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Microbiology > Organism(s)/Diagnosis(s) > Flashcards

Organism(s)/Diagnosis(s) Flashcards

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1
Q

S. aureus

A
  • Clinical bases - Gram stain - Culture
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2
Q

S. epidermidis

A
  • Clinical bases - Gram stain - Culture
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3
Q

S. saprophyticus

A
  • Clinical bases - Gram stain - Culture
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4
Q

S. pneumoniae

A
  • Gram stain
  • PCR
  • Quellung reaction
  • Latex particle agglutination test
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5
Q

S. mutans, S. mitis, and S. sanguis

A
  • Gram stain - Culture
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6
Q

S. pyogenes

A
  • Rapid strep test (ELISA-based) misses 25% of infections. So culture all negatives - Antibodies to streptolysin O (ASO) titer of >200 is significant of rheumatic fever
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7
Q

S. agalactiae

A
  • Gram stain - Culture
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8
Q

S. bovis

A
  • Gram stain - Culture
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9
Q

Enterococci (E. faecalis and E. faecium)

A
  • Culture on blood agar - Antibiotic sensitivities
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10
Q

B. anthracis

A
  • Gram stain - Culture - Serology - PCR
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11
Q

B. cereus

A
  • Clinical bases - Gram stain - Culture
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12
Q

C. tetani

A

Clinical bases

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13
Q

C. botulinum

A

Toxin demonstration

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14
Q

C. perfringens

A

Clinical bases

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15
Q

C. difficile

A

Toxin demonstration

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16
Q

C. diphtheriae

A

Toxin demonstration by ELISA or Elek test

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17
Q

L. monocytogenes

A
  • Gram stain - Culture - CSF wet mount
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18
Q

Nocardia

A

Culture

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19
Q

Actinomyces

A
  • Gram stain - Culture
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20
Q

M. tuberculosis

A
  • Sputum microscopy and screening with auramine-rhodamine stain (fluorescent apple-green) - Acid fast stain - PPD skin test (+ve indicates only exposure but not necessarily active disease) - Quantiferon-TB Gold test - Culture on Lowenstein-Jensen medium - No serology
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21
Q

M. leprae

A
  • Punch biopsy or nasal scrapings acid fast stain - Lepromin skin test (+ve in tuberculoid only)
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22
Q

M. avium intracellulare

A

Nonchromogen

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23
Q

M. kansasii

A

Photochromogen

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24
Q

M. scrofulaceum

A

Scotochromogen

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25
Q

M. marinum

A

Photochromogen

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26
Q

M. catarrhalis

A
  • Clinical bases - Gram stain - Culture
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27
Q

P. mirabilis

A

Culture of blood or urine for lactose-negative organisms with swarming motility

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28
Q

P. vulgaris

A

Culture of blood or urine for lactose-negative organisms with swarming motility

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29
Q

N. gonorrhoeae

A
  • Gram stain - Genetic probes - Culture on Thayer-Martin medium
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30
Q

N. meningitidis

A
  • Gram stain - PCR - Latex agglutination
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31
Q

H. influenzae

A
  • Culture on chocolate agar - PCR - Latex particle agglutination
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32
Q

H. ducreyi

A

Clinical bases

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33
Q

B. pertussis

A
  • Culture on Regan-Lowe or Bordet-Gengou media - Direct immunofluorescence (DFA) - PCR and serology
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34
Q

L. pneumophila

A
  • DFA - Antigen urine test for one serogroup only
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35
Q

P. aeruginosa

A
  • Gram stain - Culture
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36
Q

E. coli

A
  • Gram stain - Culture
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37
Q

K. pneumoniae

A
  • Culture
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38
Q

C. jejuni

A
  • Culture on Campylobacter or Skirrow agar at 42 C
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39
Q

S. typhi

A
  • Gram stain - Culture
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40
Q

S. enteritidis and S. typhimurium

A

Culture on Hektoen agar (H2S production)

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41
Q

S. paratyphi

A
  • Gram stain - Culture
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42
Q

Shigella

A

Culture

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43
Q

V. cholerae

A

Culture on TCBS

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44
Q

V. parahemolyticus

A

Clinical bases

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45
Q

V. vulnificus

A
  • Clinical bases - Gram stain - Culture
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46
Q

Y. enterocolitica

A

Stool culture 25 c, cold enrichment

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47
Q

Y. pestis

A
  • Serodiagnosis and DFA - “Safety pin” staining
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48
Q

H. pylori

A
  • Giemsa or silver stain - Culture - Breath test: C-urea swallowed, ammonia+ C-CO2 exhaled - Serology
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49
Q

L. interrogans

A
  • Agglutination test - Culture - Dark-field microscopy (insensitive)
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50
Q

B. burgdorferi

A
  • Serodiagnosis by ELISA (-ve early) - Western blot for confirmation
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51
Q

B. recurrentis

A
  • Dark-field microscopy (Giemsa stain) - Serology
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52
Q

T. pallidum

A
  • Immunofluorescence or dark field microscopy - Serology: * Nontreponemal antibody screening tests which contain an Ab that binds to cardiolipin (very sensitive) e.g. VDRL, RPR, ART, and ICE * Specific test for treponemal antibody (more expensive) # Fluorescent treponemal antibody-absorption (FTA-ABS) # Treponema pallidum microhemagglutination (MHA-TP)
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53
Q

B. henselae

A

Clinical bases

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54
Q

P. multocida

A

Clinical bases

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55
Q

G. vaginalis

A
  • Microscopy (Clue cells) - Amine whiff test (KOH) enhances fishy odor
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56
Q

E. corrodens

A
  • Clinical bases - Culture
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57
Q

C. canimorsus

A
  • Clinical bases - Culture (very slow and requires iron to and CO2 to grow) - PCR - Gram stain of CSF
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58
Q

HACEK group infections

A
  • Clinical bases - Culture
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59
Q

B. fragilis

A

Biochemical tests and chromatography (anaerobes)

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60
Q

F. tularensis

A
  • Serodiagnosis - DFA
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61
Q

Brucella spp.

A

Serum agglutination test (antibodies >1:160 is +ve)

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62
Q

R. rickettsii

A
  • Clinical bases - Serology IFA (4 fold increase in titer is diagnostic) - Weil-Felix test (Cross-reaction with OX strains of P. vulgaris)
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63
Q

R. akari

A

Clinical bases

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64
Q

R. prowazekii

A

Clinical bases

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65
Q

R. typhi

A

Clinical bases

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66
Q

O. tsutsugamushi

A

Clinical bases

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67
Q

C. burnetii

A

None

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68
Q

E. chafeensis

A
  • IFA - PCR - Blood film
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69
Q

E. phagocytophila

A
  • IFA - PCR - Blood film
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70
Q

Anaplasma spp.

A

Blood smear with Giemsa stain

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71
Q

C. trachomatis

A
  • DNA probes and PCR - Giemsa, iodine, or fluorescent antibody-stained smear or scrapings (cytoplasmic inclusions) - Culture (tissue cultures or embryonated eggs) - Serology: DFA and ELISA
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72
Q

C. pneumoniae

A

Serology: complement fixation or microimmunofluorescence

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73
Q

C. psittaci

A

Serology complement fixation

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74
Q

M. pneumoniae

A
  • Clinical bases - PCR or nucleic acid probes - ELISA and immunofluorescence (sensitive and specific) - Culture on sterol containing agar (Mulberry- shaped colonies) - Positive cold agglutinins
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75
Q

U. urealyticum

A

Non gram staining and urease +ve

76
Q

H. capsulatum

A
  • Clinical bases - Microscopy - Culture
77
Q

C. immitis

A
  • Clinical bases - Microscopy - Culture - Serology
78
Q

B. dermatitidis

A
  • Clinical bases - Microscopy - Culture
79
Q

A. fumigatus

A
  • Clinical bases - Microscopy - Culture - Serology - PCR
80
Q

C. albicans

A
  • Clinical bases - Microscopy - Culture - Serology - PCR
81
Q

C. neoformans

A
  • Clinical bases - Microscopy - Culture - Serology
82
Q

Mucor, Rhizopus and Absidia

A
  • Clinical bases - Microscopy - Culture
83
Q

P. jirovecii

A

Silver staining cysts in bronchial alveolar lavage fluids or biopsy

84
Q

M. furfur

A
  • Clinical bases - KOH mount of skin scales (spaghetti and meatballs) - Wood lamp (UV) coppery-orange fluorescence
85
Q

Dermatophytes

A
  • Clinical bases - KOH mount shows arthroconidia and hyphae - Wood lamp bright yellow-green fluorescence of microsporum
86
Q

S. schenckii

A
  • Clinical bases - Microscopy
87
Q

Paracoccidioidomycosis

A
  • Clinical bases - Microscopy - Culture
88
Q

G. lamblia

A
  • Clinical bases - Microscopy (multinucleated trophozoites or cysts in stool)
89
Q

E. histolytica

A
  • Serology - Microscopy (trophozoites [with engulfed RBCs in the cytoplasm] or cysts with up to 4 nuclei in stool)
90
Q

Cryptosporidium spp. (C. parvum)

A

Oocysts on acid-fast stain

91
Q

I. belli

A

Acid-fast and elliptical oocysts in stool (contain 2 sporocysts each with 4 sporozoites)

92
Q

C. cayetanesis

A
  • Acid-fast and spherical oocysts (contain 2 sporocysts each with 2 sporozoites) - UV fluorescence
93
Q

Microsporidia spp.

A

Gram +ve, acid-fast spores in stool or biopsy material

94
Q

T. vaginalis

A

Motile trophozoites in methylene blue wet mount (corkscrew motility)

95
Q

T. gondii

A

Serology

96
Q

N. fowleri

A
  • Motile trophozoites in CSF - Culture on plates seeded with gram -ve bacteria
97
Q

T. brucei

A

Blood smear (trypomastigote)

98
Q

Acanthamoeba

A
  • Star-shaped cysts on biopsy - Culture on plates seeded with gram -ve bacteria
99
Q

P. vivax

A

Blood smear (enlarged RBCs with ameboid trophozoites)

100
Q

P. ovale

A

Blood smear (Oval, jagged RBCs)

101
Q

P. malarie

A

Blood smear (Bar and band forms, rosette schizonts)

102
Q

P. falciparum

A

Blood smear (Multiple ring forms crescent-shaped gametes)

103
Q

T. cruzi

A

Blood smear (trypomastigote)

104
Q

L. donovanii

A

Blood smear (macrophages containing amastigotes)

105
Q

L. braziliensis

A

Blood smear (macrophages containing amastigotes)

106
Q

Leishmania spp.

A

Blood smear (macrophages containing amastigotes)

107
Q

B. microti

A
  • Blood smear with Giemsa stain (ring form and “Maltese cross”) - PCR
108
Q

E. vermicularis

A
  • Sticky swab - Microscopy (Ova has flattened side with larvae inside)
109
Q

A. lumbricoides

A

Bile stained knobby eggs or adult round worms

110
Q

T. canis or cati

A
  • Clinical bases - Serology
111
Q

T. trichiura

A

Barrel-shaped eggs with bipolar plugs

112
Q

S. stercoralis

A
  • Larvae in stool - Serology
113
Q

T. spiralis

A
  • Clinical bases - Muscle biopsy
114
Q

A. braziliense and caninum

A

Clinical bases

115
Q

N. americanus

A

Larvae in stool and ova (oval, transparent with 2-8 cell stage visible inside)

116
Q

W. bancrofti

A
  • Microfilariae in blood - Eosinophilia
117
Q

B. malayi

A
  • Microfilariae in blood - Eosinophilia
118
Q

Loa Loa

A
  • Microfilariae in blood - Eosinophilia
119
Q

O. volvulus

A

Skin snips from calabar swellings

120
Q

D. medinensis

A
  • Increased IgE - Worm eruption from skin
121
Q

T. Solium

A
  • Biopsy - Proglottids or eggs in feces
122
Q

T. saginata

A

Proglottids or eggs in feces

123
Q

D. latum

A
  • Biopsy - Proglottids or eggs in feces
124
Q

E. granulosus

A
  • Imaging - Serology
125
Q

E. multilocularis

A
  • Imaging - Serology
126
Q

S. mansoni and japonicum

A

Eggs with lateral spines

127
Q

S. haematobium

A

Eggs with terminal spines

128
Q

Non-human schistosomes

A

None

129
Q

C. sinensis

A

Operculated eggs

130
Q

F. hepatica

A

Operculated eggs

131
Q

F. buski

A

Operculated eggs

132
Q

P. westermani

A

Operculated eggs

133
Q

S. scabiei

A
  • Clinical bases - KOH mount of scrapings - Direct dermoscopy
134
Q

P. humanus and P. pubis

A

Clinical bases

135
Q

B19

A
  • Serology - Molecular biology
136
Q

HPV

A
  • Clinical bases - Pap Smear (Koilocytic cells [cells with perinuclear cytoplasmic vacuolization and nuclear enlargement]) - In situ DNA probes and PCR
137
Q

BK

A
  • ELISA - PCR
138
Q

JC

A
  • ELISA - PCR
139
Q

Adenovirus

A

ELISA

140
Q

HBV

A
  • HBsAg - IgM to HBcAg
141
Q

HSV-1 and HSV-2

A
  • Clinical bases - PCR and large amount of RBCs in CSF (encephalitis) - Tzanck smear (Multinucleated giant cells and Cowdry A intranuclear inclusions) - Immunofluorescence (largely used now) to distinguish HSV-1 from HSV-2
142
Q

VZV

A
  • Tzanck smear (Cowdry A) - PCR
143
Q

EBV

A
  • Heterophile-antibody +ve (IgM that recognize Paul-Bunnell antigen on sheep and bovine RBCs) - Serology (VCA, EBNA, EA)
144
Q

CMV

A
  • Biopsy (Owl-eye inclusion) - Basophilic intranuclear inclusions - Serology, DNA detection and virus culture
145
Q

HHV-6

A

Clinical bases

146
Q

HHV-8

A
  • Clinical bases - Serology - PCR
147
Q

Variola

A
  • Clinical bases - Intracytoplasmic inclusions (Guarnieri bodies)
148
Q

Molluscum contagiosum

A
  • Clinical bases - Eosinophilic cytoplasmic inclusions
149
Q

Norwalk virus and Noro-like virus

A
  • RIA - ELISA
150
Q

Hepatitis E virus

A
  • Abs to HEV - ELISA
151
Q

Polio

A

Serology

152
Q

Coxsackie A

A

Virus isolation from throat, stool or CSF

153
Q

Coxsackie B

A

Virus isolation from throat, stool or CSF

154
Q

Enterovirus 71

A

Virus isolation from throat, stool or CSF

155
Q

Echoviruses

A

Virus isolation from throat, stool or CSF

156
Q

Rhinoviruses

A

Clinical bases

157
Q

HAV

A
  • IgM to HAV - Serology
158
Q

St. Louis encephalitis virus (SLE)

A
  • Serology - Hemagglutination inhibition - ELISA - Latex particle agglutination
159
Q

West Nile encephalitis virus (WNV)

A
  • Serology - Hemagglutination inhibition - ELISA - Latex particle agglutination
160
Q

Dengue virus

A
  • Serology - Hemagglutination inhibition - ELISA - Latex particle agglutination
161
Q

Yellow fever virus (YFV)

A
  • Serology - Hemagglutination inhibition - ELISA - Latex particle agglutination
162
Q

HCV

A
  • Antibody to HCV - ELISA
163
Q

Eastern, Western and Venazuelan equine encephalitis viruses (EEE, WEE, VEE)

A
  • Cytopathology - Immunofluorescence - RT-PCR - Serology
164
Q

Rubella virus

A

Serology

165
Q

Coronavirus

A

Clinical bases

166
Q

SARS-CoV

A
  • Clinical bases - Antibodies to SARS-Cov - RT-PCR - Isolation of virus in culture
167
Q

Measles virus

A

Serology

168
Q

Mumps virus

A
  • Clinical bases - ELISA - IFA - Hemagglutination inhibition
169
Q

Parainfluenza virus

A

RT-PCR

170
Q

RSV

A
  • IFA - ELISA - RT-PCR
171
Q

Human metapneumovirus (MNV)

A

RT-PCR

172
Q

Rabies virus

A
  • Clinical bases - Brain biopsy (intracytoplasmic inclusions [Negri bodies]) - DFA (impression smears of corneal epithelial cells) - PCR (usually too late)
173
Q

Ebola and Marburg viruses

A
  • Level 4 isolation of virus - ELISA - PCR
174
Q

Influenza A virus

A
  • Clinical bases - Serology (rapid tests)
175
Q

Influenza B virus

A
  • Clinical bases - Serology (rapid tests)
176
Q

California and LaCrosse encephalitis viruses

A

Serology

177
Q

Hantavirus

A

RT-PCR

178
Q

Lymphocytic choriomeningitis virus (LCMV)

A
  • Serology - Level 3 isolation of virus
179
Q

Lassa fever virus

A
  • Serology - Level 4 isolation of virus
180
Q

Reovirus

A

Serology

181
Q

Rotavirus

A

ELISA

182
Q

Colorado tick fever virus (CTFV)

A

Serology

183
Q

HIV

A
  • Serology: ELISA (initial screening) - Serology: Western blot (confirmation) - RT-PCR (detection of virus in blood [evaluate viral load]) - PCR (detect HIV infection in newborns of HIV +ve mother [provirus]) - p24 antigen (early marker of infection) - CD4:CD8 T-cell ratio (evaluate progression of disease)
184
Q

HTLV-1

A

Serology

185
Q

HTLV-2

A

Serology

186
Q

Hepatitis D virus

A
  • Hepatitis D Ab - HBsAg
187
Q

Zika virus

A

Serology

Microbiology (8 decks)

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