OS 204 Compre Flashcards

1
Q
What is found in the Tympanic membrane?
A. Ectoderm
B. Endoderm
C. Mesoderm
D. All
A

D

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2
Q
Which of the following structures will develop first?
A. Inner ear 
B. Ossicles 
C. Middle ear and Eustachian tube 
D. Ear canal
A

B

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3
Q
. What opens the Eustachian tube?
A. tensor tympani
B. levator palatine
C.pharyngoglossus
D. tensor veli palatine
A

D

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4
Q
What causes horizontal wrinkles above the root of the nose?
A. Procerus
B. corrugator supercilli:
C. occipito frontalis
D. orbicularis oculi
A

A

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5
Q
Related to scala vestibuli: 
A. helicotrema
B. round window
C. oval window
D. cochlear duct
A

C

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6
Q

When the right ear is exposed to prolonged loud noise, it will result to:
A. stiffening of the right ossicular chain and tympanic membrane
B. stiffening of the left ossicular chain and tympanic membrane
C. stiffening of the both the right and left ossicular chain and tympanic membrane
D. stiffening of the ossicular chain and tympanic membrane is pathologic response
E. hearing is loss

A

A

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7
Q
Which organ system is not used for balance?
A. Visual
B. Dorsal column
C. Cerebellum 
D. Vestibular
E. None of the above
A

E

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8
Q

If you put your tuning fork above your upper lip, the resulting sound sensation is detected via
A. vibration of tympanic membrane and ossicles
B. vibration of cerebrospinal fluid
C. vibration of the external auditory canal
D. all of the above

A

A

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9
Q
When does the sense of hearing start?
A. fetal stage
B. 1 month old
C. 1 year old
D. 2 years old
A

A

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10
Q
What innervates the stapedius muscle?
A. CNIII
B.CNV
C.CNVII
D.CNVIII
A

C

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11
Q
Connection of scala tympani and scala vestibuli
A. ductus reunien
B. Helicotrema 
C. Cochlear duct
D. Cochlear aqueduct
E. Vestibular duct
A

B

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12
Q
Which of the following does not belong to the group? 
A. Zygomaticus Major
B. LLSAN
C. Zygomaticus Minor
D. Levator Anguli Oris
A

B

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13
Q
Which does not describe the Buccinator?
	A. originates from the pterygomandibular raphe
	B. medial to the cheek skin
	C. inserts into the orbicularis oris
	D. None of the above
A

D

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14
Q
Innervation of the inferior ear and angle of the mandible 
A. greater auricular
B. auricotemporal nerve
C. mental nerve
D. inferior alveolar nerve
A

A

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15
Q
Not true of V1
A. The frontal nerve is the largest 
B. The lacrimal is the smallest 
C. The external nasal innervates the lateral nose
D. Supraorbital comes from frontal
A

C

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16
Q

. Which of the following is true about the facial nerve?
A. The cervical and marginal mandibular branch are typically one
B. Approach muscles superficially
C. Danger zone is just above the zygomaticus
D. The branches do not anastomose

A

A

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17
Q
Which vein drains to both sinus cavernous and pterygoid plexus?
A. superior ophthalmic
B. deep facial
C. inferior ophthalmic
D. common facial
A

C

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18
Q

Which is NOT TRUE regarding the anastomosis among the arteries of the face?
A. external and internal carotid artery via the ophthalmic artery
B. the right and left labial arteries
C. the superficial temporal artery and its opposite
D. the facial and internal maxillary artery via the buccal artery

A

C

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19
Q

Which is correct regarding V3?
A. The inferior alveolar nerve is usually severed when you remove the mandible.
B. It exits the skull via foramen spinosum
C. The posterior branches are big and sensory
D. The anterior branches are small and motor

A

A

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20
Q

Not true of the stylomandibular tunnel
A. contains 20% of the parotid gland
B. Bounded anteriorly by the posterior border of the ramus
C. Bounded posteriorly by the stylomandibular ligament
D. Contains the deep lobe of the parotid gland

A

C

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21
Q
The parotid gland is encapsulated by
A. Superficial cervical fascia
B. Middle cervical fascia
C. Superficial layer of the deep cervical fascia 
D. Deep cervical fascia
A

C

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22
Q

The retromandibular vein is formed by the union of
A. Posterior auricular & posterior facial veins
B. Superficial temporal & maxillary veins
C. Anterior and posterior facial
D. Common facial and maxillary

A

B

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23
Q
Which part of the Internal Maxillary Artery has Middle Meningeal Artery?
A. First
B. Second
C. Third
D. Fourth
A

A

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24
Q
This muscle elevates the mandible and protracts it to a limited extent
A. Temporalis 
B. Masseter 
C. Medial Pterygoid 
D. Lateral Pterygoid
A

B

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25
Q
Which does not belong to the group 
A. frontal
B. sphenoidal
C. ethmoidal
D. temporal
A

D

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26
Q
These structures can be seen when doing an anterior rhinoscopy, except:
A. Inferior turbinate
B. Superior turbinate 
C. Pharynx
D. Nasal septum
A

B

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27
Q
The junction between the lower border of the nasal bones and the upper border of the upper lateral cartilage
A. Nasion
B. Rhinion
C. Inion
D. Nasal dome
A

B

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28
Q
Not included in the pterion
A. Lesser wing of the sphenoid
B. Squamous part of temporal bone
C. Frontal
D. Parietal
A

A

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29
Q
Ring-like structure of the temporal bone that surrounds the External Acoustic Meatus
A. Squama
B. Tympanic Plate 
C. Petrous
D. Fallopian canal
A

B

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30
Q

Pharyngeal tubercle
A. Clivus
B. Basiocciput
C. Petrous part of the temporal bone

A

B

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31
Q
Which is not true of the foramen lacerum
A. Artifact of dry bone 
B. Covered by cartilaginous plate T
C. Sympathetic nerve along with jugular vein passes through it 
D. Apex of the petrous part of the skull
A

C

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32
Q
What is the opening between the greater and lesser sphenoid wings?
	A. Foramen Ovale
	B. Foramen rotundum
	C. Superior Orbital Fissure
	D. Inferior Orbital Fissure
A

B

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33
Q
What has hyperesthesia if the superior orbital fissure is affected?
A. Forehead
B. Cheeks
C. Temples
D. Chin
A

A

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34
Q
Spinal accessory nerve exits through 
A. foramen magnum
B. jugular foramen
C. foramen rotundum
D. both A and B
A

A

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35
Q

TRUE of nasal valves
A. External valve is the narrowest part of the nose
B. Internal valve is bounded by the lower border of the upper lateral cartilage and nasal septum
C. Middle turbinate is found in the internal nasal valve
D. Pulling the cheek laterally to open up the nasal valves is Hatzel’s sign

A

B

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36
Q

Features of an aesthetically pleasing nose
A. Columellar show is visible on lateral view of the face
B. Columella-labial angle is more than 105 degrees
C. Alar edges are wider than the vertical line limit of medial canthi
D. Greater than one third of the face

A

A

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37
Q
Which provide stability to the nasal bones
A. arch structure
B. nasal spine of frontal bone
C. internasal suture
D. AOTA
A

D

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38
Q
Erectile tissues are present in the following areas, EXCEPT
A. Inferior Turbinate
B. Middle Turbinate
C. Superior Turbinate
D. Adjacent Septum
A

C

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39
Q

Which is TRUE for the turbinates?
A. The middle and superior turbinates are almost symmetrical and have same length
B. The inferior turbinate is an independent bone
C. The fontanelles serve as ostia of the maxillary sinus
D. Erector tissues are found in all turbinates

A

B

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40
Q
Landmark structure in coronal CT that will indicate the anterior third of the nose
A. Middle turbinate
B. Planum sphenoidale
C. Crista galli
D. Ethmoid
A

C

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41
Q
Is sagittally oriented coming from the lateral wall and guards the infundibulum
A. Middle turbinate
B. Ethmoid Bulla
C. Inferior turbinate
D. Uncinate process
A

D

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42
Q
Which is true of the infundibulum?
A. 2D space behind uncinate process 
B. Receives ostia of ethmoidal, frontal, maxillary sinuses
C. largest of anterior ethmoidal cells
D. Hour glass structure of frontal sinus
A

B

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43
Q
Roof of the ethmoid is bounded by
	A cribriform plate
	B lateral lamina
	C fovea ethmoidalis
	D. crista galli
A

C

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44
Q
. When you pull the ala of the nose laterally and this results in better breathing, this is a sign of?
A.  Hatzel
B. Hasner
C. Tonybee
D.  Cottle
A

D

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45
Q
Molecular characteristic of odorants
	A. Low vapor pressure
	B. Lipophilicity
	C. Low water solubility
	D. High polarity
A

B

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46
Q

What demonstrates proper anterior rhinoscopy using a nasal speculum?
A. Placing the head mirror over the examiner’s dominant eye.
B. Place the examiner’s ring finger on the patient’s nose to stabilize the speculum.
C. Close the nasal speculum fully before taking it out of the patient’s nose.
D. The light can be placed lower than the patient’s head.

A

A

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47
Q

Which of the following is NOT TRUE?

A. Posterior bleeding is due to the Little’s area
B. Anterior bleeding can easily be controlled by pinching the nose
C. Mucosal blanket is swept posteriorly to the pharynx
D. Posterior choanae are bigger than the nare

A

A

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48
Q

Part of occiput that forms the main joint between the head and neck as it articulates with atlas

a. acetabulum
b. condyle
c. asterion
d. basion

A

B

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49
Q

The landmark on the skull where the frontal, sphenoidal, temporal, and parietal bones meet.

a. basion
b. opisthion
c. asterion
d. pterion

A

D

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50
Q

This part of the skull base marks the posterior border of the middle cranial fossa

a. dorsum sella
b. tuberculum sella
c. pituitary fossa
d. clivius

A

A

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51
Q

Which of the following is a part of the mandible?

a. Coracoid process
b. Coronoid process
c. Uncinate Process
d. Calcaneal Process

A

B

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52
Q

The bony nasal septum is composed of what bones?
A. Vomer and perpendicular plate of ethmoid bone
B. Nasal and lacrimal bones
C. Vomer and lacrimal bones

A

A

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53
Q

Transection of this nerve results in the dryness of the eyes

a. Chorda tympani
b. arnold’s nerve
c. Jacobson’s nerver
d. Facial nerve

A

D

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54
Q

Transection of this nerve results in dryness of the mouth

a. Chorda tympani
b. arnold’s nerve
c. Jacobson’s nerver
d. Facial nerve

A

B

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55
Q

Cancer of the larynx manifests as ear pain because of

a. Chorda tympani
b. arnold’s nerve
c. Jacobson’s nerve
d. Facial nerve

A

B

56
Q

Ear surgery can cause damage to this nerve and result to dryness of the eyes

a. Chorda tympani
b. arnold’s nerve
c. Jacobson’s nerver
d. Facial nerve

A

D

57
Q
The Organ of Corti is housed in
a. Scala Tympani
B. Scala Media
C. Scala Vestibula
D. Helicotrema
A

B

58
Q

Actively vibrates and amplifies sound

a. inner hair cells
b. outer hair cells
c. Deiter’s cells
d. Hensen’s cells

A

B

59
Q

The mechanical action of this mechanism directly amplifies the vibration of the tympanic
membrane
A. Lever action of ossicular chain
B. Area effect of the tympanic membrane
C. Phase difference between oval window and round window
D. Curvature of tympanic membrane

A

A

60
Q

A 90 year old man can’t hear and understand certain words, what could be the cause?

a. brain atrophy
b. high frequency hearing loss
c. ossicular chain damage
d. ear wax

A

B

61
Q

The part of orbicularis oculi responsible for gently closing the eyelids

a. orbital
b. palpebral
c. lacrimal
d. levator palpebral superioris

A

B

62
Q

What innervates the inferior ear and angle of the mandible?

a. auriculotemporal
b. great auricular
c. mental
d. inferior alveolar

A

B

63
Q

TRUE of the facial nerve
a. mandibular and cervical nerves has multiple branches
b. branches of facial nerve superficial to the muscles
C. danger area for nerve in the face is over the zygoma
d. no anastomosis among nerves

A

C

64
Q

Marrionette lines are formed by contraction of:

a. levator anguli
b. depressor labii
c. depressor anguli
d. levator labii superioris

A

C

65
Q
Structure that is easily cut when exposing ITF using blunt chisel and mallet
A. Inferior alveolar artery
B. Inferior alveolar nerve
C. lingual nerve
D. internal maxillary artery
A

B

66
Q

Middle third of external nose is supported by
A. nasal bone
B. alar cartilage
C. lateral cartilage

A

C

67
Q
Landmark structure that would indicate on CT scan that the level is in anterior ⅓ of the nose.
A. middle turbinate
B. planum sphenoidale
C. crista galli
D. uncinate process
A

C

68
Q
A sagittally oriented
structure that attaches to the lateral nasal wall and guards the
infundibulum:
A. middle turbinate
B. ethmoidal bulla
C. inferior turbinate
D. uncinate process
A

D

69
Q

True of the infundibulum:
A. A twodimensional
space behind the uncinate process
B. Receives the ostia of frontal maxillary and ethmoid sinuses
C. The largest of the anterior ethmoidal air cells
D. Hourglass
shaped structure under the frontal sinus

A

B

70
Q
Which is NOT a part of the osteomeatal complex?
A. Superior turbinate 
B. ethmoidal bulla
C. Middle turbinate
D. Uncinate process
Not sure of the order of choices.
A

A

71
Q

Not part of the ethmoid complex

a. uncinate process
b. crista galli
c. inferior turbinate
d. sculla

A

C

72
Q

Narrowest part of the nasal passage

a. osteomeatal
b. inferior turbinate
c. inferior nasal valve
d. external nasal valve

A

C

73
Q

which of these is FALSE?

a. tip of the nose is innervated by V1
b. chin by V3
c. cheek by V2
d. forehead by V2

A

D

74
Q
The characteristics of the ideal odorant are the following except
A. Lipophilic
B. Fat soluble
C. High vapor pressure
D. High surface activity
A

B

75
Q

Most frequently fractured bone of the head and neck

a. Angle of the mandible
b. Body of the mandible
c. Nasal bone
d. Zygomatic bone

A

C

76
Q

Tip of the nose is innervated by

a. V1
b. V2
c. V3
d. V4

A

A

77
Q

NOT TRUE for the vestibule

a. has vibrissae or tiny hairs
b. composed of keratinizing squamous epithelium
c. from the nares up to inferior turbinate
d. can easily accommodate the thumb or the index finger

A

C

78
Q

Normal hearing threshold

a. 15 dB
b. 25 dB
c. 35 dB
d. 55 dB

A

B

79
Q

The middle ear contributes an increase

a. 10 dB
b. 20 dB
c. 30 dB
d. 40 dB

A

D

80
Q

Pinna consists of

a. hyaline cartilage
b. elastic cartilage
c. reticulate fibers
d. dense regular connective tissue

A

B

81
Q

The stapes is derived from which pharyngeal arch?

a. 1st
b. 2nd
c. 3rd
d. 4th

A

B

82
Q
From which pharyngeal arch are the mandible and the malleus derived?
A. 1st
B. 2nd
C. 3rd
D. 4th
A

A

83
Q
Sensory nerve supply of the posterior 1/3 of the tongue
A. CN V 
B. CN IX
C. CN XI
D. CN XII
A

B

84
Q
. Botlinum toxin needs to react on what muscles to reduce contraction
A. bilateral PCA
B. bilateral lateral CA
C. Bilateral thyroaretinoid
D. Bilateral cricothyroid
A

D

85
Q

Which will require less movement of vocal cords
A. Sniff
B. Vocal fry

A

A

86
Q
Which of the following has the longest phonatory activity for vocal ligament?
A. “ah” /a/
B. “esss” /s/
C. “arrr” /r/
D. all of the above
A

A

87
Q
You’re friend swallowed and choked with a piece of meat. Where is it easiest to incise using a small blade to provide temporary airway?
A. cricothyroid membrane
B. thyrohyoid membrane
C. trachea
D. chest
A

A

88
Q
In children, the narrowest section of airway is the
A. supraglottis
B. Glottis
C. Subglottis
D. Epiglottis
A

C

89
Q
. Blood supply of the tonsils is through the:
A. Lingual artery
B. Ascending artery
C. Descending artery
D. Only A and B
A

D

90
Q
The submandibular duct
A. arises from deep part of the gland
B. opens at the palatine foramen 
C. lies embedded within the gland 
D. called the duct of Rivinus
A

A

A. arises from deep part of the gland
B. opens at the palatine foramen (opens beside lingual frenulum)
C. lies embedded within the gland (emerges from the anterior end of the deep part of the gland)
D. called the duct of Rivinus (sublingual duct)

91
Q
Lesions found at the tip of the tongue. Where will you palpate?
A. Submandibular 
B. Submental 
C. Inferior deep cervical
D. Superior deep cervical
A

B

A. Submandibular (lateral ant ⅔)
B. Submental (tip)
C. Inferior deep cervical (middle ant ⅔)
D. Superior deep cervical (post ⅓)

92
Q
Elevates the cartilaginous portion of the auditory tube when swallowing and yawning
A. tensor veli palatini muscle
B. palatoglossal muscle
C. palatopharyngeus muscle
D. NOTA
A

A

93
Q
Which of these forms the Waldeyer’s ring?
A. Lingual tonsil
B. Pharyngeal tonsil 
C. Palatine tonsil
D. All of the above
A

D

94
Q

Sensory Innervation of the hard palate

A

CN V

95
Q

Damage to this nerve will cause paralysis of the intrinsic muscles of the tongue

A

CN XII

96
Q
This is 2.5cm behind tonsils. It is never usually injured in operations since it lies freely freed from the pharynx by fatty tissue inside the sheath.
A. Internal carotid artery
B. Common carotid artery
C. External carotid Artery
D. Facial Artery
A

A

97
Q

Which among the following about the physiologic basis of bile is NOT TRUE?
A. It solubilizes fat
B. Only form by which cholesterol is secreted released
C. Reabsorbed in the large intestine
D. Goes back to liver via portal vein

A

C

98
Q

distinctly red spot on the white of the eye fades to brown after several weeks. The patient has no other symptoms. The long resolution time of the spot is due to which of the following:
A. poor venous drainage
B. continuing trauma to vessels in conjunctiva/sclera
C. immobility of overlying structure
D. eyeball’s poor vascularity

A

A

99
Q
The thickest layer of the cornea is
A. Collagen
B. Vitreous
C. Aqueous
D. Endothelial Cells
A

A

100
Q
What is the cranial nerve for pain in the eye?
A. CN II
B. CN III
C. CN V
D. CN VII
A

C

101
Q

What is the most vital consideration for the true ophthalmological emergencies?
A. Extreme eye pain
B. Development of something in cornea and lens
C. Extreme symptoms (excessive bleeding, referred pain)
D. Rapid permanent eye loss

A

D

102
Q

Which of the following situations, in isolation, is a least significant indication an urgent/emergent consult (i.e. a generalist can handle)?
A. persistent diplopia
B. swelling of upper lid because of insect bite
C. laceration on the upper eyelid

A

B

103
Q

Describes the suboccipital region:

A. The splenius capitis forms a roof over the suboccipital triangle
B. The obliquus capitis superior muscle does not attach to the occipital bone.
C. The ventral ramus of C1 innervates the suboccipital muscles.
D. Contraction of an obliquus capitis inferior muscle rotates the head to the ipsilateral side.

A

D

104
Q
The platysma lies in this layer of the deep cervical fascia.
	A. prevertebral
	B. pretracheal
	C. investing
	D. none of the above
A

D

105
Q
The hypoglossal nerve piggybacks on this nerve. 
A. Lesser petrosal nerve
B. Great auricular nerve
C. Greater petrosal nerve
D. Auriculotemporal nerve
A

D

106
Q
The nerve/s emerging from the ‘nerve point’ at the posterior triangle
	A. supraclavicular nerve
	B. great auricular nerve
	C. spinal accessory nerve
	D. All of the above
	E. Only A & B
A

E

107
Q
Following its course posteroinferiorly, the spinal accessory nerve lies on the surface of
A. Scalenus anterior
B. Splenius capitis
C. Levator scapulae
D. Trapezius
A

C

108
Q
Lymphatic drainage of the larynx?
A. Upper set, deep cervical
B. Retropharengeal
C. Upper set, parotid
D. Submaxillary
A

A

109
Q
Lymphatic drainage of the upper part of the pharynx
A. Upper set, deep cervical
B. Retropharyngeal
C. Upper set, superficial cervical
D. Submaxillary
A

A

110
Q
Well-developed in children, producing adenoids, atrophied in adults; drained by retropharyngeal nodes
A. pharyngeal tonsils
B. palatine tonsils
C. lingual tonsils
D. laryngeal tonsils
A

A

111
Q
What is the weak part in cricoid?
A. lamina
B. arch, upper 
C. arch, middle
D. arch, lower
A

C

112
Q
The pharyngeal venous plexus communicates with this plexus and ends in the IJV near the jaw.
A. carotid
B. vertebral
C. pterygoid 
D. temporal
A

C

113
Q

Motor innervation of cricothyroid
A. Recurrent laryngeal nerve
B. Internal laryngeal nerve, upper branch
C. Internal laryngeal nerve, lower branch
D. External laryngeal nerve

A

D

114
Q
Conus Elasticus according to Gray
A. Cricothyroid cartillage
B. Thyrohyoid
C. Quadrangular Ligament
D. Vocal Ligament
A

A

115
Q
Innervated by the Glossopharyngeal Nerve
A. Palatopharyngeus
B. Stylopharyngeus
C. Levator Palate
D. Tensor Palati
A

B

116
Q
When sleeping, every how long do we swallow?
A. 1 minute
B. 3 minutes
C. 5 minutes
D. 7 minutes
A

C

117
Q
What innervates the mucous membrane above the vocal folds?
A. Superior laryngeal nerve
B. Inferior laryngeal nerve
C. Internal laryngeal nerve
D. Recurrent laryngeal nerve
A

C

118
Q
Mark Barriga did not bring home a medal, but brought home a black eye. What is a good x-ray procedure to evaluate his injury?
A. Skull AP 
B. Lateral
C. Water’s view 
D. Caldwell
A

D

A. Skull AP (obstructed by sphenoid bones)
B. Lateral
C. Water’s view (for sinuses not orbit)
D. Caldwell (whole orbit seen)

119
Q
In a CT scan, which section best shows all the extraocular muscles?
A. Anterior
B. Coronal
C. Lateral
D. Sagittal
A

B

120
Q

Prince Charles ate fish. A fish bone got stuck behind his tongue. He used a mirror to check it out but cannot see anything. He decides to have an x-ray to find out where the bone got stuck. What x-ray should he get?

A. Neck lateral
B. AP Xray
C. Waters
D. Neck Soft Tissue

A

D

121
Q
A 58-year old male with enlarged neck nodes comes to you. After taking his medical history and completing the physical examination, you suspect that it is cancer. Imaging evaluation of the nodes is best done by:
A. neck x-ray series
B. ultrasound with doppler
C. CT scan with contrast
D. MRI
A

D

122
Q
Which among the following will give us an idea of the thyroid gland’s function?
A. Anterior arteriogram
B. Thyroid ultrasound
C. Thyroid scan 
D. Thyroid MRI
A

C

B. Thyroid ultrasound (only for size)
C. Thyroid scan (with staining thus can see activity)

123
Q
A 5-year old patient presented with drooling of the saliva, difficulty breathing, and noisy aspiration (inspiratory shidor). Most likely occlusion is caused by swollen:
	A. Epiglottis
	B. Vestibular fold
	C. Vocal fold
	D. Subglottis
A

A

124
Q

A patient was brought to the ER department with a deep stab wound at Zone 2 of the neck. Which is not included in the list of possible signs and symptoms?
A. IJV transection
B. Carotid Artery Laceration
C. Blood in the Vomitus
D. Weakened Arterial pulse in the ipsilateral wrist
E. Injury to the larynx

A

D

125
Q
Structure traced from sternoclavicular joint to the angle of the mandible
A. Carotid artery
B. IJV
C. EJV
D. anterior jugular vein
E. Great auricular nerve
A

A

126
Q
Which of the following nerves cannot possibly be seen in the Anterior Triangle?
A. CN IX
B. CN X
C. CN XI 
D. CN XII
E. Transverse Cervical
A

C

C. CN XI (tip: supplies SCM and trapezius: posterior triangle)

127
Q
The tributaries of the anterior jugular vein are found in this triangle 
A. Digastric
B. Submandibular  
C. Carotid
D. Muscular
E. None of the above
A

E

Submental triangle is the answer

128
Q

Which of the following is true about the Parathyroid gland?

A. Superior parathyroid is usually behind superior poles of thyroid gland
B. Inferior parathyroid is found above the inferior poles of thyroid gland
C.Parathyroid gland is found posteriorly within thyroid sheath but outside capsule
D. SPT is more constant in position, usually at inferior border of thyroid cartilage
E. In thyroid lobectomy, inadvertent injury to Superior and inferior parathyroid would invariably lead to tetany and convulsiveness

A

C

129
Q

The lateral border of the oral cavity is the
A. Buccinator
B. Tonsillar pillar formed by palatoglossus muscle
C. Palatopharyngeus muscle
D. Orbicularis Oris

A

B

130
Q
. Sublingual gland (duct) opens at
A. Sublingual fold
B. To lingual frenulum 
C. Opposite 2nd molar 
D. Submental beyond mylohoid
A

A

131
Q
Basic Secretory Unit of the Salivary Glands
	A. Stritiated Duct
	B. Intercalated Duct
	C. Ductal cell
	D. Acinus
A

D

132
Q
Type of secretion of submandibular gland
	A. serous only
	B. mucous only
	C. both but primarily serous
	D. both but primarily mucous
A

C

133
Q
The nerve which provides sensory innervation to the posterior regions of the tongue:
A. Vagus nerve
B. Chorda tympani nerve
C. Glossopharyngeal nerve
D. Lingual nerve
A

C

134
Q
How many liters of saliva do we produce every day?
A. 0.5 - 1 L
B. 1 - 1.5 L
C. 1.5 - 2 L
D. 2 - 3 L
A

B

135
Q

Length of pharynx from base of skull
A. 5
B. 2.5
C. 1.5

A

C

136
Q
. How many triangles are there in the anterior neck?
	A. 7
	B. 8
	C. 9
	D. 10
	E. 11
A

C