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[COMPRE] LU III > OS 201 Compre > Flashcards

OS 201 Compre Flashcards

1
Q 
1.	Which of the following is true?
A.	Cells vary in shape
B.	Cells vary in size and orientation
C.	Cytoplasmic contents are related to cellular activity
D.	All of the above are true
A

D

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2
Q 
2.	Cytoplasmic basophilia is a feature of the following cell:
A.	Active in synthesis of protein
B.	Undergoing programmed cell death
C.	Increased lysosome activity in cell
D.	Resting cell
A

A

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3
Q 
3.	Which of the following cells produce the fibrous components of connective tissue?
A.	Mast cell
B.	Monocyte
C.	Lymphocyte
D.	Fibroblast
A

D

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4
Q 
4.	Which of the following best describes the primary composition of the reticular layer of the dermis?
A.	Dense regular connective tissue
B.	Dense irregular connective tissue
C.	Loose connective tissue
D.	Adipose connective tissue
A

B

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5
Q 
5.	This constitutes the major component of the amorphous ground substance:
A.	Chondroitin sulfate
B.	Electrolytes
C.	Hyaluronate
D.	Water
A

D

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6
Q 
6.	Which of the following is the most ubiquitous type of collagen?
A.	I
B.	II
C.	III
D.	IV
A

A

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7
Q 
6.	Which of the following is the most ubiquitous type of collagen?
A.	I
B.	II
C.	III
D.	IV
A

A

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8
Q 
8.	Which blood cell is more likely to be increased in patient with intestinal parasitism?
A.	Neutrophils
B.	Eosinophils
C.	Basophils
D.	Lymphocytes
A

B

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9
Q 
9.	Which patient should be given erythropoietin injections?
A.	Dengue fever
B.	Chronic renal failure
C.	Iron deficiency
D.	Acute blood loss due to trauma
A

B

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10
Q
  1. Which is a function of macrophages?
    A. Lysis of bacteria through hydrolytic enzyme release
    B. Secrete antibodies that coat bacteria
    C. Destroys bacteria by creating holes in cell wall
    D. Present antigens to lymphocytes
A

D

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11
Q
  1. Which is true of epithelial tissue?
    A. Abundant intercellular matrix and scanty cells
    B. Highly fluid intercellular matrix due to high water content
    C. Contain abundant vascular networks
    D. Has underlying basement membrane
A

D

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12
Q 
12.	Which type of gland is found in pancreas?
A.	Simple tubular
B.	Compound tubuloalveolar
C.	Simple alveolar
D.	Compound saccular
A

B

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13
Q 
13.	Which intercellular junction seals the intercellular space and preserves epithelial polarity?
A.	Gap junction
B.	Desmosome
C.	Tight junction
D.	Hemidesmosome
A

C

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14
Q 
14.	Which surface modification in epithelia primarily serves to increase absorption?
A.	Cilia
B.	Microvilli
C.	Stereocilia
D.	Flagella
A

B

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15
Q 
15.	Which of the following interactions occur between all molecules?
A.	Dipole interactions
B.	Covalent bonds
C.	Ionic interactions
D.	All of the above
A

A

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16
Q 
16.	Which of the following functional groups are essential in defining an amino acid?
A.	–NH2
B.	–COOH
C.	–SH
D.	A & B
E.	All of the above
A

D

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17
Q
  1. Which of the following are the most important determinants of the electrophoretic mobility of amino acids?
    A. Temperature and pressure
    B. Buffer concentration and net charge
    C. Net charge and molecular weight
    D. Molecular weight and buffer concentration
A

D

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18
Q 
18.	Manifest(s) a sigmoidal curve in the oxygen dissociation graph.
A.	Myoglobin
B.	Hemoglobin
C.	Both
D.	Neither
A

B

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19
Q 
19.	Release(s) oxygen only at very low pO2.
A.	Myoglobin
B.	Hemoglobin
C.	Both
D.	Neither
A

A

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20
Q 
20.	Which is the simplest, smallest amino acid and does not contain an asymmetric carbon?
A.	Serine
B.	Lysine
C.	Glycine
D.	Alanine
A

C

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21
Q
  1. Why can’t humans utilize cellulose as a source of energy?
    A. It is very insoluble
    B. It has no nutritive value
    C. The bacterial enzyme that degrades cellulose is not present in the human gut
    D. The acidic pH in the stomach inactivates the enzyme responsible for its digestion
A

C

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22
Q
  1. Why is glycogen the better choice as a storage polysaccharide in the animal body?
    A. It is highly branched
    B. It forms a compact structure
    C. It allows large amounts of carbon energy to be stored in a small volume
    D. All of the above
A

D

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23
Q 
23.	Which of the following biomolecules does not have a sugar moiety?
A.	ATP
B.	NADH
C.	Sphingosine
D.	Mucin
A

C

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24
Q 
24.	What is the significance of the oligosaccharide moieties in the different blood group substances?
A.	For adhesion to endothelial cells
B.	Serve as antigenic determinants
C.	Prevent clumping of red blood cells
D.	Mediate intercellular communication
A

B

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25
Q
  1. Which is true regarding fatty acids?
    A. Double bonds confer higher melting point
    B. Unsaturated fatty acids have cis double bonds
    C. Saturated fatty acids is responsible for membrane fluidity
    D. Transported in the blood always in the free fatty acid form only
A

B

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26
Q
  1. Which of the following statements best describes the essential fatty acids?
    A. Important sources of essential fatty acids are animal fats
    B. Linolenic acid and oleic acids are examples of essential fatty acids
    C. Essential fatty acids are precursors of LCPUFA (Long Chain Polyunsaturated Fatty Acids)
    D. All essential fatty acids are omega-3 fatty acids
A

C

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27
Q
  1. Which properties of phospholipids govern lipid aggregation into higher ordered structure?
    A. Amphipathic property
    B. Spontaneous self-sealing and self-assembly
    C. Hydrophobicity
    D. All of the above
    E. A and B only
A

E

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28
Q 
28.	Respiratory Distress Syndrome (RDS) occurs in premature infants who lack surfactant. Which of the lipids given below is associated with lung surfactant function?
A.	Cholesterol esters
B.	Dipalmitoylecithin
C.	Phospatidyl inositol
D.	Ganglioside GM2
A

B

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29
Q
  1. Which of the following is true of diffusion?
    A. It is a type of solvent flow
    B. It utilizes transmembrane carrier proteins
    C. No external source of energy is required
    D. The movement of uncharged particles flow against its concentration gradient
A

C

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30
Q 
30.	The concentration on one side of a membrane is 10 (C1) and on the other is 5 (C2). If C1 is doubled, what will happen to the flux?
A.	Positive
B.	Increase 3 times
C.	Decrease 3 times
D.	No change
A

B

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31
Q 
31.	The main difference with facilitated diffusion and simple diffusion
A.	Concentration gradient flow
B.	Rate of transport
C.	Solute flow
D.	Source of energy
A

B

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32
Q
  1. In a physiology experiment, you divide a box into two compartments, A and B, using a membrane that is impermeable to solutes but permeable to water. Compartment A has an osmolarity of 280mOSm with a volume of 500ml. Compartment B has an osmolarity of 6oomOsm but with the same volume as compartment A. What will be the results of this experiment?
    A. Compartment A and B will have the same osmolarity
    B. Compartment A and B will have the same volume
    C. Compartment A will have a greater osmolarity than compartment B
    D. Compartment A will have a greater volume than compartment B
A

A

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33
Q
  1. Which of the following statements regarding ligand-gated ion channels is true?
    A. When a ligand binds to an ion channel, an enzyme facilitates the passage of ions across the membrane
    B. When a ligand binds to an ion channel, the channel interacts with a G-protein that subsequently opens another ion channel nearby, allowing ions to cross the membrane
    C. A ligand-gated ion channel is generally open and allows ions to cross the membrane. However, in the presence of a ligand, an ion channel will close
    D. When a ligand binds to an ion channel, the channel changes conformation and the ion channel opens, allowing ions to cross the membrane
A

D

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34
Q
  1. Which of the following is not included in the signal transduction pathways of peptide hormones?
    A. The activation of nuclear factor κβ transcription factor
    B. Activation of the monomeric G-protein αβγ
    C. Activation of the cytosolic enzyme, cyclic AMP response element binding protein (CREB-P)
    D. Activation of the serine-threonine kinase MAPK
A

C

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35
Q 
35.	Which of the following molecules bind/s to G-protein linked cell surface receptors?
A.	Insulin
B.	Parathyroid hormone
C.	Epidermal growth factor
D.	All of the above
A

B

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36
Q
  1. A medical student comes in with viral diarrhea for 8 hours duration. He is able to drink and his vital signs are normal. You decide to start him on ORS. Which of the following is true regarding the physiologic basis of ORS?
    A. GLUT proteins enhance sodium absorption by coupling with glucose
    B. There is greater net absorption of sodium with glucose in normal intestine
    C. There is no maximal transport of glucose in intestinal cells via simple diffusion
    D. Sodium channels are not affected in infectious diarrhea
A

B

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37
Q
  1. Which thermodynamic principle is exemplified by marine organisms and fireflies when they generate bioluminescence coupled to ATP hydrolysis?
    A. Entropy of the universe increases during all chemical and physical processes
    B. Energy can change form but cannot be created nor destroyed
    C. Energy transformation proceeds spontaneously toward a more disordered state
    D. Energy may increase when transferred from one source to another
A

B

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38
Q 
38.	Which thermodynamic term best describes a metabolic reaction that is favorable?
A.	It has a negative free energy value
B.	It has a positive free energy value
C.	It has a low entropy value
D.	It has a positive enthalpy value
A

A

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39
Q
  1. How are endergonic cellular reactions driven to completion in the cell?
    A. By increasing the enzyme concentration
    B. By coupling with an exergonic reaction
    C. By increasing the temperature
    D. By increasing the equilibrium constant
A

B

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40
Q 
40.	ATP is the currency of the cell. This function of ATP can be attributed to some of its structural properties. Which of the following structural components/features is not found in ATP?
A.	A dinucleotide component
B.	A furanose ring
C.	An adenosine moiety
D.	Usually liganded to Mg+
A

A

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41
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is/are incorrect?
    A. Km is expressed using the same units of measurement as substrate concentration
    B. As the affinity of enzyme for substrate increases, Km also increases
    C. As Km increases, enzyme saturation tends to occur at higher substrate concentration
    D. Both A and B
A

B

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42
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is/are incorrect?
    A. Coenzyme A typically functions as a carrier for amino groups in transamination reactions
    B. Tetrahydrofolate typically functions as a carrier for various one carbon (methyl, methylene, formyl, and formimino) groups in biochemical reactions catalyzed by transferases
    C. Pyridoxal phosphate typically functions as an electron carrier in redox reactions
    D. Both A and C
A

D

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43
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is/are incorrect?
    A. Competitive inhibition typically entails an apparent increase in the value of Km
    B. In competitive inhibition, the inhibitor is typically a structural analog of the substrate or transition state
    C. In competitive inhibition, the inhibitor typically binds to an allosteric site
    D. Both B and C
A

C

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44
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is/are incorrect?
    A. Factor X catalyzes the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin
    B. Thrombin catalyzes the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin
    C. Plasmin catalyzes the hydrolysis of fibrin
    D. Both A and B
A

A

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45
Q 
45.	The enzymes of the TCA cycle in a eukaryotic cell are located in which compartment?
A.	Nucleus
B.	Mitochondria
C.	Plasma membrane
D.	Lysosomal bodies
A

B

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46
Q 
46.	Glycolysis is regulated through which of the following?
A.	Product inhibition
B.	Allosteric control
C.	Covalent modulation
D.	All of the above
A

D

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47
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is false regarding glucose metabolism?
    A. Insulin turns glycogen synthesis on, while glucagon turns it off
    B. Anaerobic metabolism of 1 molecule of glucose forms 2 lactate molecules
    C. Similar to gluconeogenesis, glycogen degradation is activated in the muscle in response to the rise in intracellular calcium levels during muscle contraction
    D. Hypoglycaemia or low glucose inhibits glycolysis
A

C

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48
Q
  1. Which of the following reaction(s) is/are involved in the pentose phosphate pathway?
    A. Oxidative reactions converting glucose 6-phosphate into ribulose 5-phosphate
    B. Formation of ribulose 5-phosphate generates 2 molecules of NADPH
    C. Isomerization of ribulose 5-phosphate forms ribose 5-phosphate
    D. All of the above
A

D

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49
Q
  1. Which of the following statements if false regarding gluconeogenesis?
    A. Gluconeogenesis happens more often in the muscles than in the liver and kidneys
    B. The main function of gluconeogenesis is glucose production from metabolites and other molecules
    C. Alanine can also be a source of pyruvate in the
    D. Lactate can be a source of glucose
A

A

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50
Q 
50.	Which of the following disaccharides does not contain glucose?
A.	Lactose
B.	Maltose
C.	Sucrose
D.	Mannose
A

D

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51
Q
  1. Virgin coconut oil (VCO) is mostly composed of medium chain triglycerides (fatty acid residues are of medium chain length). Which of the following is/are applicable to the absorption of VCO derived products?
    A. They enter the portal blood directly from enterocytes
    B. They circulate in the blood bound to albumin
    C. They are oxidized in the liver
    D. All of the above
A

D

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52
Q 
52.	Cholesterol is secreted into bile at the rate of up to 2 grams per day. Biliary cholesterol and dietary cholesterol are admixed in the intestines to form a pool of cholesterol molecules that are indistinguishable. How much of this pool is reabsorbed as it passes through the intestines?
A.	25%
B.	50%
C.	75%
D.	90%
A

B

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53
Q 
53.	Which of the following lipoprotein particles contains the greatest amount of lipids as percentage of its weight?
A.	Chylomicrons
B.	VLDL
C.	LDL
D.	HDL
A

A

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54
Q 
54.	Which of the following apolipoproteins is considered as the marker of the atherogenic (promotes atherosclerosis) lipoprotein, LDL?
A.	Apo A1
B.	Apo B48
C.	Apo B100
D.	Apo E
A

C

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55
Q 
55.	What is the intermediate that serves as transport form of carbons across the mitochondrial membrane into the cytoplasm in lipogenesis?
A.	AcetylCoA
B.	Citrate
C.	Pyruvate
D.	Glucose
A

A

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56
Q 
56.	What is the product of the rate-limiting enzyme (HMG CoA Reductase) in cholesterol synthesis?
A.	HMG CoA
B.	Mevalonate
C.	Squalene
D.	Lanosterol
A

B

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57
Q
  1. Which of the following statements about ketogenesis is false?
    A. The primary site of ketone formation is the liver
    B. The entire process occurs in the mitochondrial matrix
    C. Acetone is produced via a non-enzymatic reaction from acetoacetate
    D. Acetoacetic acid and beta-hydroxybutiric acid are both weak acids
A

B

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58
Q
  1. There are four basic steps in the synthesis of fatty acids which are repeated to produce longer chain fatty acids. What is the correct order and sequence of these four processes?
    A. Dehydrogenation, hydration, dehydrogenation, thiolysis
    B. Condensation, reduction, dehydration, reduction
    C. Dehydrogenation, thiolysis, dehydrogenation, hydration
    D. Condensation, reduction, reduction, dehydration
A

B

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59
Q
  1. Which of the following refers to digestion and absorption of proteins?
    A. Occurs by hydrolysis of peptide bonds by proteases that are stored as zymogen
    B. Involves sodium dependent transport proteins specific for structurally related amino acids
    C. Is more effective if the protein has a high content of essential amino acids
    D. All of the above
    E. A and B only
A

E

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60
Q
  1. Which of the following statements about protein metabolism is/are true?
    A. Amino acids are required for the synthesis of other nitrogenous compounds
    B. Protein degradation to provide energy does not result in loss of other functions
    C. Nitrogen is continuously lost from the body regardless of the amount of protein intake
    D. All of the above
    E. A and B only
A

D

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61
Q 
61.	Which of the following is not an enzyme you would screen to confirm a suspicion of hyperammonemia?
A.	Argininosuccinate synthetase
B.	Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase-I
C.	Ornithine transcarbomylase
D.	Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase-II
E.	Arginase
A

D

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62
Q
  1. Which changes in the levels of compounds related to one-carbon metabolism will you observe if in vitro culture of cancer cells are exposed methotrexate?
Overall tetrahydrofolate (OA
homocystein (H)
total cobalamin (TC)
A.	Increased OA, decreased H, no change TC
B.	Decreased OA decreased H increased TC
C.	Increased OA increased H decreased TC
D.	Decreased OA increased H no change TC
E.	Increased OA decreased H decreased TC
A

C

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63
Q
  1. Which of the following will differentiate GDP from dGDP?
    A. dGDP has an extra amino group attached to carbon 6 in the purine ring
    B. dGDP has an extra phosphate attached to the 2’-carbon of the ribose
    C. dGDP is reduced at the 2’-carbon of the ribose
    D. dGDP is a purine nucleotide while GDP is a pyrimidine nucleotide
A

C

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64
Q
  1. Which of the following will differentiate de novo purine nucleotide biosynthesis from pyrimidine nucleotide synthesis?
    A. ATP hydrolysis
    B. Incorporation of glycine
    C. One-carbon transfer from activated derivatives of tetrahydrofolate (TH)
    D. Regulation by feedback inhibition
    E. PRPP as source of ribose
A

B

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65
Q
  1. Which of the following statements regarding regulation of purine synthesis is correct?
    A. GMP and AMP activates PRPP synthetase which catalyzes the activation step
    B. IMP inhibits PRPP synthetase
    C. Low levels of GTP activates ATP synthesis
    D. Low levels of ATP activates GTP synthesis
    E. PRPP amdo transferase, which catalyzes the committed step, is inhibited by both GMP and AMP
A

E

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66
Q
  1. Which of the following is true about pyrimidine synthesis?
    A. Assembly of the 6-membered ring directly on the PRPP backbone
    B. Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase II (CPS II)
    C. PRPP amido transferase
    D. IMP as the first pyrimidine monophosphate formed
A

B

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67
Q
  1. Which of the following statements best describes caloric homeostasis?
    A. Energy has to be stored because energy use is predictable
    B. Energy has to be stored because energy source is constant
    C. Both energy input and energy demand are variable
    D. ATP is the only way to store energy so it can be used later on
A

C

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68
Q
  1. Which of the following statements best describes our energy stores?
    A. Most of our energy is stored as glycogen because the brain needs glucose
    B. The fat stores are important because fat can also be converted to glucose later
    C. Although important, proteins are broken down because they can be made into glucose
    D. Glycogen is our major energy store because our food contains a lot of carbohydrates
A

C

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69
Q
  1. Which of the following best describes why glucokinase is important?
    A. Glucose is an important source of ketone bodies used in the TCA cycle
    B. Glucose does not need water in order for the body to store it as glycogen
    C. Approximately 9 kcal of energy is produced for every gram of glucose
    D. Glucose is the only major biomolecule that can be used in the absence of oxygen
A

D

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70
Q
  1. Which of the following best describes the difference between hexokinase and glucokinase?
    A. Hexokinase is found in hepatic while glucokinase is found in extrahepatic tissues
    B. The Km of hexokinase is lower than the Km of glucokinase
    C. The lower Km of hexokinase allows the liver to undergo glycolysis anytime
    D. Extrahepatic tissues like muscle store glucose and help maintain serum glucose levels
A

B

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71
Q
  1. Which of the following statements describe fructose-2,6-biphospate?
    A. Fructose-2,6-biphosphate is formed from fructose-1,6-biphospate
    B. High levels of fructose-1,6-biphospate will increase fructose-2,6-biphosphate
    C. Fructose-2,6-biphosphate is formed by a bifunctional enzyme
    D. Phosphorylation of the bifunctional enzyme leads to more fructose-2,6-biphosphate
A

C

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72
Q
  1. Glucagon is the hormone which sets the overall flux of this substrate cycle. Which of the following statements best describes regulation of this cycle by glucagon?
    A. Low glucose levels increases glucagon but decreases fructose-6-biphosphate
    B. Low fructose-6-biphosphate levels decreases fructose-2,6-biphosphate levels
    C. Glucagon leads to phosphorylation of the bifunctional enzyme
    D. More fructose-2,6-biphosphate is formed because of glucagon accumulation
A

C

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73
Q
  1. Which of the following statements best describes the similarities between allosteric and covalent modification?
    A. Both can give rise to changes in the reactivity of a substrate
    B. Both can act together to change the rate of a reaction
    C. Both can be reversed by the action of another enzyme
    D. Both can change the formation of H bonds at the active site
A

B

74
Q
  1. Certain pathways need to be coordinated in order to prevent futile outcomes. Which of the following statements about the relationship between fatty acid synthesis and fatty acid breakdown is true?
    A. Malonyl CoA from FA synthesis inhibits CPTI needed in FA breakdown
    B. AcylCoA (Fatt acid CoA) stimulates Acetyl CoA carboxylase
    C. Insulin inhibits fatty acid synthesis when glucose levels are high
    D. High levels of palmitic acid will inhibit Acetyl CoA carboxylase
A

A

75
Q
  1. Which of the following statements best describes why dietary protein is essential to man?
    A. High biological value protein is the essential source of energy needed for human body protein synthesis
    B. High biological value protein is the source of essential amino acids needed for the human body protein synthesis
    C. High biological value proteins are less digestible but good sources of amino acids for ATP production
    D. All of the above
A

B

76
Q
  1. Which of the following statements about dietary fiber is true?
    A. It is digested in a fashion similar to that of dietary carbohydrate
    B. It is undesirable because it enhances triglyceride formation in the liver
    C. It tends to decrease stool bulk
    D. It enhances the rate at which chyme moves through the intestine
A

D

77
Q 
77.	Which of the following fatty acids is considered essential from a nutrition point of view?
A.	Arachidonic acid
B.	Lauric acid
C.	Linoleic acid
D.	Palmitic acid
A

C

78
Q 
78.	Deficiency of which of the following vitamins can lead to anemia?
A.	Folic acid
B.	Vitamin B12
C.	Vitamin C
D.	 Vitamin E
E.	All of the above
A

E

79
Q 
79.	Which of the following vitamin-mineral combinations are essential in wound healing?
A.	Vitamin B6, zinc, and magnesium
B.	Folic acid, iron, and copper
C.	Vitamin C, iron, and copper
D.	Vitamin E, selenium, and magnesium
A

C

80
Q 
80.	The vitamin D deficiency disease in children is called:
A.	Osteomalacia
B.	Rickets
C.	Scurvy
D.	Beri-beri
A

B

81
Q 
81.	The vitamin D deficiency disease in adults is called:
A.	Osteomalacia
B.	Rickets
C.	Scurvy
D.	Beri-beri
A

A

82
Q
  1. Which is the most important property of glucose that makes it a preferred source of energy by the brain?
    A. Glucose is widely available from the carbohydrates in our diet
    B. Glucose can be easily transported and easily passes across cell membranes
    C. Glucose can be metabolized even in the absence of oxygen
    D. Glucose is a component of recognition sites on the blood brain barrier
A

C

83
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
    A. The human genome of 3.2 Mb is approximately made of 45% transposon-based repeats
    B. The human genome is present in all human cells in equal quantity
    C. The human genome contains approximately 30,000 genes that are unevenly distributed in the chromosomes
    D. The human genome is not complete without the mitochondrial genome sequences
    E. There are more euchromatins than heterochromatins in the human genome
A

B

84
Q 
84.	Which of the following RNAs is not involved in gene expression?
A.	Messenger RNA
B.	Ribosomal RNA
C.	Micro RNA
D.	Small nuclear RNA
E.	None of the above
A

E

85
Q
  1. Which of the following is not true about variation and mutation?
    A. Variation and mutation involve changes in the DNA sequence
    B. Variation results from non-lethal DNA changes while mutation results from lethal DNA changes
    C. Variation results from mutation
    D. Variation and mutation can be represented in tree diagrams
    E. None of the above
A

B

86
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is not true?
    A. Polypeptide-encoding gene families can be classified according to the degree and extent of sequence relatedness in family members
    B. Pseudogenes, truncated gene copies, and gene fragments are commonly found in multiple families
    C. Overlapping genes, genes-within-genes, and polycistronic transcription units are occasionally found in the human genome
    D. Functionally similar genes are occasionally clustered in the human genome but are more often dispersed over different chromosomes
    E. None of the above
A

E

87
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is/are incorrect?
    A. The phosphate component of nucleic acids is negatively charged at neutral pH
    B. In both DNA and RNA, the sugar component is covalently linked to both the phosphate and nitrogenous base components
    C. Uracil resembles cytosine more than thymine in its base-pairing properties
    D. Both A and C
A

C

88
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is/are incorrect?
    A. Z-DNA is a left-handed double helix
    B. B-DNA is a right-handed double helix
    C. A-DNA is the biologically predominant form of DNA
    D. Both B and C
A

A

89
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is/are incorrect?
    A. Both DNA and RNA can serve as template for synthesizing both DNA and RNA
    B. According to the central dogma of molecular biology, protein can serve as template for synthesizing RNA
    C. According to the central dogma of molecular biology, RNA can serve as template for synthesizing protein
    D. Both A and B
A

B

90
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is/are incorrect?
    A. In the human genetic code, each amino acid is coded for by at least one codon sequence
    B. In the human genetic code, each codon sequence consists of exactly three nucleotides
    C. In the human genetic code, each stop codon sequence codes for at least one amino acid
    D. Both A and C
A

C

91
Q 
91.	Which of the following is not part of mRNA processing?
A.	Splicing out of exons
B.	5’ capping with 7-methyguanosine
C.	3’ tailing with polyadenylate
D.	Formation of lariats
E.	Cleavage of transcript at 3’ region
A

A

92
Q 
92.	Which of the following RNAs may reduce gene expression?
A.	tRNA
B.	mRNA
C.	rRNA
D.	snRNA
E.	microRNA
A

E

93
Q 
93.	Which of the following codons does not signal the binding of a release factor to the translation complex?
A.	5’ UGA 3’
B.	5’ UUA 3’
C.	5’ UAA 3’
D.	5’ UAG 3’
A

B

94
Q
  1. Which of the following is not true about translation?
    A. The first amino acid is typically a methionine
    B. The ribosome moves along the mRNA frome 5’ to 3’
    C. The polypeptide always start with a signal sequence
    D. Several ribosomes can translate an mRNA strand simultaneously
    E. The nascent polypeptide is on the P site of the ribosome
A

C

95
Q
  1. Which of the following is not characteristic of a eukaryotic enhancer element?
    A. Its activity is dependent on its distance from the start site of transcription
    B. Its activity is independent of its orientation (i.e., the sequence can be inverted)
    C. It may be positioned at the 5’ end or the 3’ end of the gene
    D. It increases the level of transcription of genes under its control
A

D

96
Q
  1. A certain protein X regulates its own production by exerting influence on its own pre-mRNA. By binding to its own pre-mRNA, it allows cleavage but not polyadenylation of the pre-mRNA. Which of the following will occur as a consequence?
    A. Transport to the cytoplasm but no translation
    B. Errors in RNA splicing
    C. Formation of alternative isoforms of the protein
    D. Degradation of the pre-mRNA with exonucleases
A

D

97
Q
  1. If the CpG segment just proximal to a promoter of a tumor suppressor gene is amplified 100-fold, which of the following is most likely to happen?
    A. Increase in the acetylation of the segment
    B. Increase in protection against tumorigenesis
    C. Deactivation of the MecP2 protein
    D. Increase in the likelihood of developing a tumor
A

D

98
Q 
98.	The calcitonin gene has 6 exons labelled (in order) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5a, & 5b. In the thyroid the mRNA contains exons 1, 2, 3, 4. In neural tissue, the mRNA contains exons 1, 2, 3, 5a, 5b. Which of the following mechanisms is responsible for the difference in gene expression in the two tissues?
A.	Alternative splicing
B.	Alternative polyadenylation
C.	Both
D.	Neither
A

C

99
Q 
99.	Which of the following can assess gene expression in specific cells, such as in the case of markers for prognosis and diagnosis?
A.	Immunohistochemistry
B.	Microarray technology
C.	Genomic sequencing
D.	Elisa
A

A

100
Q
  1. Which of the following is not true of quantitative PCR?
    A. It can quantify viral genomic load
    B. It relies on the principle that fluorescent signal is dependent on the quantity of nucleic acids
    C. Faulty primer design can lead to negative results
    D. It cannot be used to detect genetic variations
A

D

101
Q 
101.	Male to male transmission is a key feature of which pattern of inheritance?
A.	Autosomal dominant
B.	Autosomal recessive
C.	X-linked dominant
D.	X-linked recessive
A

A

102
Q
  1. Neurofibromatosis type 1 is one of the most common autosomal dominant disorders. A woman with neurofibromatosis type 1 has an unaffected partner. Which of the following is correct regarding their children?
    A. The probability that each of their children will be affected is 1 in 4
    B. The probability that their second child will be affected if their first child is affected is 1 in 4
    C. The probability that their third child will be affected if their first two children are affected is 1 in 2
    D. If their first child is affected then their second child will not be affected
A

C

103
Q
  1. Characteristics of autosomal dominant inheritance include which of the following?
    A. Male to female transmission occurs
    B. Females are more severely affected than males
    C. De novo mutations of an autosomal dominant gene do not occur
    D. A and C are correct
    E. All are correct
A

A

104
Q
  1. Which of the following are other characteristics of mitochondrial disorders?
    A. Organs with high energy use are most affected when there is a mutant mitochondria
    B. Most diseases caused by malfunction of the mitochondria follow typical mitochondrial pattern and not mendelian inheritance patterns
    C. Heteroplasmy refers to having a mix of normal and mutant mitochondria in each cell
    D. A and C are correct
    E. All are correct
A

D

105
Q 
105.	Which of the following is not part of the M phase?
A.	Interphase
B.	Prophase
C.	Metaphase
D.	Anaphase
E.	Cytokinesis
A

A

106
Q
  1. Which of the following is not true about maturation promoting factor (MPF)
    A. It phosphorylates substrates
    B. It may contain cyclin B
    C. It contains CDK
    D. It is created during M phase
    E. It was first discovered in frog oocytes
A

C

107
Q
  1. Which of the following is not an example of apoptosis
    A. Disappearance of webbing between digits in mammalian development
    B. Disappearance of tail during frog development
    C. Cell death due to toxin exposure
    D. Cell suicide by virus-infected cells
    E. Programmed cell death induced by loss of growth factor signals
A

C

108
Q
  1. Which of the following does not promote apoptosis?
    A. Conversion of procaspase to caspase
    B. Activation of death receptors
    C. Release of cytochrome C from mitochondria
    D. Cleavage of Bid to tBid
    E. Binding of ligands to trophic receptors
A

E

109
Q 
109.	The major determinant of extracellular fluid is:
A.	Sodium
B.	Glucose
C.	Chloride
D.	Urea
A

A

110
Q 
110.	Stretch of a low pressure baroreceptor will cause the release of:
A.	Renin
B.	Angiotensin 2
C.	Atrial natriuretic peptide
D.	Antidiuretic hormone
A

C

111
Q 
111.	Of the following fluid compartments in the body, which one is the smallest?
A.	Intracellular
B.	Plasma
C.	Interstitial
D.	Transcellular
A

B

112
Q
  1. What happens to the red cell when urea is added to an isoosmolar solution containing the red cell?
    A. There is cell swelling
    B. There is cell shrinkage
    C. The cell initially shrinks, then returns to its original volume
    D. The cell initially swells, then returns to its initial volume
A

B

113
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is/are incorrect?
    A. Factors II, VII, IX, X are all vitamin K-dependent coagulation factors
    B. Functional vitamin K-dependent coagulation factors all contain gamma-carboxyglutamate
    C. Vitamin K rapidly reverses the toxicity produced by warfarin
    D. Both B and C
A

C

114
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is/are incorrect?
    A. The core function of the immune system is destruction of nonself molecules
    B. Cytoplasmic self proteins in the extracellular space are perceived as danger signals
    C. The immune system exhibits tolerance to both self and nonself molecules
    D. Both A and B
A

A

115
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is/are incorrect?
    A. IgA normally constitutes the majority of circulating antibody in plasma
    B. IgG normally crosses the placental barrier
    C. IgM normally appears first in response to the first exposure to an antigen
    D. Both A and C
A

A

116
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is/are incorrect?
    A. Class I MHC molecules present fragments of endogenous antigens in most human cells
    B. Class I MHC molecules typically enable recognition of antigens by T cytotoxic cells
    C. Class II MHC molecules are normally expressed on mature human erythrocytes
    D. Both B and C
A

C

117
Q
  1. Which of the following does not differentiate ischemia from hypoxia?
    A. Loss or markedly decreased blood supply due to reduced arterial flow
    B. Compromised supply of metabolic substrates including glucose and other nutrients
    C. More rapid and severe tissue damage
    D. Inadequate oxygenation
A

D

118
Q 
118.	Which of the following mechanisms does not effect cellular damage by oxygen radicals?
A.	Direct inhibition of ATP production
B.	Lipid peroxidation of membranes
C.	Damage to cell proteins and enzymes
D.	Fragmentation of DNA
A

A

119
Q 
119.	Which of the following is/are not possible targets of cell damage?
A.	Cell membrane integrity
B.	Mitochondrial function
C.	Genetic integrity
D.	Functional and structural protein
E.	None of the above
A

E

120
Q
  1. Which of the following is not an example of physiologic hypertrophy?
    A. Muscular hypertrophy in weight lifters
    B. Uterine hypertrophy in pregnancy
    C. Left ventricular hypertrophy in athletes
    D. None of the above
A

D

121
Q 
Which of the following functional groups is/are capable of functioning as both hydrogen bon donor and hydrogen bond acceptor? 
A. Hydroxyl group
B. Amino group 
C. Methyl group 
D. All of the above 
E. A and B only
A

E

122
Q 
Which of the following molecules is most hydrophobic?
A. Triacylglycerol
B. Methionine
C. D-glucose
D. Glutamic acid
A

A

123
Q

What makes the structure water-soluble?

a. Hydrophobic R groups must be externally located.
b. Hydrophilic R groups must be in the interior.
c. Exposed R groups must either be polar or charged.
d. Must contain prosthetic group.

A

C

124
Q

What stabilizes this level of structure? (Picture shown; primary level)

a. Peptide Bond
b. Hydrogen Bond
c. Hydrophobic Bond
d. Salt/ionic Bond

A

A

125
Q 
The energy source to drive filtration across a selectively permeable membrane is 
	A. ATP
B. Hydrostatic Pressure
C. Kinetic Energy
D. Oncotic Pressure
A

D

126
Q

Which of the following statements is/are true regarding ligand-receptor interaction?

a. Receptors are non-protein molecules located in either the plasma membrane or inside the cell, mainly in the nucleus.
b. A single cell may contain several different receptor types for a single ligand.
c. Specificity refers to the ability of structurally similar molecules to bind to the same receptor.
d. All of the above
A

B

127
Q

Which of the following statements describe lipid peroxidation in relation to aging

a. pro-inflammatory molecules are produced by lipid peroxidation
b. lipid peroxides form spontaneously upon attack by free radicals
c. lipid peroxidation can cause the cell to lose its intergrity when cell membrane is damaged
d. all of the above

A

D

128
Q

Oxidative stress could lead to which of the following:

a. cardiovascular disease
b. neurodegeneration
c. malignancy (cancer)
d. all of the above
A

D

129
Q

Catabolic is to anabolic as ______ is to ______

a. exergonic; spontaneous
b. exergonic; endergonic
c. can’t recall
d. free energy; entropy
e. entropy; entalphy

A

B

130
Q

Which of the following processess des not involve net influx of energy from other sources?

a. ADP + Pi → ATP + H20
b. C6H12O6 + 6O2 → 6CO2 + 6O2
c. 6CO2 + 6H2O → C6H12O6 + 6O2
d. amino acids → proteins
e. glucose + fructose → sucrose

A

B

131
Q

In the TCA Cycle, substrate level phosphorylation occurs in which step?

a. Isocitrate > alphaKetoglutarate
b. Succinyl CoA > Succinate
c. Succinate > Fumarate
d. Malate > Oxaloacetate

A

B

132
Q

Which of the following lipoproteins has the greatest amount of lipids in percentage weight?

a. HDL
b. LDL
c. VLDL
d. Chylomicrons

A

D

133
Q

Through which intermediate of the TCA cycle do oddnumbered
fatty acid oxidation products
enter gluconeogenesis (something like that)?
a. alphaketoglutarate
b. succinyl coA
c. succinate
d. fumarate

A

B

134
Q

Enteropeptidase deficiency is an inborn defect that causes malabsorption of

proteins. Which enzyme will perform normally in the presence of this defect?
a. trypsin
b. carboxypeptidase
c. pepsin
d. elastase

A

C

135
Q

Fructose6Phosphate Fructose1,6Bisphosphate
Which of the following statements describe this substrate cycle?
A. Equivalent amounts of fructose6phosphate and fructose1,6bisphophate formed.
B. A different enzyme catalyzes each reaction.
C. All substrate cycles are ultimately futile.
D. Substrate cycles are designed to ensure efficiency at all times.

A

B

136
Q

Amplification works in metabolic regulation by
A. Allowing a small amount of signal molecule to cause an increased intracellular
transduction
B. Stimulating a signal at a long distance
C. An increase in the amount of ligand molecules

A

A

137
Q

What is true about the activity of GLUT4?

a. Found in all cells except the brain
b. Fatty acid increases activity of GLUT4
c. Insulin decreases activity of GLUT4
d. Anaerobic glycolysis increases activity of GLUT4

A

D

138
Q

The gene for kinesin was knocked out. In which stage of mitosis would the cells be stuck?

a. prophase
b. prometaphase
c. metaphase
d. anaphase
e. telophase

A

B

139
Q

Which is correct?

a. Cross-presentation enables T-cytotoxic cell activation against tumors.
b. Dendritic cells employ mainly Class II MHC for cross-presentation.
c. Endogenous antigens are recognized primarily via cross-presentation.
d. Both A & C.

A

D

140
Q

Which of the following is/are correct?
a. Active immunity is the underlying principle in vaccination
b. Passive immunity typically produces immunological memory
c. T-independent
antigens typically produces immunological memory
d. A and C

A

A

141
Q

Which of the following results from an unregulated cell division?

a. Protooncogene is active
b. Tumor suppresor genes are active
c. Oncogenes are inactive
d. None of the above

A

D

142
Q

adaptive conversion of cell types to improve survival is

a. hyperplasia
b. metaplasia
c. dysplasia
d. hypertrophy

A

B

143
Q 
Drinking of seawater leads to
A. increase in intravascular volume
B. decrease in interstitial volume
C. increase in intracellular volume
D. decrease in intravascular volume
A

B

144
Q

An order for an ultrasound of the urinary bladder was given to a patient. The radiology
technician told a patient to drink more than one liter of water so that the urinary bladder will be
fully distended. Which of the following results of osmolarity studies is appropriate for the patient?
A. Serum osmolarity: 278 mmosm/L; urine osmolarity: 100 mosm/L
B. Serum osmolarity: 300 mmosm/L; urineosmolarity: 100 mosm/L
C. Serum osmolarity: 250 mmosm/L; urine osmolarity: 400 mosm/L
D. Serum osmolarity: 300 mmosm/L; urine osmolarity: 600 mosm/L

A

A

145
Q

Which of the following would show the osmolarity study results of a 30 year old man who just
donated 500mL of blood?
A. Serum osmolarity: 285 mmosm/L; urine osmolarity: 100 mosm/L
B. Serum osmolarity: 250 mmosm/L; urineosmolarity: 100 mosm/L
C. Serum osmolarity: 285 mmosm/L; urine osmolarity: 600 mosm/L
D. Serum osmolarity: 315 mmosm/L; urine osmolarity: 600 mosm/L

A

D

146
Q 
When effective circulating volume falls, the effector organs will work to:
A. Increase blood flow to vital organs
B. Prevent ADH secretion
C. Increase rate of water absorption
D. Increase rate of sodium retention
A

D

147
Q 
Stable State Volume of the cell depends on:
A. Intracellular Impermeable Solutes
B. Extracellular Impermeable Solutes
C. Intracellular Permeable Solutes
D. Extracellular Permeable Solutes
A

B

148
Q

Conjugated with blood for transfusion.
A. 0.9% saline solution
B. 3.0% saline solution
C. water

A

A

149
Q

After eating Salty Food
A. 0.9% saline solution
B. 3.0% saline solution
C. water

A

C

150
Q

An ROTC cadet after a drill.
A. 0.9% saline solution
B. 3.0% saline solution
C. water

A

C

151
Q

During surgery
A. 0.9% saline solution
B. 3.0% saline solution
C. water

A

A

152
Q 
Which of the following functional groups is/are capable of functioning as both hydrogen bon donor and hydrogen bond acceptor? 
A. Hydroxyl group
B. Amino group 
C. Methyl group 
D. All of the above 
E. A and B only
A

E

153
Q 
Which of the following molecules is most hydrophobic?
A. Triacylglycerol
B. Methionine
C. D-glucose
D. Glutamic acid
A

A

154
Q

What makes the structure water-soluble?

a. Hydrophobic R groups must be externally located.
b. Hydrophilic R groups must be in the interior.
c. Exposed R groups must either be polar or charged.
d. Must contain prosthetic group.

A

C

155
Q

What stabilizes this level of structure? (Picture shown; primary level)

a. Peptide Bond
b. Hydrogen Bond
c. Hydrophobic Bond
d. Salt/ionic Bond

A

A

156
Q 
The energy source to drive filtration across a selectively permeable membrane is 
	A. ATP
B. Hydrostatic Pressure
C. Kinetic Energy
D. Oncotic Pressure
A

D

157
Q

Which of the following statements is/are true regarding ligand-receptor interaction?

a. Receptors are non-protein molecules located in either the plasma membrane or inside the cell, mainly in the nucleus.
b. A single cell may contain several different receptor types for a single ligand.
c. Specificity refers to the ability of structurally similar molecules to bind to the same receptor.
d. All of the above
A

B

158
Q

Which of the following statements describe lipid peroxidation in relation to aging

a. pro-inflammatory molecules are produced by lipid peroxidation
b. lipid peroxides form spontaneously upon attack by free radicals
c. lipid peroxidation can cause the cell to lose its intergrity when cell membrane is damaged
d. all of the above

A

D

159
Q

Oxidative stress could lead to which of the following:

a. cardiovascular disease
b. neurodegeneration
c. malignancy (cancer)
d. all of the above
A

D

160
Q

Catabolic is to anabolic as ______ is to ______

a. exergonic; spontaneous
b. exergonic; endergonic
c. can’t recall
d. free energy; entropy
e. entropy; entalphy

A

B

161
Q

Which of the following processess des not involve net influx of energy from other sources?

a. ADP + Pi → ATP + H20
b. C6H12O6 + 6O2 → 6CO2 + 6O2
c. 6CO2 + 6H2O → C6H12O6 + 6O2
d. amino acids → proteins
e. glucose + fructose → sucrose

A

B

162
Q

In the TCA Cycle, substrate level phosphorylation occurs in which step?

a. Isocitrate > alphaKetoglutarate
b. Succinyl CoA > Succinate
c. Succinate > Fumarate
d. Malate > Oxaloacetate

A

B

163
Q

Which of the following lipoproteins has the greatest amount of lipids in percentage weight?

a. HDL
b. LDL
c. VLDL
d. Chylomicrons

A

D

164
Q

Through which intermediate of the TCA cycle do oddnumbered
fatty acid oxidation products
enter gluconeogenesis (something like that)?
a. alphaketoglutarate
b. succinyl coA
c. succinate
d. fumarate

A

B

165
Q

Enteropeptidase deficiency is an inborn defect that causes malabsorption of

proteins. Which enzyme will perform normally in the presence of this defect?
a. trypsin
b. carboxypeptidase
c. pepsin
d. elastase

A

C

166
Q

Fructose6Phosphate Fructose1,6Bisphosphate
Which of the following statements describe this substrate cycle?
A. Equivalent amounts of fructose6phosphate and fructose1,6bisphophate formed.
B. A different enzyme catalyzes each reaction.
C. All substrate cycles are ultimately futile.
D. Substrate cycles are designed to ensure efficiency at all times.

A

B

167
Q

Amplification works in metabolic regulation by
A. Allowing a small amount of signal molecule to cause an increased intracellular
transduction
B. Stimulating a signal at a long distance
C. An increase in the amount of ligand molecules

A

A

168
Q

What is true about the activity of GLUT4?

a. Found in all cells except the brain
b. Fatty acid increases activity of GLUT4
c. Insulin decreases activity of GLUT4
d. Anaerobic glycolysis increases activity of GLUT4

A

D

169
Q

The gene for kinesin was knocked out. In which stage of mitosis would the cells be stuck?

a. prophase
b. prometaphase
c. metaphase
d. anaphase
e. telophase

A

B

170
Q

Which is correct?

a. Cross-presentation enables T-cytotoxic cell activation against tumors.
b. Dendritic cells employ mainly Class II MHC for cross-presentation.
c. Endogenous antigens are recognized primarily via cross-presentation.
d. Both A & C.

A

D

171
Q

Which of the following is/are correct?
a. Active immunity is the underlying principle in vaccination
b. Passive immunity typically produces immunological memory
c. T-independent
antigens typically produces immunological memory
d. A and C

A

A

172
Q

Which of the following results from an unregulated cell division?

a. Protooncogene is active
b. Tumor suppresor genes are active
c. Oncogenes are inactive
d. None of the above

A

D

173
Q

adaptive conversion of cell types to improve survival is

a. hyperplasia
b. metaplasia
c. dysplasia
d. hypertrophy

A

B

174
Q 
Drinking of seawater leads to
A. increase in intravascular volume
B. decrease in interstitial volume
C. increase in intracellular volume
D. decrease in intravascular volume
A

B

175
Q

An order for an ultrasound of the urinary bladder was given to a patient. The radiology
technician told a patient to drink more than one liter of water so that the urinary bladder will be
fully distended. Which of the following results of osmolarity studies is appropriate for the patient?
A. Serum osmolarity: 278 mmosm/L; urine osmolarity: 100 mosm/L
B. Serum osmolarity: 300 mmosm/L; urineosmolarity: 100 mosm/L
C. Serum osmolarity: 250 mmosm/L; urine osmolarity: 400 mosm/L
D. Serum osmolarity: 300 mmosm/L; urine osmolarity: 600 mosm/L

A

A

176
Q

Which of the following would show the osmolarity study results of a 30 year old man who just
donated 500mL of blood?
A. Serum osmolarity: 285 mmosm/L; urine osmolarity: 100 mosm/L
B. Serum osmolarity: 250 mmosm/L; urineosmolarity: 100 mosm/L
C. Serum osmolarity: 285 mmosm/L; urine osmolarity: 600 mosm/L
D. Serum osmolarity: 315 mmosm/L; urine osmolarity: 600 mosm/L

A

D

177
Q 
When effective circulating volume falls, the effector organs will work to:
A. Increase blood flow to vital organs
B. Prevent ADH secretion
C. Increase rate of water absorption
D. Increase rate of sodium retention
A

D

178
Q 
Stable State Volume of the cell depends on:
A. Intracellular Impermeable Solutes
B. Extracellular Impermeable Solutes
C. Intracellular Permeable Solutes
D. Extracellular Permeable Solutes
A

B

179
Q

Conjugated with blood for transfusion.
A. 0.9% saline solution
B. 3.0% saline solution
C. water

A

A

180
Q

After eating Salty Food
A. 0.9% saline solution
B. 3.0% saline solution
C. water

A

C

181
Q

An ROTC cadet after a drill.
A. 0.9% saline solution
B. 3.0% saline solution
C. water

A

C

182
Q

During surgery
A. 0.9% saline solution
B. 3.0% saline solution
C. water

A

A

[COMPRE] LU III (6 decks)

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