Oral REview Flashcards
1
Q
When is the energy warning inhibited?
A
F - Flaps 1 or 0 A - Alpha Floor T - TOGA G - GPWS alert R - Dual RA failure A - Altitude above 2000’ RA and below 100’ RA N - Normal law not active
2
Q
Function of the FADEC
A
S - Start sequencing
E - Engine limits based on TLA
M - Metering
I - Indications
3
Q
When are PWS alerts inhibited?
A
On ground
above 100 knots
Above 50 AGL
4
Q
What is available in the cockpit during Emer Electrical Configuration?
A
RMP 1
5
Q
What are the 8 phases of flights for the MCDU and when does it transition?
A
Preflight - engine start
Takeoff - TO power
Climb - Accel Alt
Cruise - TOC
Descent - descent within 200nm from destination
Approach - when APPR armed or decel point
GA - TOGA
Done - on ground for 30 seconds, engines shutdown
6
Q
How long does the Battery last on ADRIU 1?
A
40-45 minutes
7
Q
If during engine start with p. brake on, the ac starts to move, what are the actions?
A
Release the P. Brake handle to restore norm braking with pedals
8
Q
When does autoskid stop?
A
20 knots
9
Q
If on the alt braking sys, what is required in order to maintain Anti-Skid?
A
1 channel of the BSCU
10
Q
If simul failures occur, how will they be presented to the crew?
A
Level 3 warning first
Level 2, then Level 1
11
Q
When does the AC leave A. FLOOR and what does the FMA change to?
A
Reaching lower AoA
TOGA LK
12
Q
When does the Landing memo appear and disappear?
A
<2000 agl
GA if not above 2200 =>appears <800 during appr
Disappears at 80 kts
13
Q
When does the FADEC command a higher engine idle?
A
Bleed demands
App Config
High Engine or IDG temps
14
Q
If LGCIU 1 fails, will the lights still work?
A
Yes, as long as it is still powered
15
Q
What will cause a Fire Warning?
A
Both loops A and B send fire signal
One loop sends signal and other has failed
Breaks occur in both loops within 5 s of each other
Test performed
16
Q
If the STS pb is pressed with no Status, what is displayed?
A
NORMAL
for 5 seconds
17
Q
When would you perform quick alignment of the ADIRS and how long does it take?
A
If the FMGC position is >5nm off
30 seconds
18
Q
Max NW/S with tiller
A
75 degrees of cntr
19
Q
How would the A/THR be disconnected for the remainder of the flight
A
Press and hold the A/THR disc for 15 seconds.
You lost A. FLOOR.
Can not restore
20
Q
How can the crew verify the parking brake is set
A
ECAM PARKING BRK
Triple indicator
21
Q
When to abort an AUTO start?
A
L - Loss of upper and/or lower screen
E - Loss of Electrical power
E - ECAM mesage
T - Tailpipe fire
22
Q
What would prevent the wx display on the ND?
A
Mode selector in PLAN
TERR ON
23
Q
What is the function of the 2 LGCIUs?
A
O - Operation
S - Sequencing
I - Indications for LD GR
M - Monitoring
S - Signals On ground or In flight
24
Q
When will the auto retration system op?
A
CONF 1+F
210 knts
auto retract to 0
25
In order to reduce the bounce severity at landing in the case of an inappropriate thrust lever handling during flare, ground spoilers are also partially deployed, when...
Ground spoilers armed
Both mains on grd
both levers at or below CLB
26
What effect does setting the p. brake have on other braking modes?
All other braking modes deactivated and anti-skid is deactivated
27
When does auto pitch trim freeze?
Manual pitch trim order from pilot
<50ft
load factor <0.5
High Speed Protection
28
What does illumination of the ATC fail indicate?
Only the selected transponder has failed
29
What is the signif of selecting the NAV key on the RMP?
The FMGS cannot auto-tune
RMP controls VOR/ILS
NAV key on RMP has no effect
Normal radio comm is avail
30
When useing the rudder pedals for steering, when does the steering angle begin to reduce?
Reduces at 40kts until 0 at 140kts
31
Can you takeoff with HOT brakes?
Yes, IF ECAM during TO roll at pilot's discretion.
| Delay retraction until cooled.
32
What the systems downstream of the hydraulic priority valve for the GREEN system?
Landing Gear
| Slats AND Flaps
33
Info from ILS 1 is displayed where?
CA PFD
| FO ND
34
What happens when you press the FIRE pb?
```
8 items
Silences the aural fire warning
Arms the squibs
Closes the hydraulic fire shut off valve
Closes the low pressure fuel valve
Deactivates the IDG
Closes the pack flow control valve
Closes the engine bleed valve
Cuts off FADEC power supply
```
35
When will grnd spoilers ALWAYS deploy?
At least 1 lever to IDLE REV
36
How is appr idle different on the NEO?
CEO:
Flaps extended
NEO:
CONF 3 or FULL when LDG GR down
37
What happens with the A/skid and N/W STRG is switched OFF?
Loss of NWS
Braking on the YELLOW
A/SKID deactivated
38
When is A. FLOOR protection active
T.O. until 100 AGL on landing
39
What shoudl the pilot do to get out of THRUST LOCK?
Match the TLA with ENG output
40
When would you be in DIRECT LAW?
3 - Triple IR failure
2 - Dual RA failure
1 - L/G down in ALT
41
What happens when you disengage the A/THR with the pb?
Thrust lock, and single chime every 5 seconds
42
ENG Start FAULT light
H - HP fuel valve disagreement
A - Auto start abort
S - Start valve fault
43
What is the power source of the FADEC?
Alternator >10%
| If ALT fails - AC elec power
44
When does the blue pump start?
After first engine start
45
When is a STATUS page displayed?
After failure on SD and all items cleared
| Reappear when slats extended
46
What would occur if one SFCC failed?
Slats and Flaps half speed
47
What does the cooling indication mean on the E/WD for NEO?
Steady:
Auto dry cranking about to begin and timer indicates the time left until begins
Pulsing:
Auto dry crank in progress
48
What would occur if the A/skid & NW/S switch were selected OFF?
NW/S lost
Anti-skid deactived
YELLOW supplies brakes
49
Pros of landing FULL flaps
```
Reduced landing distance
Reduced Tailstrike risk
Better GA performance (20 only)
Faster Decel to Vapp
Slower Vapp
Easier on tire
```
50
If no hyd power is avail, what is the impact on the THS?
Requires GRN or YELLOW to function!
51
What are the Normal Law Protections?
B - Bank angle protection (=)
P - Pitch angle protection (=)
L - Load factor protection
A - Angle of attack protection (Alpha prot) S - Speed protection (=)
52
When is windshear detection functional?
1300 - 50 AGL (TO and landing)
| CONF 1 or greater
53
What 3 things occur when the manual gear extension handle is turned?
1. GREEN press removed
2. Gear doors opened
3. Uplocks released
54
What would cause a ADIRU fault?
Measure - inputted position error
Movement - off and on over 1 degree Lat or Long
Minute - 1 min left and still no position
Motion - AC moved during alignment
55
What should the pilot do to get out of TOGA LK?
Push the disconnect A/THR pbs and move the lever to the CL detent
56
Flashing amber ILS on PFD means...
APPR mode armed, and ILS pb not selected
57
When does continuous ignition automatically operate?
```
Flameout detection
Failure of EIU
Sun-idle or surge
Master switch cycled
Anti-ice on
Approach Idle
Max/FLEX power
```
58
What happens when you press the APU Fire pb?
```
8 items
Shuts down the APU
Silences the aural warning
Arms the squib
Closes the low-press fuel valve
Shuts off the APU fuel pump
Deactivates the APU Generator
Closes the APU bleed valve
Closes the X bleed valve
```
59
What warnings are NOT inhibited with the TO INHIBIT displayed?
A - APU fire
E - Engine fire
E - Eng failure
L - L+R Elev FAULT
F- FWC 1+2 FAULT
A - A/P OFF
C - CONFIG
E - Engine oil low press
60
When is the WX/TURB mode avail?
Range of 40 nm or less
61
What the systems downstream of the hydraulic priority valve for the YELLOW system?
Flaps
62
What is the thrust limiation with p. brake on
1.15 EPR
63
What is the thrust of the V2533?
32,500
64
When would you be in ALT LAW?
```
T - THS Jam
R - Multi Redundant system failures
A - Dual ADR (or IR) failure (OEB 48)
S - Sidestick failure
H - Dual Hydraulic Failure
```
65
What is the thrust of the V2527?
27,000
66
When does the engine bleed valves close?
```
A - APU Bleed ON
S – Start valved ON
O – Overpressure
L – Bleed Leak
O– Overheat
```
67
What would be the normal FMA ind during TO roll using TOGA on RWY without LOC?
MAN TOGA, SRS, A/THR (blue)
68
What the systems downstream of the hydraulic priority valve for the BLUE system?
Emergency Generator
| Slats
69
What would be the normal FMA ind during TO roll using FLEX on RWY with LOC?
MAN FLX, SRS, RWY, A/THR (blue)
70
With the EWD on the lower screen, how do you get the SD info?
Press and hold the system buttons
| Displayed for 30 seconds
71
What happens if 280kts and select gear down?
Safety valve inhibits hydraulics until 260 kts
72
What indication does the EWD provide for secondary failures?
*
73
What width is a narrow runway?
98ft
74
What does the boxed STS indicate on the EWD?
The STATUS page holds messages other than Canceled cautions
| Flashes after engine shutdown to alert mx of other messages
75
If the FCU fails, what mode and dis range should be expected on the ND?
ROSE NAV and 80 nm
76
TOD and Continue Des arrow are displayed in blue and white, difference?
TOD - White (never armed)
Continue Descent - Blue = FINAL APP engagement, where final descent will begin automatically
White=FINAL APP will not engage
77
What happens when you press EXP?
Climbs at Green Dot
| Descends at 340kts (M.80)
78
LO and MED ABRAKES decel rates
LOW:
4 seconds at 5.6ft/s/s
MED:
2 seconds at 9.8ft/s/s
79
What are the FAC Functions?
Y - Yaw control (damping, turn coordination, rudder limiter, and rudder trim)
A - Airspeed protection computation
(Alpha prot. High/Low limits, maneuver speed low speed limits PFD speed scale)
W - windshear protection
L - Low energy warning protection (speed, speed, speed)
80
What is the thrust of the V2524?
23,500
81
When is Alpha Floor inhibited?
```
100.6 - < 100 feet on approach / > M .6 (647-on, NEO, 321s)
N - Non-Normal Law
E - EIU (engine interface unit) fails
E - Engine-out and slats/flaps ext
D - N1 degraded mode
```
F - FAC and opposite SFCC fails
F - Both FCU failure
F - Both FMGCs fail
82
When are the Wing Tip Brakes engaged?
R - Runaway
O - Overspeed
A - Asymmetry
M – Movement (un-commanded)
83
When will the FADEC abort an auto start?
Hot Start
Stalled Start
No IGN
84
What information comes from ADR computers?
```
B - Baro Altitude
O - Overspeed
A - Angle of Attack
T - Temperature
S - Speed/ Mach
```
85
What does a FAULT on the ENG panel mean
Auto start ABORT
| HP valve disagreement
86
What is the thrust of the PW1100?
27,000
87
Autobrakes LOW Decel rate
5.6 ft/s^2
88
When is RA TRK engaged?
30 feet after TO, it maintains your track vector on climb out
89
If there are any auto functions of the DMCs in the event of a failure, explain the auto logic
DMC 1 fails (or DMC 3 selected), DMC 2 drives the ECAM
90
What are the 6 steps for the obstacle driftdown?
1. MCT
2. A/THR OFF
3. Notify ATC
4. Decel to Green Dot
5. Cruise FL
6. ECAM actions
91
ELAC Functions
```
N - Normal Elevator, aileron, pitch and roll
A - Alternate Pitch
D - Direct pitch and roll
A - Abnormal attitude
A - Aileron Droop
A - Autopilot Orders
```
92
If during start, the ground crew reports a fuel leak...
CEO:
Run for 5 minutes, if stops...GO
NEO:
Abort
93
What are the limitations with a narrow runway?
May not:
inop NWS
inop one or more brakes
No Autoland
94
On the grnd, how can the A/THR be armed?
TOGA or FLEX
| At least one FD ON
95
If icing conditions exist on ground, what is the run-up procedure for CEO and NEO?
CEO:
15 mins 50%
NEO:
30 mins 60%
96
The gnd spoilers retract:
When thrust set to idle after landing
When ONE lever above idle
After a rejected TO, when grnd spoilers DISARMED
Touch and GO, when one lever is advanced > 20 degrees
97
Explain what would happen if a pilot were to reach down and move the trim wheel in NORMAL LAW?
Can be turned manually
| AP disconnects
98
What are the indic on the DU if a DMC has failed?
INVALID DATA
99
What information comes from the IR computers?
```
F - Flight path vector
A - Aircraft position
T - Track
H - Heading
A - Attitude
A - Acceleration
G - Ground Speed
```
100
What are the available approach strategies?
APP NAV - RNAV, VOR
FPA - LOC
Selected-Selected - Like FPA but selecting TRK
101
What is Alpha Lock?
inhibits flaps/slats from 1 to 0 at high AoA and low AS
102
What are the four sensors for the ADRs?
```
Pitot probes (3)
Static Pressure Probes (6)
AoA sensors (3)
TAT probes (2)
```
103
What capabilities does the RADAR sys have?
Weather Avoidance
Turb detection
Terr Mapping
PWS
104
What does the Hydraulic Engine pump FAULT indicate?
P - Pump low pressure
O - Overheated Reservoir
L - Low reservoir quantity
L - Low reservoir air pressure
105
What does the Hydraulic Electric pump FAULT indicate?
```
P - Pump low pressure
O - Overheated Reservoir
L - Low reservoir quantity
L - Low reservoir air pressure
O - Overheated pump
```
106
When would perform a full alignment on the ADIRS and how long does it take?
First flight of day
Change of Flight Crew
GPS not available
except poor NAVAIR coverage
10 minutes
107
When are Speed Brakes inhibited?
```
S - SEC 1 and Sec 3 Failure
A - Alpha Prot or Alpha Floor
F - Flaps in configuration FULL (and configuration 3 for A321)
E - failure of one Elevator
T - TOGA on thrust levers
```
108
What types of failures are presented to the crew?
Independent - does not affect other systems
Primary
Secondary
109
What are the crosswind limitations for narrow runways?
Wet ...33 knots (gusts included)
Contaminated ... 10 knots (gusts included)
Icy ... not demonstrated
110
What redundancy doest he FADEC have?
Dual channels
111
When does the cont ign op?
```
Flameout detected
EIU fails
Surge
Master cycled
Eng anti-ice
App idle
MAX/FLEX power
```
112
Pros of landing flaps 3
```
Better:
Handling in strong crosswinds
Windshear escape performance
GA performance (19and 21)
Faster Vapp
Economical
Noise Reduction
Emissions Reduction
```
113
What does the Hydraulic PTU pump FAULT indicate?
O - Overheated Reservoir
L - Low reservoir quantity
L - Low reservoir air pressure
114
When does the TO memo appear and disappear?
2 minutes after 2nd engine start
| Removed after TO power
115
Colors of flight plans?
```
Active - cont green
Secondary - con white
Missed - con blue
Temp - dash yellow
Alt - dashed blue
```
116
When do you select TOGA during a TO?
```
Contaminated Runway
Windshear Warning
+/- 10 degrees of Ambient
Per Dispatch
Per SID (required climb rate)
```
117
What would the FMA indicate during TO if the A/THR didn't ARM and the runway has a LOC?
SRS, RWY
| Continue TO and manually turn on A/THR at TRA
118
What does the Pack FAULT indicate?
P - Pack outlet overheat
C - Compressor outlet overheat
S - Switch position disagreement with pack flow control valve
119
***The ailerons are fully-extended, provided one aileron servo is available on each side when:
```
grnd spoilers fully ext
Flaps > 0
Pitch > 2.5 degrees
Flying manually
Normal Law
```
120
When selectingthe flap lever to 1 after the flaps have been at CONF 2 or >, what setting will the flaps/slats go to?
CONF 1+F
| Max of 215kts, but auto retract at 210 knts
121
What are the TO CONF warnings?
```
Slats and flaps not in TO Range
Pitched trim not in TO range, rud trim more than 3.5
Speed breaks not retracted
Side stick FAULT
Hot brakes
Door not closed
P. Brake on
Flex temp not set
```
122
When will the grnd spoilers auto retract?
IDLE and speed brake lever down
| When at leaset 1 lever above IDLE
123
What happens at Alpha Prot?
A - AOA is commanded instead of load factor
S - Speed brake retracted
A - Autopilot disengages
P - Pitch trim up is inhibited.
124
Autobrakes MED Decel rate
9.8 ft/s^2
125
What is the scanned area of the predictive ws feature?
up to 5nm when below 1500 AGL
126
When is altitude alerting automatically inhibited in flight?
When slats are extended with landing gear down
| On approach after glide slop capture
127
When is the side stick position indicator displayed?
After 1st engine start
| Disappears after TO
128
What are some causes for an AUTOLAND light?
Excessive LOC or GS deviation
Signal failure
RA differ by 15 ft
Both AP fail
129
What happens when the AP flys into a DISCON?
NAV mode becomes HDG/TRK mode
130
What happens when FLEX TEMP not entered?
A warning will be generated
| Move to TOGA
131
If an amber OFF SIDE FM CONTROL message is displayed on the ND what action would you take?
An FMGS has failed and both NDs must be set to the same mode and range. Procedure in the COM.
132
What is the normal mode of the FMGS?
Dual mode with one master and one slave
133
What does Activating the Appr do?
```
Allow thrust and speed target follow the flap schedule
Green Dot
S Speed
F Speed
F Speed
Vapp
```
GSmini is avail when managed speed
134
What are the 3 modes of the FMGC
Indep
Single
Dual
135
What are the functions of the FMGC?
Flight Guidance
| Flight Management
136
What the components of the FMGS?
FMGC
MCDUs
FCU
FACs
137
What 2 conditions would cause an external horn?
ADRIUs on Battery Power
| Avionics BLOWER or EXTRACT FAULT
138
When should you consider a manual start?
```
Degraded bleed performance (hot or high AP)
Marginal performance of the ext or APU air
Tailwind >10kts
After aborting because of:
Engine stall
EGT overtemp
N1 rotation
Hung Start
IGN A/B Fault
```
139
When will the start valve auto close?
43% CEO
| 55% NEO
140
What happens when the ENG MAN START pb is pressed?
Start Valve opens
Packs Close
FADEC power supply continues for 5 minutes
(NEO FADEC power is cut off)
141
How long will the auto start dry crank the engine?
CEO: 30 seconds
NEO: 2 minutes
142
What does the DISCH light mean?
Halon has been discharged by either pilot or by a FAULT
143
What do the priority valves on the hyd do?
Removes power from the heavy users to protect the flight controls
144
What can be done for LOW ACCUM pressure?
Inform mx
Turn BEACON ON
engage Yellow hyd pump
145
How is the BATT BUS normally powered?
DC BUS 1 through DC tie connector
146
How is bleed leak dection differ on the NEO
If BMC fails on the NEO, overtemp protection is lost on that side.
