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A320 > Oral REview > Flashcards

Oral REview Flashcards

1
Q

When is the energy warning inhibited?

A 
F - Flaps 1 or 0
A - Alpha Floor
T - TOGA
G - GPWS alert
R - Dual RA failure
A - Altitude above 2000’ RA and below 100’ RA 
N - Normal law not active
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2
Q

Function of the FADEC

A

S - Start sequencing
E - Engine limits based on TLA
M - Metering
I - Indications

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3
Q

When are PWS alerts inhibited?

A

On ground
above 100 knots
Above 50 AGL

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4
Q

What is available in the cockpit during Emer Electrical Configuration?

A

RMP 1

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5
Q

What are the 8 phases of flights for the MCDU and when does it transition?

A

Preflight - engine start
Takeoff - TO power
Climb - Accel Alt
Cruise - TOC
Descent - descent within 200nm from destination
Approach - when APPR armed or decel point
GA - TOGA
Done - on ground for 30 seconds, engines shutdown

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6
Q

How long does the Battery last on ADRIU 1?

A

40-45 minutes

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7
Q

If during engine start with p. brake on, the ac starts to move, what are the actions?

A

Release the P. Brake handle to restore norm braking with pedals

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8
Q

When does autoskid stop?

A

20 knots

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9
Q

If on the alt braking sys, what is required in order to maintain Anti-Skid?

A

1 channel of the BSCU

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10
Q

If simul failures occur, how will they be presented to the crew?

A

Level 3 warning first

Level 2, then Level 1

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11
Q

When does the AC leave A. FLOOR and what does the FMA change to?

A

Reaching lower AoA

TOGA LK

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12
Q

When does the Landing memo appear and disappear?

A

<2000 agl
GA if not above 2200 =>appears <800 during appr
Disappears at 80 kts

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13
Q

When does the FADEC command a higher engine idle?

A

Bleed demands
App Config
High Engine or IDG temps

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14
Q

If LGCIU 1 fails, will the lights still work?

A

Yes, as long as it is still powered

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15
Q

What will cause a Fire Warning?

A

Both loops A and B send fire signal
One loop sends signal and other has failed
Breaks occur in both loops within 5 s of each other
Test performed

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16
Q

If the STS pb is pressed with no Status, what is displayed?

A

NORMAL

for 5 seconds

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17
Q

When would you perform quick alignment of the ADIRS and how long does it take?

A

If the FMGC position is >5nm off

30 seconds

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18
Q

Max NW/S with tiller

A

75 degrees of cntr

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19
Q

How would the A/THR be disconnected for the remainder of the flight

A

Press and hold the A/THR disc for 15 seconds.
You lost A. FLOOR.
Can not restore

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20
Q

How can the crew verify the parking brake is set

A

ECAM PARKING BRK

Triple indicator

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21
Q

When to abort an AUTO start?

A

L - Loss of upper and/or lower screen
E - Loss of Electrical power
E - ECAM mesage
T - Tailpipe fire

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22
Q

What would prevent the wx display on the ND?

A

Mode selector in PLAN

TERR ON

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23
Q

What is the function of the 2 LGCIUs?

A

O - Operation

S - Sequencing
I - Indications for LD GR
M - Monitoring
S - Signals On ground or In flight

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24
Q

When will the auto retration system op?

A

CONF 1+F
210 knts

auto retract to 0

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25
Q

In order to reduce the bounce severity at landing in the case of an inappropriate thrust lever handling during flare, ground spoilers are also partially deployed, when…

A

Ground spoilers armed
Both mains on grd
both levers at or below CLB

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26
Q

What effect does setting the p. brake have on other braking modes?

A

All other braking modes deactivated and anti-skid is deactivated

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27
Q

When does auto pitch trim freeze?

A

Manual pitch trim order from pilot
<50ft
load factor <0.5
High Speed Protection

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28
Q

What does illumination of the ATC fail indicate?

A

Only the selected transponder has failed

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29
Q

What is the signif of selecting the NAV key on the RMP?

A

The FMGS cannot auto-tune
RMP controls VOR/ILS
NAV key on RMP has no effect
Normal radio comm is avail

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30
Q

When useing the rudder pedals for steering, when does the steering angle begin to reduce?

A

Reduces at 40kts until 0 at 140kts

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31
Q

Can you takeoff with HOT brakes?

A

Yes, IF ECAM during TO roll at pilot’s discretion.

Delay retraction until cooled.

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32
Q

What the systems downstream of the hydraulic priority valve for the GREEN system?

A

Landing Gear

Slats AND Flaps

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33
Q

Info from ILS 1 is displayed where?

A

CA PFD

FO ND

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34
Q

What happens when you press the FIRE pb?

A 
8 items
Silences the aural fire warning
Arms the squibs
Closes the hydraulic fire shut off valve
Closes the low pressure fuel valve
Deactivates the IDG
Closes the pack flow control valve
Closes the engine bleed valve
Cuts off FADEC power supply
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35
Q

When will grnd spoilers ALWAYS deploy?

A

At least 1 lever to IDLE REV

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36
Q

How is appr idle different on the NEO?

A

CEO:
Flaps extended

NEO:
CONF 3 or FULL when LDG GR down

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37
Q

What happens with the A/skid and N/W STRG is switched OFF?

A

Loss of NWS
Braking on the YELLOW
A/SKID deactivated

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38
Q

When is A. FLOOR protection active

A

T.O. until 100 AGL on landing

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39
Q

What shoudl the pilot do to get out of THRUST LOCK?

A

Match the TLA with ENG output

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40
Q

When would you be in DIRECT LAW?

A

3 - Triple IR failure
2 - Dual RA failure
1 - L/G down in ALT

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41
Q

What happens when you disengage the A/THR with the pb?

A

Thrust lock, and single chime every 5 seconds

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42
Q

ENG Start FAULT light

A

H - HP fuel valve disagreement
A - Auto start abort
S - Start valve fault

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43
Q

What is the power source of the FADEC?

A

Alternator >10%

If ALT fails - AC elec power

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44
Q

When does the blue pump start?

A

After first engine start

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45
Q

When is a STATUS page displayed?

A

After failure on SD and all items cleared

Reappear when slats extended

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46
Q

What would occur if one SFCC failed?

A

Slats and Flaps half speed

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47
Q

What does the cooling indication mean on the E/WD for NEO?

A

Steady:
Auto dry cranking about to begin and timer indicates the time left until begins

Pulsing:
Auto dry crank in progress

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48
Q

What would occur if the A/skid & NW/S switch were selected OFF?

A

NW/S lost
Anti-skid deactived
YELLOW supplies brakes

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49
Q

Pros of landing FULL flaps

A 
Reduced landing distance
Reduced Tailstrike risk
Better GA performance (20 only)
Faster Decel to Vapp
Slower Vapp
Easier on tire
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50
Q

If no hyd power is avail, what is the impact on the THS?

A

Requires GRN or YELLOW to function!

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51
Q

What are the Normal Law Protections?

A

B - Bank angle protection (=)
P - Pitch angle protection (=)
L - Load factor protection
A - Angle of attack protection (Alpha prot) S - Speed protection (=)

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52
Q

When is windshear detection functional?

A

1300 - 50 AGL (TO and landing)

CONF 1 or greater

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53
Q

What 3 things occur when the manual gear extension handle is turned?

A
  1. GREEN press removed
  2. Gear doors opened
  3. Uplocks released
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54
Q

What would cause a ADIRU fault?

A

Measure - inputted position error
Movement - off and on over 1 degree Lat or Long
Minute - 1 min left and still no position
Motion - AC moved during alignment

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55
Q

What should the pilot do to get out of TOGA LK?

A

Push the disconnect A/THR pbs and move the lever to the CL detent

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56
Q

Flashing amber ILS on PFD means…

A

APPR mode armed, and ILS pb not selected

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57
Q

When does continuous ignition automatically operate?

A 
Flameout detection
Failure of EIU
Sun-idle or surge
Master switch cycled
Anti-ice on
Approach Idle
Max/FLEX power
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58
Q

What happens when you press the APU Fire pb?

A 
8 items
Shuts down the APU
Silences the aural warning
Arms the squib
Closes the low-press fuel valve
Shuts off the APU fuel pump
Deactivates the APU Generator
Closes the APU bleed valve
Closes the X bleed valve
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59
Q

What warnings are NOT inhibited with the TO INHIBIT displayed?

A

A - APU fire

E - Engine fire
E - Eng failure
L - L+R Elev FAULT

F- FWC 1+2 FAULT
A - A/P OFF
C - CONFIG
E - Engine oil low press

60
Q

When is the WX/TURB mode avail?

A

Range of 40 nm or less

61
Q

What the systems downstream of the hydraulic priority valve for the YELLOW system?

A

Flaps

62
Q

What is the thrust limiation with p. brake on

A

1.15 EPR

63
Q

What is the thrust of the V2533?

A

32,500

64
Q

When would you be in ALT LAW?

A 
T - THS Jam
R - Multi Redundant system failures
A - Dual ADR (or IR) failure (OEB 48)
S - Sidestick failure
H - Dual Hydraulic Failure
65
Q

What is the thrust of the V2527?

A

27,000

66
Q

When does the engine bleed valves close?

A 
A - APU Bleed ON
S – Start valved ON
O – Overpressure 
L – Bleed Leak
O– Overheat
67
Q

What would be the normal FMA ind during TO roll using TOGA on RWY without LOC?

A

MAN TOGA, SRS, A/THR (blue)

68
Q

What the systems downstream of the hydraulic priority valve for the BLUE system?

A

Emergency Generator

Slats

69
Q

What would be the normal FMA ind during TO roll using FLEX on RWY with LOC?

A

MAN FLX, SRS, RWY, A/THR (blue)

70
Q

With the EWD on the lower screen, how do you get the SD info?

A

Press and hold the system buttons

Displayed for 30 seconds

71
Q

What happens if 280kts and select gear down?

A

Safety valve inhibits hydraulics until 260 kts

72
Q

What indication does the EWD provide for secondary failures?

A

*

73
Q

What width is a narrow runway?

A

98ft

74
Q

What does the boxed STS indicate on the EWD?

A

The STATUS page holds messages other than Canceled cautions

Flashes after engine shutdown to alert mx of other messages

75
Q

If the FCU fails, what mode and dis range should be expected on the ND?

A

ROSE NAV and 80 nm

76
Q

TOD and Continue Des arrow are displayed in blue and white, difference?

A

TOD - White (never armed)
Continue Descent - Blue = FINAL APP engagement, where final descent will begin automatically
White=FINAL APP will not engage

77
Q

What happens when you press EXP?

A

Climbs at Green Dot

Descends at 340kts (M.80)

78
Q

LO and MED ABRAKES decel rates

A

LOW:
4 seconds at 5.6ft/s/s

MED:
2 seconds at 9.8ft/s/s

79
Q

What are the FAC Functions?

A

Y - Yaw control (damping, turn coordination, rudder limiter, and rudder trim)
A - Airspeed protection computation
(Alpha prot. High/Low limits, maneuver speed low speed limits PFD speed scale)
W - windshear protection
L - Low energy warning protection (speed, speed, speed)

80
Q

What is the thrust of the V2524?

A

23,500

81
Q

When is Alpha Floor inhibited?

A 
100.6 - < 100 feet on approach / > M .6 (647-on, NEO, 321s)
N - Non-Normal Law
E - EIU (engine interface unit) fails
E - Engine-out and slats/flaps ext
D - N1 degraded mode

F - FAC and opposite SFCC fails
F - Both FCU failure
F - Both FMGCs fail

82
Q

When are the Wing Tip Brakes engaged?

A

R - Runaway
O - Overspeed
A - Asymmetry
M – Movement (un-commanded)

83
Q

When will the FADEC abort an auto start?

A

Hot Start
Stalled Start
No IGN

84
Q

What information comes from ADR computers?

A 
B - Baro Altitude
O - Overspeed
A - Angle of Attack 
T - Temperature
S - Speed/ Mach
85
Q

What does a FAULT on the ENG panel mean

A

Auto start ABORT

HP valve disagreement

86
Q

What is the thrust of the PW1100?

A

27,000

87
Q

Autobrakes LOW Decel rate

A

5.6 ft/s^2

88
Q

When is RA TRK engaged?

A

30 feet after TO, it maintains your track vector on climb out

89
Q

If there are any auto functions of the DMCs in the event of a failure, explain the auto logic

A

DMC 1 fails (or DMC 3 selected), DMC 2 drives the ECAM

90
Q

What are the 6 steps for the obstacle driftdown?

A
  1. MCT
  2. A/THR OFF
  3. Notify ATC
  4. Decel to Green Dot
  5. Cruise FL
  6. ECAM actions
91
Q

ELAC Functions

A 
N - Normal Elevator, aileron, pitch and roll
A - Alternate Pitch
D - Direct pitch and roll
A - Abnormal attitude
A - Aileron Droop
A - Autopilot Orders
92
Q

If during start, the ground crew reports a fuel leak…

A

CEO:
Run for 5 minutes, if stops…GO

NEO:
Abort

93
Q

What are the limitations with a narrow runway?

A

May not:
inop NWS
inop one or more brakes

No Autoland

94
Q

On the grnd, how can the A/THR be armed?

A

TOGA or FLEX

At least one FD ON

95
Q

If icing conditions exist on ground, what is the run-up procedure for CEO and NEO?

A

CEO:
15 mins 50%

NEO:
30 mins 60%

96
Q

The gnd spoilers retract:

A

When thrust set to idle after landing
When ONE lever above idle
After a rejected TO, when grnd spoilers DISARMED
Touch and GO, when one lever is advanced > 20 degrees

97
Q

Explain what would happen if a pilot were to reach down and move the trim wheel in NORMAL LAW?

A

Can be turned manually

AP disconnects

98
Q

What are the indic on the DU if a DMC has failed?

A

INVALID DATA

99
Q

What information comes from the IR computers?

A 
F - Flight path vector  
A - Aircraft position 
T - Track 
H - Heading 
A - Attitude 
A - Acceleration 
G - Ground Speed
100
Q

What are the available approach strategies?

A

APP NAV - RNAV, VOR
FPA - LOC
Selected-Selected - Like FPA but selecting TRK

101
Q

What is Alpha Lock?

A

inhibits flaps/slats from 1 to 0 at high AoA and low AS

102
Q

What are the four sensors for the ADRs?

A 
Pitot probes (3)
Static Pressure Probes (6)
AoA sensors (3)
TAT probes (2)
103
Q

What capabilities does the RADAR sys have?

A

Weather Avoidance
Turb detection
Terr Mapping
PWS

104
Q

What does the Hydraulic Engine pump FAULT indicate?

A

P - Pump low pressure
O - Overheated Reservoir
L - Low reservoir quantity
L - Low reservoir air pressure

105
Q

What does the Hydraulic Electric pump FAULT indicate?

A 
P - Pump low pressure
O - Overheated Reservoir
L - Low reservoir quantity
L - Low reservoir air pressure 
O - Overheated pump
106
Q

When would perform a full alignment on the ADIRS and how long does it take?

A

First flight of day
Change of Flight Crew
GPS not available
except poor NAVAIR coverage

10 minutes

107
Q

When are Speed Brakes inhibited?

A 
S - SEC 1 and Sec 3 Failure
A - Alpha Prot or Alpha Floor
F - Flaps in configuration FULL (and configuration 3 for A321) 
E - failure of one Elevator
T - TOGA on thrust levers
108
Q

What types of failures are presented to the crew?

A

Independent - does not affect other systems
Primary
Secondary

109
Q

What are the crosswind limitations for narrow runways?

A

Wet …33 knots (gusts included)
Contaminated … 10 knots (gusts included)
Icy … not demonstrated

110
Q

What redundancy doest he FADEC have?

A

Dual channels

111
Q

When does the cont ign op?

A 
Flameout detected
EIU fails
Surge
Master cycled
Eng anti-ice
App idle
MAX/FLEX power
112
Q

Pros of landing flaps 3

A 
Better:
Handling in strong crosswinds
Windshear escape performance
GA performance (19and 21)
Faster Vapp
Economical
Noise Reduction
Emissions Reduction
113
Q

What does the Hydraulic PTU pump FAULT indicate?

A

O - Overheated Reservoir
L - Low reservoir quantity
L - Low reservoir air pressure

114
Q

When does the TO memo appear and disappear?

A

2 minutes after 2nd engine start

Removed after TO power

115
Q

Colors of flight plans?

A 
Active - cont green
Secondary - con white
Missed - con blue
Temp - dash yellow
Alt - dashed blue
116
Q

When do you select TOGA during a TO?

A 
Contaminated Runway
Windshear Warning
\+/- 10 degrees of Ambient
Per Dispatch
Per SID (required climb rate)
117
Q

What would the FMA indicate during TO if the A/THR didn’t ARM and the runway has a LOC?

A

SRS, RWY

Continue TO and manually turn on A/THR at TRA

118
Q

What does the Pack FAULT indicate?

A

P - Pack outlet overheat
C - Compressor outlet overheat
S - Switch position disagreement with pack flow control valve

119
Q

***The ailerons are fully-extended, provided one aileron servo is available on each side when:

A 
grnd spoilers fully ext
Flaps > 0 
Pitch > 2.5 degrees
Flying manually
Normal Law
120
Q

When selectingthe flap lever to 1 after the flaps have been at CONF 2 or >, what setting will the flaps/slats go to?

A

CONF 1+F

Max of 215kts, but auto retract at 210 knts

121
Q

What are the TO CONF warnings?

A 
Slats and flaps not in TO Range
Pitched trim not in TO range, rud trim more than 3.5
Speed breaks not retracted
Side stick FAULT
Hot brakes
Door not closed
P. Brake on
Flex temp not set
122
Q

When will the grnd spoilers auto retract?

A

IDLE and speed brake lever down

When at leaset 1 lever above IDLE

123
Q

What happens at Alpha Prot?

A

A - AOA is commanded instead of load factor
S - Speed brake retracted
A - Autopilot disengages
P - Pitch trim up is inhibited.

124
Q

Autobrakes MED Decel rate

A

9.8 ft/s^2

125
Q

What is the scanned area of the predictive ws feature?

A

up to 5nm when below 1500 AGL

126
Q

When is altitude alerting automatically inhibited in flight?

A

When slats are extended with landing gear down

On approach after glide slop capture

127
Q

When is the side stick position indicator displayed?

A

After 1st engine start

Disappears after TO

128
Q

What are some causes for an AUTOLAND light?

A

Excessive LOC or GS deviation
Signal failure
RA differ by 15 ft
Both AP fail

129
Q

What happens when the AP flys into a DISCON?

A

NAV mode becomes HDG/TRK mode

130
Q

What happens when FLEX TEMP not entered?

A

A warning will be generated

Move to TOGA

131
Q

If an amber OFF SIDE FM CONTROL message is displayed on the ND what action would you take?

A

An FMGS has failed and both NDs must be set to the same mode and range. Procedure in the COM.

132
Q

What is the normal mode of the FMGS?

A

Dual mode with one master and one slave

133
Q

What does Activating the Appr do?

A 
Allow thrust and speed target follow the flap schedule
Green Dot
S Speed
F Speed
F Speed
Vapp

GSmini is avail when managed speed

134
Q

What are the 3 modes of the FMGC

A

Indep
Single
Dual

135
Q

What are the functions of the FMGC?

A

Flight Guidance

Flight Management

136
Q

What the components of the FMGS?

A

FMGC
MCDUs
FCU
FACs

137
Q

What 2 conditions would cause an external horn?

A

ADRIUs on Battery Power

Avionics BLOWER or EXTRACT FAULT

138
Q

When should you consider a manual start?

A 
Degraded bleed performance (hot or high AP)
Marginal performance of the ext or APU air
Tailwind >10kts
After aborting because of:
Engine stall
EGT overtemp
N1 rotation
Hung Start
IGN A/B Fault
139
Q

When will the start valve auto close?

A

43% CEO

55% NEO

140
Q

What happens when the ENG MAN START pb is pressed?

A

Start Valve opens
Packs Close
FADEC power supply continues for 5 minutes
(NEO FADEC power is cut off)

141
Q

How long will the auto start dry crank the engine?

A

CEO: 30 seconds
NEO: 2 minutes

142
Q

What does the DISCH light mean?

A

Halon has been discharged by either pilot or by a FAULT

143
Q

What do the priority valves on the hyd do?

A

Removes power from the heavy users to protect the flight controls

144
Q

What can be done for LOW ACCUM pressure?

A

Inform mx
Turn BEACON ON
engage Yellow hyd pump

145
Q

How is the BATT BUS normally powered?

A

DC BUS 1 through DC tie connector

146
Q

How is bleed leak dection differ on the NEO

A

If BMC fails on the NEO, overtemp protection is lost on that side.

A320 (33 decks)

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