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[COMPRE] LU III > OS 203 Compre > Flashcards

OS 203 Compre Flashcards

1
Q 
Which epidermal layer has hemidesmosomes?
A. Statum Spinosum
B. Stratum Corneum
C. Stratum Basale
D. Stratum Granulosum
A

C

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2
Q 
Which epidermal cell has neuroendocrine fnction?
A. Merkel cell
B. Langerhans cell
C. Keratinocytes
D. Melanosomes
A

A

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3
Q

Which is responsible for fingerprints?
A. Arrangement of dermal epidermal interdigitations
B. Arrangement of collagen and elastic fibers
C. Arrangement of muscle fibers
D. Arrangement of nerve endings

A

A

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4
Q 
What substance binds keratin filaments into bundles?
A. Ceramide
B. Filagrin
C. Cornified Cell Membrane
D. Sebum
A

B

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5
Q

True of apocrine glands?
A. Apocrine type of secretion
B. Simple branched acinar
C. Secretion of watery substance, mainly urea
D. All hair follicles have associated apocrine glands

A

A

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6
Q

Which layer will bleed vigorously when cut?

a. Reticular Dermis
b. Papillary Dermis
c. Hypodermis
d. Epidermis

A

C

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7
Q 
Small, flat-topped smooth lesion which is solid and elevated.
A. Plaque
B. Nodule
C. Wheal
D. Cyst
E. Papule
A

E

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8
Q 
More than 5mm in diameter, solid, elevated with greater portion situated deeper in the skin or
subcutaneous tissue.
A. Plaque
B. Nodule
C. Wheal
D. Cyst
E. Papule
A

B

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9
Q 
Large flat palpable solid elevation with a usually irregular border
A. Plaque
B. Nodule
C. Wheal
D. Cyst
E. Papule
A

A

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10
Q 
A sac containing fluid or semisolid material; lined with a true epithelium.
A. Plaque
B. Nodule
C. Wheal
D. Cyst
E. Papule
A

D

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11
Q 
A transient skin aberration involving inflammation into into the dermis and capillary dilation.
A. Plaque
B. Nodule
C. Wheal
D. Cyst
E. Papule
A

C

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12
Q

One summer, Anna went to another foster family. She had lesions which were pruritic excoriated
papules noted on her upper extensor arms and around her thighs. No other members in the family had the
same kind of lesion. What caused her lesions?
A. Psoriasis
B. Scabies
C. Arthropod mites
D. Pediculosis corporis

A

D

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13
Q

A 32 yr old man was drinking with a group and asked a medical student who happened to
pass by to check his lesions. He had pruritic pustules all over the body including the palms and soles. He had
several areas of alopecia on his scalp that made it look “moth-eaten”. He boasts of having a lot of
girlfriends/sexual partners. What disease does he have?
A. Secondary syphilis
B. AIDS
C. Psoriasis

A

B

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14
Q

The med students were walking when they saw children playing on the road. A woman with a 1 year
old boy was watching over them. She let the med students examine her child. The boy has colds, “running
nose” and golden yellow crusts below the nasal area, on top of his nose and on his left cheek. What does the
boy have based on this initial PE?
A. contact dermatitis (not sure if that’s the option)
B. impetigo contagiosum
C. allergic reaction
D. molluscum contagiosum

A

B

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15
Q 
Which of the following skin disorders is closely associated to allergic rhinitis and skin asthma?
A. Atopic Eczema
B. Contact Dermatitis
C. Impetigo Contangiosa
D. Seborrheic Dermatitis
A

A

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16
Q 
If a patient has chronic urticaria, what type of lesion do you expect to see frequently?
A. papules
B. vesicles
C. hives
D. pigmentation
A

C

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17
Q

Mrs. Cruz constantly developed proritic papules, eczemas on different parts of her body. This had been
going ‘on and off’ for months. She knew that one of the culprits could be anything in her immediate
surroundings. To check for the possible culprit, which of the following procedures would you suggest?
A. CBC
B. Gram stain
C. KOH
D. Patch test

A

D

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18
Q

The yellow papules on a newborn baby’s face is influenced by:
A. Maternal androgen
B. Maternal estrogen

A

A

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19
Q 
Which of the following structures decreases in activity during pregnancy?
A. Melanocyte
B. Eccrine Gland
C. Apocrine Gland
D. Sebaceous Gland
A

C

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20
Q 
Which structure is hypertrophied during aging but there is less secretion?
A. Melanosomes
B. Sebaceous glands
C. Apocrine Glands
D. Eccrine glands
A

A

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21
Q 
Harlequin color change happens to
A. preterm infants
B. Full term infants
C. Post term infants
D. Low weight infants
A

D

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22
Q

Why does the skin dry in cold weather?
A. Increase evaporation of apocrine sweat
B. Decreased activity of sebaceous gland
C. Thickened epidermis due to decreased keratinocyte turnover
D. Increased transepidermal water loss due to breach in the intercellular lipid layer

A

D

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23
Q 
Darker people tan more easily and deeply. Why?
A. eumelanin
B. pheouemmelanin
C. pheomelanin
D. melatonin
A

A

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24
Q

Oiliness is caused by…
A. Apocrine glands
B. Use of hair and facial cosmetics
C. Genetics related to androgen production
D. Thickness of intracellular lipid layer

A

C

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25
Q 
What part of the hair follicle changes during the catagen phase of the hair cycle?
A. Upper segment
B. Lower segment
C. Middle Segment
D. All segments of the hair follicle
A

B

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26
Q 
Itch is initiated centrally through
A Prostaglandins
B Acetylcholine
C Histamine
D Opioids
A

D

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27
Q 
What neurotransmitter is responsible for sweat production?
A Noradrenaline
B Acetylcholine
C Serotonin
D Dopamine
A

B

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28
Q
  1. What is the precursor cell of striated muscle tissue?
    a. Myoblast
    b. Fibromyoblast
    c. Mesenchymal cell
    d. Mesodermal cell
A

A

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29
Q
  1. What is a T-tubule
    a. Invagination of the sarcolemma
    b. Part of the Golgi apparatus
    c. End portion of the myofibril
    d. Cytoskeletal apparatus
A

A

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30
Q
  1. What is the characteristic of slow twitch muscle fibers?
    a. Low level of succinic dehydrogenase activity
    b. High myoglobin level and extensive capillary network
    c. Rich in glycogen
    d. None of the above
A

B

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31
Q
  1. In the motor end plate, the axon terminal loses its
    a. Neurotransmitter
    b. Myelin sheath
    c. Cell membrane
    d. Conductive function
A

B

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32
Q
  1. True about sliding filament theory EXCEPT
    a. During muscle contraction, thick and thin filaments change size
    b. ATP is needed for power stroke
    c. Troponin and tropomyosin complex blocks binding sites for actin
    d. Calcium is released because of action potential
A

A

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33
Q
  1. Represents thick filaments held in register at the center of the sarcomere
    a. H band
    b. IA junction
    c. Z band
    d. M line
A

D

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34
Q
  1. In what plane does everyday movement in humans usually occur?
    a. Lateral
    b. Medial
    c. Anterior
    d. Posterior
A

C

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35
Q
  1. Load or force directed medially towards the sagittal plane in a fully extended knee will cause which deformity
    a. Hyperflexion
    b. Hyperextension
    c. Varus
    d. Valgus
A

D

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36
Q
  1. Locomotion of the lower appendicular structures usually occur along which plane?
    a. Frontal
    b. Transverse
    c. Sagittal
    d. Coronal
A

C

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37
Q
  1. Man curls up in reaction to dangerous stimuli in order to protect this aspect of the body
    a. Medial
    b. Lateral
    c. Ventral
    d. Dorsal
A

C

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38
Q
  1. What is the essential element of a diarthrosis
    a. Hyaline cartilage
    b. Synovial membrane
    c. Capsule
    d. Ligament
A

A

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39
Q
  1. Lever mechanisms of the upper extremity are often categorized as
    a. First class
    b. Second class
    c. Third class
    d. None of the above
A

C

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40
Q
  1. In reference to the sagittal plane, the knee extension mechanism is a
    a. First class
    b. Second class
    c. Third class
    d. None of the above
A

A

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41
Q
  1. Best way to describe orientation of scapula
    a. 60 degrees anteromedially from sagittal plane
    b. 60 degrees posteromedially from sagittal plane
    c. 60 degrees anterolaterally from sagittal plane
    d. 60 degrees posterolaterally from sagittal plane
A

C

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42
Q
  1. What is the most important static stabilizer of the shoulder joint?
    a. Middle glenohumeral ligament
    b. Superior glenohumeral ligament
    c. Inferior glenohumeral ligament
    d. None of the above
A

A

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43
Q
  1. Essential for abducting the shoulder from 0 to 180 degrees
    a. Inversion
    b. Eversion
    c. Internal rotation
    d. External rotation
A

D

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44
Q
  1. Osseous structures of the scapula involved in full abduction, EXCEPT
    a. Greater tubercle
    b. Anatomical neck
    c. Acromion process
    d. Coracoid process
A

D

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45
Q
  1. The cumulative vector of the rotator cuff muscles in the shoulder results in
    a. Depression
    b. Compression
    c. Shear
    d. All of the above
A

A

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46
Q
  1. Muscles for elbow flexion, EXCEPT
    a. Brachialis
    b. Biceps brachii
    c. Brachioradialis
    d. Coracobrachialis
A

D

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47
Q
  1. The deltoid muscle is responsible for the following shoulder actions, EXCEPT
    a. Extension
    b. Internal rotation
    c. Flexion
    d. Abduction
A

D

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48
Q
  1. All are muscles of the rotator cuff, except
    a. Supraspinatus
    b. Infraspinatus
    c. Subscapularis
    d. Teres major
A

D

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49
Q
  1. The anterior compartment of the arm is innervated by the
    a. Median nerve
    b. Ulnar nerve
    c. Radial nerve
    d. Musculocutaneous nerve
A

D

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50
Q
  1. Fracture of the midshaft of the humerus will have this clinical presentation
    a. Wrist drop
    b. Papal benediction
    c. Claw hand
    d. None of the above
A

A

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51
Q
  1. Fracture of the supracondylar ridge leads to injury in
    a. Radial artery
    b. Ulnar artery
    c. Medial artery
    d. None of the above
A

B

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52
Q
  1. This muscle is also a supinator of the forearm
    a. Brachioradialis
    b. Biceps brachii
    c. Gastrocnemius
    d. Brachialis
A

B

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53
Q
  1. Most important hand function
    a. Flexion
    b. Adduction
    c. Extension
    d. Opposition
A

D

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54
Q
  1. The carpal bone most predisposed to fracture
    a. Scaphoid
    b. Capitate
    c. Lunate
    d. Pisiform
A

A

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55
Q
  1. Scapular winging is a finding of injury to what nerve
    a. Long thoracic
    b. Subscapular
    c. Dorsal scapular
    d. Suprascapular
A

A

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56
Q 
29.	The Carpal bone most predisposed to traumatic injury
A.	Scaphoid
B.	Capitate
C.	Lunate
D.	Pisiform
A

A

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57
Q 
30.	Carpal bone most predisposed to dislocation
A.	Scaphoid
B.	Capitate
C.	Lunate
D.	Pisiform
A

C

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58
Q 
31.	Clinical presentation: Inflammation and pain of the extensor hood. What tendon is affected?
A.	Extensor Pollicis Longus
B.	Extensor Pollicis Brevis
C.	Extensor Carpi Radialis Longus
D.	Extensor Indicis
A

B

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59
Q 
32.	The average amount of time for dissecting cadavers when studying anatomy?
A.	40%
B.	50%
C.	60%
D.	70%
A

C

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60
Q 
33.	The other component of formalin aside from formaldehyde is
A.	Propanol
B.	Ethanol
C.	Methanol
D.	Butanol
A

C

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61
Q 
34.	The accepted chemical formula of the main component of formalin is
A.	HCHO
B.	HCOH
C.	CHOH
D.	H2O
A

B

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62
Q 
35.	All of the following muscles are flexors of the elbow except for?
A.	Brachioradialis
B.	Brachialis
C.	Biceps brachii
D.	Coracobrachialis
A

D

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63
Q 
36.	Which nerve passes the largest motor branch into the hand?
A.	Ulnar nerve
B.	Median nerve
C.	Musculocutaneous nerve
D.	Radial nerve
A

D

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64
Q 
37.	The thumb serves this much function of the hand:
A.	20%
B.	30%
C.	40%
D.	50%
A

C

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65
Q 
38.	Which of the following is a branch of the upper trunk?
A.	Spinal Accessory nerve
B.	Phrenic nerve
C.	Suprascapular nerve
D.	Long thoracic nerve
A

C

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66
Q 
39.	The nerve mentioned in the previous number is responsible for what action?
A.	Shoulder flexion
B.	Shoulder internal rotation
C.	Shoulder Abduction
D.	Shoulder extension
A

B

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67
Q 
40.	The lateral cord of the brachial plexus primarily extends to which of the following terminal branches?
A.	Median nerve
B.	Musculocutaneous nerve
C.	Radial nerve
D.	Ulnar nerve
A

B

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68
Q 
41.	The terminal branch of the C8/T1 roots is the:
A.	Radial nerve
B.	Musculocutaneous nerve
C.	Median nerve
D.	Ulnar nerve
A

D

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69
Q 
42.	C5 and C6 are the main nerve root/s of which terminal branch nerve?
A.	Median nerve
B.	Musculocutaneous nerve
C.	Radial nerve
D.	Ulnar nerve
A

B

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70
Q 
43.	Which nerve injury would give the best prognosis?
A.	Axonotmesis
B.	Neurotmesis
C.	Neuropraxia
D.	Axonotpraxia
A

C

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71
Q 
1.	The attitude of shoulder adduction, shoulder internal rotation, and wrist flexion is characteristic of which of the following:
A.	Klumpke’s Palsy
B.	Bell’s Palsy
C.	Erb’s Palsy
D.	Horner’s 
Palsy
A

C

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72
Q
  1. The overall function of special CT (both bone and cartilage) is:
    A. Create soft tissue that can flex
    B. Create growing tissue that regenerates
    C. Create tissue for internal framework
    D. Create tissue that is rigid in nature
A

C

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73
Q 
46.	When cartilage tears, it usually leaves a disfigured form. Why?
A.	Cannot regenerate
B.	Gel-like matrix
C.	Interstitial growth
D.	None of the above
A

A

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74
Q 
48.	Which is not included in the triad of physiologic fracture healing?
A.	Bone regeneration
B.	Fracture movement
C.	Angiogenesis
D.	Bracing
A

B

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75
Q 
49.	Which of the following mixtures of biologically active compounds is proven to be beneficial for bone healing?
A.	Autogenous mesenchyme stem cells
B.	Autogenous bone marrow
C.	Autogenous cancellous bone
D.	None of the above
A

A

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76
Q
  1. The primary purpose of the T-tubule system is to:
    A. Attach actin to cell membrane of myofibril
    B. Release Ca2+ into myofibril from sarcoplasmic reticulum
    C. To get Ca2+ from nerve terminals
    D. Relay transmission of action potential from nerve terminals
A

D

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77
Q 
51.	Muscular contraction is initiated by binding of calcium to what structure?
A.	Troponin
B.	Tropomyosin
C.	Myosin
D.	Actin
A

A

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78
Q 
52.	Which of the following activities applies isometric contraction rather than isotonic contraction?
A.	Pushing leg against the floor
B.	Pulling a pail of water from a well
C.	Climbing the stairs slowly
D.	Lifting book from a table
A

A

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79
Q 
53.	Which of the following are parts of the neuro-muscular unit?
A.	Synapse
B.	Motor Neuron
C.	Innervated myofibrils
D.	All of the above
A

D

80
Q 
54.	What would happen if there is decreased level of acetylcholinesterase?
A.	Blocked production of choline
B.	Sustained contraction
C.	No action potential generated
D.	None of the above
A

B

81
Q 
55.	What will happen after acetylcholine is released from synapse?
A.	Decrease Na+
B.	Increase Na+
C.	Decrease K+
D.	Decrease K+
A

B

82
Q
  1. Dystrophin, the muscle protein deficient in muscular dystrophy, is an important component of
    A. SNARE Protein
    B. Troponin complex
    C. Muscle membrane and glycoprotein
    D. Sarcoplasmic reticulum and terminal cistae
    E. Actin-myosin powerstroke
A

C

83
Q 
57.	What type of muscle fiber is found in muscles involved in sustaining posture or upright position? 
A.	Type 1
B.	Type 2
C.	Intermediate
D.	Types 1 and 2 in equal proportions
E.	Type 3
A

A

84
Q

What is the direction of ossification of pedicles?

a. Anterior to posterior
b. Medial to lateral
c. Lateral to medial
d. Posterior to anterior

A

B

85
Q

What is the direction of ossification of vertebral bodies?

a. medial to lateral
b. centrifugally
c. lateral to medial
d. centripetally

A

B

86
Q

The narrowest canal is found in this region.

a) Cervical
b) Thoracic
c) Lumbar
d) Sacrum

A

B

87
Q

Greatest movement of cervical spine:

a. Lateral extension
b. FlexionExtension
c. Axial Rotation
d. All of the above

A

C

88
Q

Part of the transversocostals except:

a. semispinalus capitis
b. splenius cervicis
c. spinalis
d. longissimus

A

A

89
Q 
Case: A 21year
old basketball player training for a tournament comes to you for advice.
34. Predominance of which muscle fiber?
a. Type I
b. Type II
c. Intermediate
d. Type I and Type II equally
A

B

90
Q

The following is true regarding hormonal response to exercise
A. Glucagon decreases with prolonged exercise
B. Increase in catecholamines decreases lypolysis and hepatic glycogenolysis
C. Decrease in insulin is critical in hepatic glucose output
D. Decrease in growth hormones and cortisol with exercise
E. Catecholamines increase intensity with exercise

A

E

91
Q 
A 60 year old diabetic woman is complaining about the numbness of her hand.
46. She will benefit from EMGNCV
because it provides
A. Site of neuropathy
B. Pattern of neuropathy
C. Improvements
D. Chronicity
E. All of the above
A

E

92
Q 
A child with too much femur antiversion will walk with
A. feet pointing inwards
B. feet pointing outwards
C. genu valgum
D. genu varum
A

A

93
Q 
Which is not a part of the hamstrings?
A. semitendinosus
B. semimembranosus
C. long head of biceps femoris
D. short head of biceps femoris
A

D

94
Q 
The articularis genu is an extension of what muscle?
A. vastus medialis
B. vastus lateralis
C. vastus intermedius
D. rectus femoris
A

C

95
Q

Structures attached to the fibula.
A. Biceps femoris tendon and lateral collateral ligament
B. Lateral collateral ligament and iliotibial tract
C. Popliteus and lateral collateral ligament
D. Iliotibial tract and semitendinosus tendon

A

A

96
Q

Foot inversion is a combined action of which of the following:
A. Tibialis anterior and posterior
B. Gastroc soleus and extensor digitorum longus
C. Fibularis longus and brevis
D. Soleus and tibialis anterior

A

A

97
Q

Father of archaic anatomy?

a) Galen
b) Leonardo da Vinci
c) Andreas Vesalius
d) Bundoc
A

A

98
Q

Father of modern anatomy?

a) Galen
b) Leonardo da Vinci
c) Andreas Vesalius
d) Leslie Reyes
A

C

99
Q

Usual naming of body parts

a) superior to inferior
b) inferior to superior
c) distal to proximal
d) proximal to distal
A

D

100
Q

Auto-regulation except

a) respiration
b) circulation
c) hematopoeisis
d) energy absorption
A

D

101
Q

The following functions for shoulder flexion except:

a) deltoid
b) biceps
c) triceps
d) none of these
A

C

102
Q

. The following nerves potentiate the muscles in no. 10 except:

a) axillary n.
b) radial n.
c) musculocutaneous n.
d) none of the above
A

B

103
Q

What type of movement involves rotating the shoulders medially towards the midsagittal plane?

a) flexion
b) extension
c) abduction
d) adduction
A

D

104
Q

What is the muscle responsible for the action in #12 (Adduction of shoulders)?

a) Pectoralis minor
b) Teres minor
c) Teres major
d) Supraspinatus
A

C

105
Q

The hip joint with the action of weight bearing exhibits this type of lever.

a) First
b) Second
c) Third
d) All of the above
A

A

106
Q

Yield to opposing forces is defined as:

a) load
b) stress
c) strain
d) NOTA
A

C

107
Q

What tissue has the highest energy absorption?

a) skin
b) muscle
c) bone
d) ligament
A

C

108
Q

Microtrauma of joints will cause the following except:

a) Capsulitis
b) Synovitis
c) Bursitis
d) Myositis
A

D

109
Q

State of formaldehyde at room temperature

a) Liquid
b) Solid
c) Gas
d) Plasma
A

C

110
Q

This blade will fit Scalpel #3 except:

a) 10
b) 11
c) 15
d) 20
A

D

111
Q

Which of the following are symptomatic of a preganglionic injury?

a) Negative for Tinne’s Test, Positive for Horner’s Test, Severe Pain in an Aneasthetic Part
b) Positive Horner’s Test, Positive Tinne’s Test, Hyperflexia
c) Absence in Horner’s Test, Negative in Tinne’s Test, Hyperflexia
d) Positive Horner’s Test, Negative Tinne’s Test, Hyperflexia
e) Absence in Horner’s Test, Positive in Tinne’s Test, Severe Pain in an Aneasthetic Part
A

A

First, I think this should be Tinel’s test. Second, this is too clinical and hard for an LUIII student. Okay. Here’s what you need to know:

Preganglionic injury = avulsion of nerve roots
Postganglionic injury = injury distal to ganglion
Positive Tinel’s sign = Root not avulsed
Negative Tinel’s sign = Root avulsion
Positive Horner’s sign = Root avulsion
Severe pain in an anesthetic part = Root avulsion
Hyperreflexia = upper motor neuron disorder

112
Q

Main flexor of the forearm

a) biceps branchii
b) brachioradialis
c) brachialis
d) coracobrachialis
A

C

113
Q

. What is the primary supinator of the forearm?

a) pronator teres
b) pronator quadratus
c) supinator muscle
d) biceps brachii
A

D

114
Q

Winging of the scapula is indicative of which injury?

a) phrenic nerve
b) dorsal scapular nerve
c) long thoracic nerve
d) suprascapular nerve
A

C

115
Q

In an elderly patient suffering from degenerative vertebral disc disorder, which of the following types of structures will be involved?

a) spongy bone
b) compact bone
c) fibrocartilage 
d) hyaline cartilage
A

D

116
Q

Because one type of cartilage has a low coefficient of friction, it makes it an ideal tissue component of within what structure?

a) Intervertebral disc
b) Joint
c) Tendon
d) Ligament
A

B

117
Q

Structures found in the cartilage when the chondrocytes divide by mitosis.

a) Interterritorial matrix
b) Lacunae
c) Perichondrium
d) Isogenous groups
A

D

118
Q

Children in impoverished areas rarely reach their full bone growth potential. This is due to deficiency in which substance?

a) Vitamin C
b) Vitamin D
c) Chondroitin sulfate
d) Hyaluronic acid
A

B

119
Q

. Water molecules within cartilage are held by electrostatic forces generated by what structures?

a) Type 2 collagen bundles
b) Lacunae
c) Isogenous groups
d) Proteoglycan aggregates
A

A

120
Q

. The ability of cartilage to be compressed or deformed and still go back to its original shape is because of which property?

a) Hydration of ground substance
b) Elasticity of elastic fibers
c) Long-lasting collagen fibers
d) Mitotic activity of chondrocytes
A

B

121
Q

Growth hormone affects skeletal growth because it affects which structure:

a) Compact bone
b) Bone marrow
c) Periosteum
d) Epiphyseal plate
A

D

122
Q

Blood vessels within bony tissue mostly come from blood vessels found within which structure?

a) Medullary cavity
b) Periosteum
c) Canaliculi
d) Lacunae
A

B

123
Q

Which double stranded polypeptide binds with F- Actin and lies on its groove?

a) Desmosine
b) Troponin
c) Tropomyosin
d) Myosin
A

C

124
Q

Sequesters Ca ions during skeletal muscle relaxation

a) Sarcoplasmic reticulum
b) Terminal cisternae
c) Transverse tubules
d) Caveolae
A

D

125
Q

The sheath of connective tissue covering a muscle fascicle:

a) Epimysium
b) Perimysium
c) Endomysium
d) Sarcolemma
A

B

126
Q

Characteristic unique to cardiac muscle?

a) Lack of t tubules
b) Striations
c) Single nucleus per cell
d) Branching
A

D

127
Q

A sarcomere:

a) Is the equivalent of the mitochondrion in skeletal muscles
b) Is limited by two Z-lines
c) Has a central I-band with A-bands on either side and I-bands outer to it
d) Does not contract
A

B

128
Q

Tito Boy, your trustworthy carpenter, severed his right hand while making a doll house for his boss’ daughter’s friend’s younger sister’s doll. How much function is lost on Tito Boy’s (your trustworthy carpenter) right arm?

a) 90 %
b) 45 %
c) 135 %
A

A

129
Q

What muscle is used when we do push-ups?

a) pectoralis major
b) rhomboids
c) latissimus dorsi
d) supraspinatus
A

A

130
Q

An LU3 medical student complains of pain and point tenderness in the upper back above the scapular spine. This is fibromyalgia affecting the:

a) Upper trapezius
b) Levator scapulae
c) A or B
d) Neither A nor B
A

A

131
Q

A person injured his shoulder. He exhibited scapular winging when pushing off the wall. What nerve was injured?

a) Long thoracic nerve
b) Thoracodorsal
c) Subscapular
d) Dorsoscapular
A

A

132
Q

A tumor forms on the suprascapular notch of a patient. Which of the following happens?

a) Atrophy of the deltoid
b) Loss of ability to adduct arm
c) Loss of ability to retract scapula
d) Atrophy of the supraspinatus and infraspinatus
A

D

133
Q

What courses through the deltopectoral groove?

a) cephalic vein
b) axillary vein
c) basilic vein
d) thoracoacromial vein
A

A

134
Q

With the arm in neutral rotation, abduction of the shoulder is limited to 90 degrees due to the impingement of this structure to the acromion process.

a) lesser tubercle
b) greater tubercle
c) anatomical neck
d) surgical neck
A

B

135
Q

A man is stabbed by an ice pick on the anterior surface of his shoulder. He later complains of numbness in the lateral aspect of his forearm. What could have been injured?

a) Axillary Nerve
b) C7 Nerve Root
c) Ulnar Nerve
d) Musculocutaneous Nerve
A

D

136
Q

In the distal part of the arm, what structure passes through the brachioradialis and the brachialis?

a) Radial Nerve
b) Musculocutaneous Nerve
c) Medial Nerve
d) Ulnar Nerve
A

A

137
Q

This nerve passes the Cubital Fossa

a) Radial Nerve
b) Ulnar Nerve
c) Median Nerve
d) Masculocutaneous Nerve
A

C

138
Q

In the midshaft of the humerus, which structure is closest?

a) brachial artery
b) radial nerve
c) ulnar nerve
d) median nerve
A

B

139
Q

Which of the following will result from a mid-humeral fracture or injury?

a) brachialis muscle rupture
b) brachioradialis muscle rupture
c) median nerve damage
d) radial nerve damage
A

D

140
Q

. The elbow carrying angle is determined by the

a) trochlear tilt
b) capitellar tilt
c) hip width
d) radial bow
A

A

141
Q

The lacertus fibrosus is an expanded attachment of the:

a) brachioradialis
b) brachialis
c) biceps brachii
d) pronator teres
A

C

Lacertus fibrosus is bicipetal aponeurosis.

142
Q

All of these muscles are elbow flexors, except:

a) coracobrachialis
b) brachialis
c) biceps brachii
d) brachioradialis
A

A

143
Q

All of these muscles are innervated by the musculocutaneous nerve, except:

a) biceps brachii
b) brachioradialis
c) coracobrachialis
d) brachialis
A

B

144
Q

The primary flexor of the forearm

a) brachioradialis
b) brachialis
c) biceps brachi
d) coracobrachialis
A

B

145
Q

Volkmann’s ischemic contracture results from fibrosis of forearm volar muscles brought about by compression on:

a) Brachial artery
b) Radial artery
c) Ulnar artery
d) Common interosseous artery
A

A

146
Q

The deep brachial artery anastomoses with the

a) Suprascapular artery
b) Recurrent radial artery
c) Anterior ulnar recurrent artery
d) Posterior ulnar recurrent artery
A

B

147
Q

. The posterior interosseous nerve is a continuous with what?

a) radial nerve
b) ulnar nerve
c) median nerve
A

A

148
Q

The posterior interosseous artery branches from what?

a) Radial artery
b) Ulnar artery
c) Radial recurrent artery
d) Posterior ulnar recurrent artery
A

B

149
Q

The anterior interosseous artery branches from what?

a) Radial artery
b) Radial Recurrent artery
c) Ulnar artery
d) Dorsal Ulnar recurrent artery
A

C

150
Q

Which forearm muscle acts exclusively on the elbow joint?

a) Pronator teres
b) Brachioradialis
c) Extensor carpi radialis longus
d) Extensor carpi radialis brevis
A

B

151
Q

The medial border of the cubital fossa is the…

a) brachioradialis
b) pronator teres
c) supinator
d) palmaris longus
A

B

152
Q

The following describes red skeletal muscles?

a) low level of myoglobin
b) low level of mitochondria
c) low cytochrome
d) capable of rapid contraction
e) capable of sustained contraction
A

E

153
Q

De Quervain’s syndrome is characterized by pain and tenderness at the radial styloid. What structures are affected?

a) abductor pollicis longus and extensor pollicis brevis
b) extensor pollicis longus and extensor digiti minimi
c) extensor digitorum
A

A

154
Q

Which carpal bones articulate with the distal radius?

a) triquetrum and pisiform
b) triquetrum and scaphoid
c) lunate and scaphoid
d) scaphoid and pisiform
A

C

155
Q

The test for pure radial sensory function

a) Tip of thumb
b) Tip of little finger
c) Dorsum of first web
d) Dorsal carpus
A

C

156
Q

The following structure passes through the carpal tunnel

a) Flexor carpi radialis
b) Flexor pollicis longus
c) Radial artery
d) Ulnar artery
A

B

157
Q

What structure passes through the Guyon canal?

a) Flexor carpi radialis
b) Flexor pollicis longus
c) Radial artery
d) Ulnar artery
A

D

158
Q

The patient has Saturday night palsy, which conditions will he have?

a) Claw hand
b) hand of benediction
c) wrist drop
d) waiter’s tip deformity
A

C

159
Q

Sensation in the thumb area is representative of which dermatome?

a) C5
b) C6
c) C7
d) C8
A

B

160
Q

Alterations of calcium are essential in the normal function of skeletal muscle. In the presence of high calcium

a) The binding site of myosin heads on actin are blocked by the troponin-tropomyosin complex
b) The troponin I is responsible of the interaction of actin and myosin
c) Binding of calcium to troponin c exposes the binding site of myosin on actin
d) NOTA
A

D

161
Q

Which of the following has a protruding spinous process?

a) C1
b) C3
c) C5
d) C7
A

D

162
Q

How many bones are there in the pelvic girdle?

a) 3
b) 2
c) 4
d) 6
A

D

There are 2 innominate bones (each composed of ilium, ischium and pubis).

163
Q

How many types of articulations are there in the pelvic girdle?

a) One
b) two
c) Three
d) Four
A

D

164
Q

The femur on static standing is directed:

a) Anteriorly
b) Posteriorly
c) Medially
d) Laterally
A

C

165
Q

. An angle less than 115 degrees is termed as:

a) Coxa vara
b) Coxa valga
c) Coxa plana
d) Coxa magna
A

A

Coxa vara means that the head of the femur is directed medially, so that the angle is less than 115 degrees. Coxa valga means the head of the femur is directed more laterally, or that the angle of inclination is increased.

166
Q

The fibers of the gluteus maximus run:

a) medial-caudal
b) medial-cephal
c) lateral-caudal
d) lateral-cephal
A

C

167
Q

Which of these form the apex of the femoral triangle?

a) Inguinal ligament - Sartorius
b) Inguinal ligament - Adductor longus
c) Sartorius - Adductor longus
d) NOTA
A

C

168
Q

How many articulating surfaces does the knee possess?

a) one
b) two
c) three
d) four
A

D

169
Q

Which spinal cord injury has the worst prognosis?

a) Brown-Sequord injury
b) Posterior cord injury
c) Anterior cord injury
d) Central cord injury
A

C

170
Q

What is the function of the meniscus?

a) Protection
b) Nutrition
c) Cosmesis
d) None of the above
A

C

171
Q

Which is not a stabilizer of the lateral side of the knee?

a) Biceps femoris
b) Iliotibial tract
c) Lateral retinaculum
d) Capsule
A

D

172
Q

The pes anserinus muscles are arranged in this manner posteriorly to anteriorly;

a) Sartorius - Gracilis - Semitendinosus
b) Gracilis - Sartorius - Semitendinosus
c) Semitendinosus - Gracilis - Sartorius
d) Sartorius - Semitendinosus - Gracilis
A

C

173
Q

Which is not a direct branch of femoral artery?

a) Lateral genicular
b) Medial genicular
c) Inferior medial genicular
d) Anterior tibial recurrent
A

D

174
Q

True of the tibia, EXCEPT:

a) Main weight bearing bone of the body
b) Large size for attachment of muscles
c) Has a triangular cross section
A

B

175
Q

The following are superficial plantar muscles except:

a) Extensor digitorum longus
b) Flexor digitorum brevis
c) Abductor hallucis
d) Abductor digiti quinti
A

A

176
Q

How many plantar interossei are there

a) Three
b) Four
c) Five
d) Six
A

A

177
Q

The following are innervated by the lateral plantar nerve

a) Flexor digitorum brevis
b) Abductor hallucis
c) Flexor hallucis brevis
d) None of the above
A

D

178
Q

Foot evertors except

a) Tibialis anterior
b) Extensor digitorum longus
c) Peroneus longus
d) Peroneus brevis
A

A

179
Q

The following are true about stance phase except:

a) initiated by heel strike
b) double limb support is longer than single limb support
c) foot flat precedes single stance support
d) midstance is followed by heel off
A

B

This is the order for the stance phase: heel strike (double support), foot flat (single), midstance (single), heel off (single), toe off (double). I agree with the answer. Try it! Heel strike and toe off are unstable phases.

180
Q

True of swing phase

a) starts with heel off
b) major part of normal gait
c) anterior leg plays a major part
d) posterior leg plays a major part
A

C

This is the order for the swing phase: Acceleration, Midswing, Deceleration. This is 40% of the gait. Stance phase is 60% of the whole gait phase. This leaves us C or D. This is debatable. We know that the leg in the swing phase is lagging, so that the anterior leg plays a major part in supporting the swinging leg. But we can also say that the posterior leg play a major part in the swinging process itself. If this is the exact phrasing of the question, I’ll go for D.

181
Q

tripod support is most presented by

a) heel strike
b) foot flat
c) push off
d) toe off
A

B

I believe the answer is B. This is a tripod support. The apex of the triangle is the heel while the base is formed by the “balls” of the foot, at the metacarpophalangeal joints of the thumb and the little finger.

182
Q

This is the first part of the vertebra to ossify.

a) Body
b) Pedicle
c) Pars
d) Lamina
A

B

183
Q

The vertebrae body starts ossifying

a) Medio-laterally
b) Latero-medially
c) Centrifugally
d) Centripetally
A

C

184
Q

How many intervertebral disks are there in the body?

a) 22
b) 23
c) 24
d) 25
A

B

Out of the 32-34 vertebra, significant motion occur only in the superior 25 vertebra. Therefore, there are only 23 intervertebral discs.

185
Q

The line of gravity does not cross the body of:

a) Thoracic vertebra
b) lumbar
c) cervical
d) NOTA
A

A

186
Q

Which vertebrae have the narrowest spinal canal?

a) T1-T2
b) T4-T9
c) C7-T1
d) C9-T2
A

B

The cervical and the lumbar spinal canals are big because from that area of the spinal cord will arise the cervical and lumbar plexuses which will innervate the upper and lower extremities, respectively

187
Q

The spinal cord terminates at which vertebra in newborns

a) L1-L2 
b) L2-L3
c) L3-L4 
d) L4-L5
A

C

Spine rests at L3-L4 in newborns. It rests at L1-L2 at puberty. This change occurs because the spinal cord grows slower than the vertebra

188
Q

What is the first secondary curvature of the spine?

a) Cervical lordosis
b) Thoracic kyphosis
c) Lumbar lordosis
d) Sacral kyphosis
A

A

You just have to remember that the secondary curvature is always lordosis. My thoughts here is that this may be due to the fact that the fetus, in a fetal position, is kyphotic. So the first is cervical lordosis while the second is lumbar lordosis

189
Q

Which type of joint is not found in the spine?

a) Diarthrodial
b) Syndesmosis
c) Condyloid
d) Sellar
A

D

The joints in the spine are: diarthrodial or zygapophyseal joints, syndesmosis, amphiarthrodial joint, trochoid joint, and condyloid joint.

190
Q

Which is a peculiar joint of the spine?

a) Amphiarthrosis
b) Syndesmosis
c) Sellar
d) Condyloid
A

A

Amphiarthrosis is a joint wherein the surfaces are connected by fibrocartilage. These are the intervertebral discs.

191
Q

A 19 year old 100 m free style swimmer goes to you for an advice:

On the principle of specificity, what should he exercise more?

a) Trunk msucles
b) Forearm muscles
c) Abdomen muscles
d) Rotator cuff and pectoralis major
e) Arm flexors and extensors
A

D

192
Q

A 19 year old 100 m free style swimmer goes to you for an advice

The main source/s of energy of this athlete is/are:

a) Phosphocreatine
b) Glycolytic and phosphocreatine
c) Aerobic
d) Anaerobic and aerobic
e) Alactic and lactic
A

B

I think the 100m is a sprint, not a marathon so the main energy source would be anaerobic.

193
Q

A 19 year old 100 m free style swimmer goes to you for an advice:

Type exercise intensity

a) Low rep, high resistance
b) High rep, low resistance
c) Low rep, low resistance
d) High rep, high resistance
A

B

194
Q

A 19 year old 100 m free style swimmer goes to you for an advice:

Which of the following will be a result of his training

a) higher heart rate
b) higher diastolic BP
c) lower stroke volume
d) greater MET
e) greater max Vo2
A

E

195
Q

Bone metastasis of the vertebra usually involves the pedicle. What visualization technique is used to view the pedicle?

a) X-ray
b) Ultrasound
c) CT Scan 
d) MRI
A

C

CT scan is best for hard tissues (like bones), and MRI for soft tissues.

196
Q

Lola Inday keeps on complaining of pain shooting down her left leg. What imaging modality can be requested?

a) X-ray
b) Ultrasound
c) CT Scan
d) MRI
A

D

Nerves are soft tissues.

[COMPRE] LU III (6 decks)

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