Oral Questions

Question 1

When is an ELT NOT required?

Answer 1

• Aircraft engaged in scheduled flights by scheduled air carriers
• Aircraft engaged in training operations conducted entirely within a
  50 nautical mile radius of the airport from which the flight began.
• Flights engaged in aerial application of chemicals and other
  substances for agricultural purposes
• Airplanes equipped to carry not more than one person.

Question 2

What is LAHSO?

Answer 2

• Land and hold short operations. This operation means that aircraft
  and landing and holding short of intersecting runways or some
  other designated point on the runway.
• Helps at airports with increased capacity and system efficiency that
  is consistent with safety.
• ATC may clear a pilot to land and hold short. The pilot may accept
  only if the PIC determines that the aircraft can land and stop within
  the Available Landing Distance (ALD).
• The PIC has the final authority to accept or decline any LAHSO

Question 3

Can objects be dropped from the aircraft?

Answer 3

• No object can be dropped out of the airplane if the operator of the
  aircraft feels it creates a hazard to persons or property.
• Objects can be dropped if reasonable precautions are taken to
  avoid injury or damage to persons or property.

Question 4

What is the supplemental oxygen requirements?

Answer 4

• At cabin pressures above 12,500 feet (MSL) up to and including
  14,000 if the crewmember has been at these altitudes for longer
  than 30 minutes.
• Above 14,000 feet up to and including 15,000 feet, the required
  minimum flight crew is provided oxygen and must use for the
  entire time they are at these altitudes.
• At cabin pressures above 15,000 feet each occupant of the aircraft
  is provided supplemental oxygen.

Question 5

What portable electronic devices can be used in an aircraft?

Answer 5

• Portable voice recorders
• Hearing aids
• Heart pacemakers
• Electric shavers
• Or any portable devices the PIC has determined will not cause
  interference with the navigational of communication system.

Question 6

What are the Special VFR Weather Minimums?

Answer 6

• With an ATC clearance
• Clear of clouds
• Flight visibility is at least 1 statute mile

Question 7

What are the fuel requirements for flight in VFR conditions?

Answer 7

• Fly to the first point of intended landing and at normal cruise.
• During the day, to fly after that for at least 30 minutes
• At night, to fly after that for at lease 45 minutes.

Question 8

What are the minimum safe altitudes?

Answer 8

• Over congested areas – city, town, or settlement, open air assembly
  of persons, an altitude 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle and
  within a horizontal radius of 2,000 feet.
• Over other than congested areas – 500 feet above the surface,
  except over open water or sparely populated areas. May not
  operate closer than 500 feet to any person, vessel, vehicle, or
  structure.

Question 9

Define the term substantial damage?

Answer 9

Damage or failure which adversely affects the performance or
flight characteristics of the aircraft, structural strength and which
requires major repair or replacement of the affected component.

Question 10

What is the NTSB definition of a serious injury?

Answer 10

• Requires hospitalization for more than 48 hours, commencing from
  7 days from the date the injury was received.
• Fracture of any bone (except simple fractures of fingers, toes or
  nose)
• Injury causes severe hemorrhages (severe bleeding), nerve, muscle
  or tendon damage
• Involves any internal organ
• Involves second or third-degree burns affecting more than 5% of
  the body surface.

Question 11

When is the immediate notification of the NTSB required?

Answer 11

• Flight control system malfunction.
• Crewmember unable to perform normal duties.
• Turbine engine failure of structural components.
• In-flight fire.
• Aircraft collision-in-flight
• Property damage, other than the aircraft, estimated to exceed
  $25,000
• Overdue aircraft (believed to be in an accident)
• Release of all or a portion of a propeller blade from an
  aircraft.
• Complete loss of information (excluding flickering) from
  more than 50 percent of an aircraft’s EFIS cockpit displays.

Question 12

What is an aircraft incident?

Answer 12

An occurrence other than an accident, associated with the
operation of the aircraft, which affects or could affect the
SAFETY of operations.

Question 13

Define an aircraft accident.

Answer 13

An aircraft accident means an occurrence associated with the
operation of an aircraft which takes place between the time any
person boards the aircraft with the intention of flight and all
such persons have disembarked, and which any person suffers
death or serious injury, or in which the aircraft receives
substantial damage.

Question 14

What is Class G airspace? Visibility Requirements?

Answer 14

• This is uncontrolled airspace and goes from the surface up any
  other airspace above it.
• Day: 1 miles, clear of clouds.
• Night: 3 statute miles, 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below and
  2,000 feet horizontal (3- 152’s)

Question 15

What is the difference between a Normal and Utility
Category?

Answer 15

Normal category – The aircraft structure can withstand a load
factor of 3.8 Gs without structural failure.

Utility category – The aircraft structure must be able to withstand
a load factor of 4.4 Gs.

Question 16

What are Special Flight Permits and when would you use
them?

Answer 16

Authorization that is issued for an aircraft that does not meet
airworthiness certification, but is safe to fly.

◦ Flying an airplane to a base when it needs repair, alteration or
maintenance.

◦ Delivering or exporting an airplane.

◦ Production flight testing

◦ Evacuating aircraft from impending danger

◦ Conducting customer demonstration flights

◦ Operation of an overweight airplane for flight beyond normal
range over water or land areas where adequate landing
facilities or fuel is not available.

Question 17

What is a Minimum Equipment List (MEL)

Answer 17

It is a list of instruments, equipment and procedures that allow the
aircraft to be operated with inoperative equipment. It is a specific
inoperative equipment document for a particular make and model
of airplane. An FAA-approved MEL will list which items of
equipment the administrator has deemed can be broken and the
flight can be made with an acceptable level of safety. The MEL can
be obtained from the local FSDO. The MEL tells a pilot what
instruments that can be INOP and the flight can be made safely.

Question 18

What are the requirements to remain current as a
Commercial Pilot?

Answer 18

A flight review within the previous 24 calendar months

Question 19

What class of medical certificate is required for Commercial
Pilots?

Answer 19

A second class medical certificate is required to exercise
commercial pilot privileges

Question 20

What are the ways in which a Aircraft Registration can be nullified?

Answer 20

30 – 30 days after death
F – Foreign registry (change the registry to another country)
T- transfer of ownership
D – Destroyed
U – U.S. citizenship revoked
C - Cancelled

Question 21

What is the difference between a 100-hour and an Annual?

Answer 21

Annual Inspection must be done within 12 calendar months

A 100-hour inspection must be done if carrying any person (other
than a crew member) or giving flight instruction for hire.

If carrying any person for hire there must be a 100- hour
inspection plus an annual inspection. If not for hire only an
annual is required.

Question 22

Who is responsible for ensuring the AD’s are complied with?

Answer 22

The aircraft owner or operator

A record must be maintained showing the status of the AD for the
aircraft.

The record must show method of compliance, signature and
certificate number of the mechanic or repair station who performed
the work.

Question 23

First class medical

Answer 23

Good for 12 calendar months if under 40

Good for 6 calendar months if over 40

Required if your are an active ATP

Distant acuity of 20/20 each eye and near vision 20/40, with
or without corrective lenses. If corrective lenses (spectacles
or contact lenses) are necessary for 20/20 vision.

Distinguishes aviation red, green and white

Normal field of vision

Normal field of hearing

Question 24

Second class medical

Answer 24

Required for you to utilize commercial pilot privileges

▪ CFI’s are not required to have a commercial rating as
they are considered teachers for hire.

Good for 12 calendar months

Distant acuity of 20/20 each eye and near vision 20/40, with
or without corrective lenses. If corrective lenses (spectacles
or contact lenses) are necessary for 20/20 vision

Distinguishes aviation red, green and white

Normal field of vision

Question 25

Third Class medical

Answer 25

Good for 60 calendar months if less than 40

Good for 24 calendar months if 40 or greater

What every private pilot must at least hold

Distant acuity of 20/40 each eye, with or without corrective
lenses, and near vision 20/40

Distinguishes aviation red, green and white

Normal field of vision

Question 26

Can a pilot take medications and still fly?

Answer 26

Yes, as long as the medications are on the FAA’s Safe to Use
Medication List and they will need to be reported at the next
Medical Certificate appointment or to your physician (every 4
years) if using Basic Med.

Question 27

Can the pilot take over the counter medications?

Answer 27

If the OTC medication causes drowsiness or impairs the pilot’s
ability to perform their duties, NO.

OTC medications are included on the FAA’s Safe to Use
Medication List.

Question 28

What is hypoxia?

Answer 28

It is the inability of the heart to deliver oxygen to the major organs.

The two organs that need oxygen the most are the brain and the
eyes.

Question 29

Hypoxic hypoxia

Answer 29

This is the most common of the four types of
hypoxia. It is seen at altitude (Maybe this can read: Also referred to
as altitude hypoxia). The percentage of oxygen is the same but the
molecules are less concentrated the higher the pilot goes. Less
molecules taken into the lungs leads to less oxygen being delivered
by the heart to the brain.

Question 30

Histotoxic hypoxia

Answer 30

Inability for the body to use oxygen. Toxic
substances get into the blood and prevent oxygen getting to the
organs. Examples are alcohol, narcotics (morphine, codeine,
Vicodin®) and cyanide. One ounce of alcohol will add about 2000
feet of physiological altitude to the body. Narcotics in the body
will decrease the function of lungs to deliver oxygen. Cyanide
from smoke in a cockpit fire will prevent oxygen from being
delivered.

Question 31

Hypemic hypoxia

Answer 31

Caused by anemia, disease, blood loss, deformed
blood cells, or carbon monoxide (CO) poisoning and with smokers. If the
pilot has anemia from giving blood or a blood loss, less oxygen
can be transported by the red blood cells. Carbon Monoxide(CO)
from smoking or a exhaust manifold leak will cause to hypoxia
because the CO will bind first to the red blood cell and not allow
oxygen to attach leading to hypoxia.

Question 32

Stagnant hypoxia

Answer 32

Oxygen deficiency in the body due to poor
circulation of the blood. If pilot has a weak heart (heart failure), there
will be a decrease in the amount of blood carrying oxygen being
pumped to the brain. If the pilot is pulling over 2 G’s the blood will
be pushed into the pilot’s legs and not get to the brain. In the winter
time the cold temperatures will constrict the blood vessels and not
allow oxygen to get to brain, legs and arms. Can lead to
hyperventilation.

Question 33

What are the symptoms of hypoxia?

Answer 33

Euphoria, headache, dizziness, cyanosis (purple color in lips and
nails), numbness, tunnel vision,

Every pilot will be different in the order of their symptoms, but
each time hypoxia sets in, it will occur in the same order for that
individual.

Question 34

What are the symptoms of hypoxia?

Answer 34

Euphoria, headache, dizziness, cyanosis (purple color in lips and
nails), numbness, tunnel vision,

Every pilot will be different in the order of their symptoms, but
each time hypoxia sets in, it will occur in the same order for that
individual.

Question 35

What is hyperventilation?

Answer 35

Hyperventilation is very rapid breathing due to some stressor, like
pain, anxiety or stress. The pilot or passenger is getting rid of
Carbon Dioxide. Carbon Dioxide is needed to stimulate the breath.
The best way to stop hyperventilation is to take away the stressor.
Slow the breath down, concentrate on flying the airplane, open the
vents for some cool air and if that does not work, breath into a
paper bag. The pilot should breath into a bag and breath back the
carbon dioxide in the bag. The breathing rate will decrease. For
passengers, if these measures do not work they will eventually pass
out and sleep. You cannot die from hyperventilation. The
symptoms of hyperventilation are the same and different than
hypoxia. Hyperventilation symptoms are slow in onset and
hypoxia is fast. Hyperventilation causes spasm of the limbs, in
hypoxia the limbs go limp. In hyperventilation the skin is cold and
clammy and in hypoxia the skin is purple

Question 36

What is Carbon Monoxide poisoning?

Answer 36

Carbon monoxide is colorless, odorless and tasteless. It will
usually get into the cabin due to a exhaust leak. CO is a by-product
of the incomplete combustion of carbon-containing materials, such as
aviation fuel. It has a stronger binding capacity to blood vs. oxygen.
The pilot will then become hypoxic.

Question 37

What precautions should be taken before flight if you or
passengers have been scuba diving?

Answer 37

The recommended waiting is 12 hours if going to 8,000 feet or less
if a non-controlled assent was not required.

The recommended waiting is 24 hours if going to 8,000 feet or less
if a controlled ascent was not required.

The recommended waiting is 24 hours if going above 8,000 feet
after any scuba diving.

Question 38

What is standard temperature and pressure?

Answer 38

15 degrees C (59 degrees F)

29.92 inches of Hg

1013.2 hPa (hectopascals)

Question 39

What are the 3 layers of the atmosphere?

Answer 39

The Troposphere – The layer where from the earth’s surface to the
Tropopause where nearly all the weather takes place (The
troposphere starts at the Earth’s surface and extends approximately
36,000’)

The Tropopause – The layer between the troposphere and the
stratosphere and is an inversion layer. This layer is where the
temperature stops decreasing as the altitude increases.

(I would change the order this reads. I would have it read in the order of
the actual atmosphere. Troposphere, stratosphere, mesophere,
themosphere)

The Stratosphere – This layer is above the tropopause and has
colder and warmer layers. The warmer closest to the sun and the
cooler closest to the tropopause. It is 20% of the atmosphere

Question 40

What is the cause of all weather?

Answer 40

Uneven heating of the Earth by the Sun.
(Weather processes such
as wind, clouds, and precipitation are all the result of the
atmosphere responding to uneven heating of the Earth by the Sun.
A little more detailed answer.)

Question 41

What causes wind?

Answer 41

Differences in atmospheric pressure.

Pressure goes from High to
Low and this causes wind.

Question 42

Radiation Fog

Answer 42

Radiation fog is usually seen in the fall and
winter.

(Also known as ground fog) At night, in calm winds, the air
will cool and stabilize near the ground. When the air reaches its
dew point fog will form. The fog will extend upward and deepen.
This is most prevalent near bodies of water and in valleys where
there is little wind. It is patchy and stays in one place. The sun will
burn it off in a few hours. ( I do not like this last sentence. Maybe
could read something like: Surface temperature must rise in order
for the fog to clear)