the mass is likely attached to the (not exact wording):
	A. Intercostals
	B. Pectoralis muscles
	C.Lungs
	D.Ribs
A

B

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46
Q

Number of pack year of a 63 year old man who smokes 10 sticks per day for 19 years

A

22 pack years

Pack years = (# of packs per day) x (# years patient’s been smoking)

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47
Q

What is the most compelling reason for a smoker to quit smoking?
A. Health scare or experiencing health ailment
B. Being pregnant
C. Request by children
D. Family

A

A

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48
Q 
Most effective treatment for smoking:
	A. Counseling only
	B. Pharmacotherapy
	C. Behavioral intervention
	D. Both B and C
	E. All of the above
A

E

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49
Q 
Highest something, smoking-related cancer
	A. Cervix
	B. Mouth, larynx
	C. Esophagus
	D. Stomach
	E. Bladder
A

B

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50
Q 
Adverse effects of nicotine gum
	A. Jaw pain
	B. Tooth decay
	C. Headache
	D. Allergic reactions
	E. AOTA
A

E

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51
Q 
During which of the following stages does a change in behavior occur?
A. Pre-Contemplative
	B. Contemplative
	C. Preparatory
	D. Action 
	E. Maintenance
A

D

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52
Q 
During which of the following stages does a smoker need the most help and support?
	A. Pre-Contemplative
	B. Contemplative
	C. Preparatory
	D. Action
	E. Maintenance
A

D

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53
Q

The following are differences between the adult and the neonatal heart EXCEPT
A. Maturity of the Autonomic Nervous System
B. Ventricular Dominance
C. Heart Conduction System
D. Response to preload

A

C

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54
Q

The following are true EXCEPT:
A. The ductus venosus closes after clamping of the umbilical cord and subsequent collapse of the umbilical vein
B. The ductus arteriosus closes due to lung expansion and increased oxygen tension.
C. The foramen ovale closes when the pressure in the left atrium exceeds that of the right atrium
D. The direction of the shunt through the foramen ovale is always maintained from right to left until it closes

A

D

The shunt shifts from right-to-left to left-to-right due to increased systemic resistance brought about by the loss of the placental circuit and decreased pulmonary resistance because of expanded lung vasculature with breathing. This reversal is the reason for the closure of the foramen ovale. Therefore, the shunt is not exclusively maintained in a right-to-left direction.

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55
Q 
O2 Saturation values:
SVC 75 
RA 78 
RV 74 
PA 86 
LA 98 
LV 98 
AO 98
	A. ASD
	B. VSD
	C. PDA
	D. TOF
A

C

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56
Q 
O2 Saturation values:
SVC 64
IVC 62 
RA 64 
PV 98 
LA 98 
LV 82 
AO 82
	A. TOF
	B. Tricuspid atresia
	C. Ebstein’s anomaly
	D. Truncus arteriosus
A

B

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57
Q 
The following heart defects may present with a systolic ejection murmur except 
	A. atrial septal defect
	B. ventricular septal defect
	C. pulmonic stenosis
	D. aortic stenosis
A

B

A, C, and D may have systolic ejection murmurs while B (VSD) will have a pansystolic/holosystolic murmur along lower left sternal border.

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58
Q 
A 12-year old child with rheumatic heart disease consulted in the out-patient department. In the physical exam, a loud diastolic blowing at the apex was heard. The murmur is due to:
	A. Mitral regurgitation
	B. Aortic regurgitation 
	C. Pulmonic regurgitation
	D. Tricuspid regurgitation
A

B

Regurgitation of blood from aorta back towards the left ventricle will be heard in the apex area (despite the apex being the “mitral” area). In contrast with a mitral regurgitation which will be heard more in the upward border

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59
Q 
What auscultatory finding will be found in ASD?
	A. Wide split S1
	B. Diastolic rumble at apex
	C. Systolic ejection murmur at base
	D. Midsystolic click at base
A

C

The systolic ejection murmur is attributable to relatively increased blood flow through pulmonic valve into pulmonary artery because of the left-to-right-shunt. It is heard at the base because that’s where the pulmonary auscultatory area is.

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60
Q

Which of the following is a preventable risk factor in the development of asthma in later life?
A. Exposure to secondhand smoke
B. Respiratory infection during childhood
C. Allergy
D. Parental asthma

A

A

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61
Q 
In public health, what is the greatest risk factor for recurrence of respiratory diseases? 
A. malnutrition
B. HIV
C. alcoholism
D. smoking
A

D

62
Q 
What is the natural reservoir of Mycobacterium tuberculosis?
	A. water in aerosols
	B. man
	C. mosquito
	D. fomite
A

B

63
Q 
What controls blood flow
	A. venule
	B. vein
	C. arteriole
	D. capillary
A

C

64
Q 
At which area of the vascular system listed below is the pressure inside the lumen of a single vessel the greatest?
A. vena cava
B. capillary
C. aorta
D. venule
A

C

65
Q 
4. In taking the blood pressure, while deflating the cuff, the pressure at which the beating sound disappears indicate the following?
A. systolic pressure
B. diastolic pressure
C mean arterial pressure
D. asystolic pressure
A

B

66
Q

Which of the following statements is true?
A. The aorta presents the greatest resistance to flow
B.The venules have a greater total surface area than any other type of vessel
C. Both of the above
D. None of the above

A

D

67
Q 
Which of the following will produce a vasoconstriction?
A. Epinephrine
B. Sympathetic stimulation
C. Both of the above
D. None of the above
A

C

68
Q

Which of the following about fluid flow is true?
A. Flow is indirectly proportional to viscosity
B. Flow is directly proportional to size of lumen of tubule
C. Flow is not related to pressure gradient
D. A and B

A

D

69
Q 
Which of the following can exhibit negative pressure?
	A. Aorta
	B. Arteriole
	C. Capillary
	D. Vena Cava
A

D

70
Q

Which of the following statements explains why varicose veins occur?
A. varicose veins come from enlarging skin arterioles
B. varicose veins come from defective vein valves
C. from wearing high heels
D. from smaller amount of adventitious layer of blood vessel

A

B

71
Q 
. Which of the following vessels brings back fluid from the interstitial tissue into the intravascular space?
	A. Capillaries
	B. Lymphatics
	C. Both of the above
	D. None of the above
A

C

72
Q

Which of the following factors is most responsible for regulation of flow distribution?
A. Viscosity of blood
B. Radius of the vessel
C. The pressure differential of the intravascular space
D. The length of the blood vessel

A

B

73
Q

. Capillary hydraulic pressure favors filtration
A. True
B. False

A

A

74
Q

Total peripheral resistance is less in capillary beds than in the arterial system.
A. True
B. False

A

A

75
Q

Hypertension may be caused by stiff vessel walls.
A. True
B. False

A

A

76
Q

decrease pH
A. vasoconstriction
B. vasodilation
C. no direct effect

A

B

77
Q

antidiuretic hormone
A. vasoconstriction
B. vasodilation
C. no direct effect

A

A

78
Q 
Which of the following conditions lead to an increase in coronary blood flow?
	A. increased arterial pressure
	B. increased heart rate
	C. increased sympathetic stimulation
	D. all of the above
A

D

79
Q 
Freeing an artery from its neural influence results in \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_?
A. Vasoconstriction
B. Vasodilation
C. Neither 
D. Both
A

B

80
Q 
An increase in which would cause a decrease in blood flow?
	A. viscosity of blood
	B. radius of vessel
	C. plasma colloid osmotic pressure
	D. pressure gradient along the vesse
A

A

81
Q 
Increment change in this has the greatest effect on the flow of blood in a vessel
A. Diameter of the vessel
B. Pressure gradient across the vessel
C. Length of the vessel
D. Viscosity of the blood
A

A

82
Q 
Positive for tactile fremitus
A. Pulmonary Effusion
B. Lung Cancer
C. Pneumothorax
D. Atelectasis
A

B or D

Not sure what “positive” tactile fremitus means. But INCREASED tactile fremitus is caused by transmittance of the sound through a SOLID mass as opposed to the normal long. DECREASED tactile fremitus is caused by transmittance of sound through AIR such as in pneumothorax. Lung Cancer and atelectasis are both solid things. Pulmonary effusion is liquid.

83
Q 
Increased resonance of spoken words during auscultation with patients with pneumonic consolidation
A. Bronchophony
B. Egophony
C. Whispered pectoriloquy 
D. Skodiac resonance
A

C

Whispered pectoriloquy is when the examiner clearly hears the patient’s whispered words with a stethoscope over the lung field. It is associated with pneumonic consolidation.

84
Q 
A very loud, musical sound, which can be heard without a stethoscope and results from laryngeal spasm and mucosal swelling:
	A. Crackle
	B. Wheeze
	C. Ronchi
	D. Stridor
A

D

85
Q

Gas exchange begins in:
A. Terminal Bronchiole
B. Alveoli
C. Bronchus

A

B

86
Q 
The following are characteristics of left atrial enlargement EXCEPT for?
A. straightening of cardiac waistline
B. “double density” sign
C. retrosternal fullness
D. widening of carinal angle
A

C

87
Q 
Which can’t be seen in PA view?
	A. Right Atrium
	B. Left Ventrincle
	C. RIght Ventricle
	D. Left Atrium
A

C

Right ventricle does not form a border on PA view. Easily seen chambers in a PA view are Right atrium and Left ventricle.

88
Q

Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the waveform in electrocardiogram?
A. P wave represents atrial repolarization
B. QRS complex represents ventricular depolarization
C. U wave is a normal finding in ECG
D. T wave represents ventricular depolarization

A

B

P wave = atrial depolarization
U wave = abnormal finding
T wave = ventricular repolarization

89
Q 
Which of the following is seen in an echocardiograph
	A. Blood is white
	B. Normal myocardium is viewed white
	C. Pericardial fluid is black
	D. Calcification is black
A

C

90
Q

The following statements are limitations of the 2D echocardiography, EXCEPT:
A. Limited visualization of with COPD
B. Accuracy is operator-dependent
C. Accuracy is interpreter-dependent
D. Not useful for instantaneous interpretation for emergency situations

A

D

ECHOcardiography is very portable and non-invasive, and is used for instant interpretation in emergency situations. It provides real-time imaging. However, it is operator-, equipment-, and interpreter-dependent and cannot provide high-quality images in all patients (trans).

91
Q

Which of the following is true about the treadmill stress test?
A. It’s an invasive tool
B. One MET is equal to 1.5 mL O2/kg body weight
C. It is useful in prognostication of myocardial infarction
D. It is inconclusive if patient achieves HR more than predicted for age.

A

C

Stress test is non-invasive. 1 MET = 3.5mL O2/kg/min body weight.

92
Q

Which is false about the basic principles of nuclear test in cardiology?
A. Emits photons of alpha rays
B. Uses Technetium and Thallium
C. Shows myocardial supply

A

A

93
Q 
True with proper degree of inspiration
	A. diaphragm posterior 9th-10th rib
	B. diaphragm anterior 9th-10th rib
	C. eliminate bronchovascular crowding
	D. may obscure possibility of pulmonary edema
A

C

94
Q

Which one is not a symptom of LV enlargement?
A. Lateral and inferior displacement of the apex
B. Posterior displacement of the posteroinferior border of the heart
C. Widening of the carinal angle
D. Retrocardiac fullness

A

C

95
Q 
Right atrial enlargement, except:
A. Seen in TAPVR
B. Retrocardiac fullness
C. Right cardiac border enlargement
D. Right cardiac border exceeds 50% of the mediastinal cardiovascular shadow
A

B

Retrocardiac fullness commonly seen in RIGHT VENTRICULAR enlargement.

96
Q

These differentiate slow response from fast response cells EXCEPT
A. RMP is less negative
B. Influx of Na is responsible for depolarization
C. Action potential has lesser magnitude
D. phase 0 is slower

A

B

97
Q 
Spontaneous depolarization of pacemaker cells are caused by which ion:
A. Ca++
B. Na+
C. K+
D. Cl-
A

B

98
Q

. This characteristic differentiates cardiac muscle cells from skeletal muscle cells:
A. Influx of sodium for initial depolarization
B. Influx of calcium to sustain action potential
C. Influx of potassium for repolarization
D. None of the above

A

B

99
Q

The following are characteristics of AV block, EXCEPT
A. 1st degree shows prolonged PR interval; conduction defect below bundle of His
B. 2nd degree - P wave is not followed by QRS complex
C. 3rd degree - not all atrial signal traverse the AV node
D. Most common complete heart block happens distal to the bundle of His

A

C

In 3rd degree AV block, ABSOLUTELY NO atrial signals traverse the AV node.

100
Q 
Increase in strength of contraction with increase frequency of contraction
	A. Post extrasystolic potentiation
	B. Positive force treppe
	C. Negative inotropic effect
	D. Ischemia
A

B

101
Q

This structure at the intercalated discs of cardiac muscles allows ion to pass across adjacent cells and the rapid spread of action potential.
A. Sarcoplasmic reticulum
B. Gap junctions
C. T tubule

A

B

102
Q

Why is the sinoatrial node considered to be the primary pacemaker of the heart?
A. It is located at the right atrium.
B. It has the fastest rate of spontaneous depolarization.
C. It has the least negative resting membrane potential.
D. It uses the least ATP for spontaneous depolarization.

A

B

103
Q

The following characteristics of the AV Node contributes to the slow electrical conduction except
A. smaller diameter
B. less gap junctions
C. less negative action potentials
D. opening of both fast sodium and calcium ion channels

A

D

The AV node does not have fast sodium channels.

104
Q 
The phase of action potential characterized by an abrupt change in membrane potential brought about by the entry of sodium and calcium ions in the cardiac muscle.
	A. I
	B. II
	C. III
	D. 0
A

D

105
Q

Which of the following will increase the heart rate and increase contractility?
A. increase spontaneous depolarization of pacemakers
B. increase the hyperpolarization of myocytes
C. decreasing the resting membrane potential to a more negative value

A

A

106
Q

Which of the following will appear on the ECG if the AV pacemaker is depolarized for a longer time?
A. longer QT segment
B. longer P-R segment
C. longer ST segment

A

B

PR interval includes atrial depolarization and subsequent conduction through the AV node and others.

107
Q

Upon increasing the diameter of the blood vessel, which of the following are true?
A. Increase in the velocity of the blood flow
B. Decrease in the velocity of the blood flow

A

A

108
Q

A patient has underwent an echocardiagram and his left ventricular dimensions were noted. The left ventricular end diastolic volume is 140 cc and the left ventricular end systolic volume is 70cc. He has a heart beat of 70 beats/min.

What is the patients stroke volume?
	A) 30 cc
B) 50 cc
C) 70 cc
D) 90 cc
A

C

Stroke volume = end-diastolic minus end-systolic volume of LV

109
Q

A patient has underwent an echocardiagram and his left ventricular dimensions were noted. The left ventricular end diastolic volume is 140 cc and the left ventricular end systolic volume is 70cc. He has a heart beat of 70 beats/min.

What is the patients cardiac output?
A) 4000 cc/min
B) 4100 cc/min
C) 4200 cc/min
D) 4300 cc/min
A

C

CO = HR x SV
CO = 70bpm x 70cc/min
110
Q 
What is the best view to visualize the right ventricle?
	A. PA view 
	B. AP view
	C. Decubitus
	D. Lateral
A

D

111
Q

A 21 y/o patient aspirated a peanut and was rushed to the hospital to undergo bronchoscopy.

Chest x-ray in upright showed trachea deviated to the right. What could be the finding based on the x-ray?
	A. right bronchus is obstructed 
	B. left bronchus is obstructed
	C. either bronchi obstructed
	D. trachea is obstructed
A

A

Aspirated objects are more likely to fall into the right main stem bronchus. The trachea deviates to the obstructed lung’s side.

112
Q

A 21 y/o patient aspirated a peanut and was rushed to the hospital to undergo bronchoscopy.

You inserted a laryngoscope into the right main stem bronchus and pushed posteriorly. What could possibly be damaged?
A. SVC
B. Azygos vein
C. Hemiazygous vein
D. Esophagus
A

A

The arch of the azygos vein goes right over the right main bronchus

113
Q

A 21 y/o patient aspirated a peanut and was rushed to the hospital to undergo bronchoscopy.

After the procedure where you inserted the laryngoscope into the right main bronchus, the patient complained about hoarseness in his voice. What could possibly be damaged?
A. CN X
B. Left recurrent laryngeal nerve
C. Right recurrent layngeal nerve
D. NOTA
A

C

The RIGHT recurrent laryngeal nerve is more likely to be damaged because malayo naman yung LEFT

114
Q

. While inserting the endoscopy in the superior mediastinum, you accidentally transected a nerve ventral to the aorta and dorsal to the trachea. The patient will likely develop:
A. paralysis on the right diaphragm
B. paralysis on the left diaphragm
C. paralysis on the right vocal cord
D. paralysis on the left vocal cord
E. paralysis on the distal half of the esophagus

A

D

The nerve that is ventral to the aorta (left side of the mediastinum) and dorsal to the trachea is the LEFT recurrent laryngeal nerve.

115
Q

Defense mechanisms of the respiratory system are based on the following EXCEPT:
A. Phagocytic activity of type II pneumocyte
B. Nasal clearance of material
C. Mucociliary motion for tracheobronchial clearance
D. Phagocytic activity of alveolar macrophage

A

A

Type II pneumocytes are not phagocytic, they secrete surfactant which reduce alveolar surface tension, important for easier inflation of alveoli.

116
Q 
Cilia of respiratory epithelium all beat toward which structure?
	A. External nares
	B. Oropharynx
	C. Laryngeal ventricle
	D. Terminal bronchiole
A

B

117
Q 
Which of the following is also known as “congestive heart failure cells”?
	A. Type I Pneumocyte
	B. Type II Pneumocyte
	C. Macrophage
	D. Erythrocyte
A

C

118
Q 
What is the main basic tissue composition of the tunica media?
	A. Epithelium
	B. Connective Tissue
	C. Nerve 
	D. Muscle
A

B & D

Tunica media is the middle layer of an artery or vein. It is made of smooth muscle cells AND elastic tissue. In smaller arteries it is primarily smooth muscle arranged in lamellae. In larger arteries there are more elastic fibers than muscle tissue

119
Q 
Blood distribution to organs is primarily regulated by
	A. conducting arteries
	B. muscular arteries
	C. capillary bed
	D. medium-sized veins
A

B

120
Q 
What keeps the lymphatic capillaries from collapsing?
A. Rigid subendothelium
B. Thin endothelium
C. Anchoring filaments
D. Intact basal lamina
A

C

121
Q 
In which of the following situations is there positive pleural pressure?
	A. sigh
	B. yawn
	C. sneeze
	D. quiet breathing
A

C

122
Q 
At the peak of normal expiration, further expiration is possible by
	A. contraction of the diaphragm
	B. relaxation of the diaphragm
	C. contraction of the rectus abdominis
	D. opening of the laryngeal glottis
A

C

123
Q 
Which of the following laws determines the amount of O2 and CO2 transported as dissolved gas?
A. Boyle's Law
B. Charles' Law
C. Henry's Law
D. Dalton's Law
A

C

124
Q

. Which of the following has a major role in the lung’s elastic recoil
A. Elastic fibers
B. Collagen fibers
C. Lung interstitium

A

A

125
Q

. TRUE about mucociliary BEAT
A. lower airway, direction of flow is to alveoli
B. nose, flow towards basal meatus
C. bi-layer lining mucus has thick gel lower layer
D. absent in alveoli

A

B

126
Q

Which of the following features characterizes peripheral airways?
A. They contribute only 20% of the total airway resistance.
B. They are normally compressed by the alveoli.
C. They do not show dynamic collapse on forced exhalation.
D. They do not have mucociliary apparatus.

A

A

Central airways contribute the 80%

127
Q

Most important factor in fine-tuning ventilation under normal conditions
A. PO2
B. PCO2
C. pH

A

B

128
Q 
Which will occur when submerged in water from neck below (*not exact question)
	A. Intrathoracic blood volume increase
	B. Cardiac output decrease
	C. Vital Capacity increase
	D. Right atrial pressure decrease
A

A

129
Q

In the diving reflex:
A. Facial receptors send impulses via trigeminal and glossopharyngeal nerves
B. Sympathetic response causes vasoconstriction to inhibit profusion to heart
C. There may be enhanced cardiac energy consumption
D. Stimulation of respiratory muscles occur

A

A

Diving reflex causes parasympathetic stimulation to heart causing bradycardia; sympathetic to peripheral arterioles causing vasoconstriction and redirection of blood to brain and heart, and inhibition of respiratory muscles preventing aspiration of water. It is dependent on stimuli to the face via CNs V & VIII.

130
Q 
This rib is larger than its nearby rib and reaches to within 2 or 3 fingers’ breadth of the iliac crest
	A. Rib 9
	B. Rib 10
	C. Rib 11
	D. Rib 12
A

B

131
Q 
The dome of the diaphragm is at the level of \_\_ ribs in normal respiration
	A. 5-6th
	B. 6-7th
	C. 7-8th
	D. 8-9th
A

A

132
Q 
The spinous processes of these vertebra are more horizontal as compared to others. (not exact question)
	A. T1-4
	B. T5-8
	C. T9-10
	D. T11-12
A

D

133
Q 
The upper border of the manubrium lies at the level of the
	A. T2 vertebra
	B. T3
	C. T4
	D. T5
A

A

134
Q 
The upper 2 intercostal arteries arise from: 
A. aorta
B. superior intercostal artery
C. internal thoracic artery
D. internal intercostal artery
A

B

135
Q

What structures increase the lateral diameter of the chest wall during quiet inspiration?
A. Intercostals
B. Diaphragm
C. Lower ribs
D. Sternocleidomastoid, scalenes, serrati

A

C

136
Q

The air we breathe is:
A. normally wet and doesn’t need to be moisturized
B. normally warm and doesn’t need to be heated
C. normally clean and doesn’t need to be filtered
D. high in O2 and doesn’t need to be supplemented

A

D

137
Q 
following functions
	A. O2 exchange with capillary blood
	B. CO2 exchange with capillary blood
	C. Lung defense
	D. Surfactant generation
A

C

138
Q 
Which of the following lung volume/capacities is not measured by a spirometer?
	A. Vital Capacity
	B. Inspiratory Capacity
	C. Functional Residual Capacity
	D. Expiratory Reserve Volume
A

C

139
Q 
Of the total O2 content in the arterial blood, how much is taken up by the tissue in resting state?
	A. 25%
	B. 50%
	C. 75%
	D. 100%
A

A

140
Q

Which of the following factors is responsible for the sigmoidal shape of the HbO2 dissociation curve?
A. Level of O2 present in the lungs
B. Level of O2 present in the blood flow
C. Amount of Hb present in the blood
D. O2 binding characteristic of adult Hb

A

D

141
Q 
This structure makes the full thickness of the alveolar wall
	A. Pneumocyte I
	B. Pneumocyte II
	C. Macrophage
	D. Endothelial Cell
A

A

Pneumocyte I cells are flattened cells specialized for gas diffusion and exchange. These cells predominate the alveolar wall

142
Q 
Patient reported with moderate respiratory distress. It was found out that there was minimal to diminished breathing in the right lung with resonant percussion. Apex beat is found between midclavicular line and anterior axillary line. What is your diagnosis?
A. pneumothorax, right lung
B. pneumothorax, left lung
C. atelectasis, right lung
D. atelectasis, left lung
A

A

Resonant percussion on right side  air, as opposed to Dull percussion which  atelectasis.

143
Q

A chest tube was inserted to drain a massive pleural effusion. After draining at least 2L of fluid, the patient went into sudden hypertension and eventually into cardiac arrest. This event is due to:
A. Sudden collapse of left lung
B. Decreased blood from SVC and IVC due to large volume suddenly drained
C. Congestion, edema of lungs brought about by sudden re-expansion of lungs
D. Sucking in of air in pleural cavity that was suddenly drained of fluid, leading to tension pneumothorax

A

C

144
Q 
Chest CT scan showed large mass density seen anterior to heart and great vessels. This can be any of the following except;
	A. Thymus tumor
	B. Substernal Goiter
	C. Lymph node tumor
	D. Teratoma
	E. Aneurism of the aorta
A

E

The aorta passes posterior to the heart and other great vessels.

145
Q 
You auscultated a patient and heard an abnormal heart sound or murmur on the patient’s 2nd left intercostal space lateral to parasternum. What could be the cause of the murmur?
	A. Pulmonic stenosis
	B. Pulmonic insufficiency
	C. Patent ductus arteriosus
	D. Mitral stenosis
A

A

146
Q

Patient reported with myocardial infarction involving most of the anterior wall of left ventricle. Which vessel is most probably involved?
A. SA nodal artery
B. AV nodal artery
C. Left marginal artery

A

C

147
Q 
This condition causes the mediastinal structures to deviate to the ipsilateral side in varying degrees.
	A. pneumothorax with atelectasis
	B. hemothorax with atelectasis
	C. chylothorax
	D. hydrothorax
	E. atelectasis
A

E

148
Q 
A patient with heart murmur that is heard loudest at 4th-5th intercostal space parasternal border. Which heart valve is most pathologic?
A. Mitral Valve
B. Tricuspid Valve
C. Aortic Valve
D. Pulmonary Valve
A

B

149
Q

Which of the following is not a function of the fibrous skeleton.
A. it is for the support of the middle muscular layer of the heart.
B. it provides attachment to cardiac cusps
C. it provides electrical insulation to myogenic muscles of the heart
D. it provides attachment for the valvular cusps and chordae tendinae
E. it has 4 fibrous rings and 2 fibrous trigone

A

A

150
Q

The Left Coronary Artery provides blood supply to these areas. Which is NOT included?
A. SA node
B. AV node
C. Most of the interventricular septum
D. Portion of the right ventricle
E. Most of the diaphragmatic surface of the heart

A

B

[COMPRE] LU III (6 decks)

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