Oral medicine Flashcards

1
Q

What is though to be the cellular difference with FGS

A

Inadequate b cell functiton/CD4 t helper cells and increase in CD8 cytotoxic cells. Increase in CD8 causes mismatched CD4/CD8 ratio = bad
Elevated ion CD3+ t lymphocytes and MHCII = increase inflammation
Increase in IgG

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2
Q

Elevation of what type of Ig in saliva

A

IgG and IgM = increase in saliva
IgA = increase in serum

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3
Q

What percent of cats have elevated globulins with FGS

A

60

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4
Q

What percent of cats recover completely

A

30

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5
Q

Feline recombinant interferon omega

A

Interferons (IFNs) are a family of cytokines generated by cells in response to viral infection and which have the ability to impede viral replication and induce apoptosis of infected cells.
Oral administration of type I IFN may potentiate T-helper 1 (Th1) response.

administration of 0.1 MU rFeIFN-u to refractory cases of FCGS over a 3-month period, 55% of the cats were cured or improved (10% cured, 35% markedly improved, and 10% moderately improved).

A moderate positive correlation was shown between clinical improvement and decreased viral load, suggesting an effect of systemic administration of rFeIFN-u on virus replication

Most effectively used in the group of cats that are FCV positive and are long-term non-responders to full mouth extraction.

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6
Q

Mesenchymal stem cell therapy

A

Modulate immunity by inhibition of T‐cell proliferation, altering B‐cell function, down‐regulating MHC II, and inhibiting dendritic cell maturation and differentiation.
MSCs are obtained mainly from adipose tissue and bone marrow. Frequency in fat is about 10-fold higher than in bone marrow.

of fresh autologous adipose-derived MSCs resulted in complete clinical remission in 3 cats (42.8%) or substantial clinical improvement in 2 others (29.5%) within 1 and 4 months after the first injection. Minimal to no response was observed in 2 cats (29.5%).

In fresh allogeneic MSCs 57% showed substantial clinical improvement, and 2 cats had minimal to no improvement at 6 months. 2 of the 4 responders showed clinical cure by 18 to 20 months, whereas 2 of the 3 nonresponders were euthanized at 6 to 12 months.

A multi-center clinical trial in the USA reported the result of either autologous or allogeneic adipose-derived MSCs injections in 18 cats with refractory FCGS. Of the 18 cats, 5 (27.8%) showed clinical cure, 8 (44.4%) substantial clinical improvement and 5 (27.8%) no improvement. Clinical response was observed between 3 and 6 months after MSCs therapy.
Clinical improvement or cure were less frequent (60% vs 77%) in cats receiving allogeneic than autologous MSCs.
stopped using autologous adipose-derived MSCs due to the deleterious effect of feline foamy virus on MSCs culture and are now favoring allogeneic adipose-derived MSCs obtained from specific pathogen-free (SPF) cats.

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7
Q

FGS is associated with what other oral disease

A

Perio
RR

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8
Q

FGS is more prevelent with what association

A

FCV
multi cat house hold

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9
Q

Gold standard for FGS treatment

A

Extraction of all teeth or premolar and molar teeth is the currently accepted standard of care for the primary management of FCGS (no difference has been shown between full-mouth extraction and subtotal-mouth extraction (premolar/molar teeth additional teeth)
Improvement = 67-80%

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10
Q

What percent of cats according to jennings JAVMA 2015 showed imrpvment and still needed EMM after extractions

A

69%

28.4% showed clinical cure
38.9% showed substantial improvement
32.6% were little or not improved.54
68.8% of cats showing clinical cure or substantial improvement required extended medical treatment

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11
Q

Cylcosporine in FGS

A

Cyclosporine is a calcineurin inhibitor licensed for the management of chronic allergic dermatitis in cats and dogs. It exerts its immunomodulatory effect on the cell mediated immune system through the inhibition of T lymphocyte function and proliferation and has been shown to induce apoptosis of lymphocytes.

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12
Q

Kissing lesions

A

Discrete areas of mucosal inflammation, both with and without ulceration are common in dogs at sites of tooth contact;

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13
Q

Dogs most commonly seen with CCUS

A

Greyhound
Maltese
CKCS

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14
Q

Causes of CCUS

A

Increase in IgG
lichenoid and perivascular infiltrates of plasma cells and lymphocytes, often in large numbers.
B cells, T cells, CD3 negative IL171 cells, macrophages, and mast cells and FoxP3

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15
Q

Pentoxifyline

A

Reduction of the production of inflammatory cytokines (especially TNF) by phagocytes stimulated with a variety of microbial products (eg, endotoxin)
Inhibits, in particular, the production of proinflammatory interleukin 17 (IL-17), interleukin 2 (IL-2), and interferon-gamma.

20mg/kg BID

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16
Q

Doxycycline

A

Broad spectrum ABX

5mg/kg BID

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17
Q

Niacinamide

A

Vitamin B3
200-250mg BID

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18
Q

Cyclosporine

A

An effective immunosuppressive agent, inhibits T-cell function and suppresses cell-mediated immune responses.
Mechanism of action: binds to intracellular cyclophilin A forming a cyclosporine-cyclophilin complex, which inhibits calcineurin, an enzyme critical to the synthesis of CKs such as IL-2, IL-4, TNF-ɑ and INF-Ɣ by T-cells.
Also inhibits the production of IL-17 by memory Th17 cells.
5mg/kg SID
Whole blood trough levels >300

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19
Q

Metronidazole

A

decreases leukocyte-endothelial cell adhesion and migration from the bloodstream into tissue, dampens down the proliferation of lymphocytes by causing damage to lymphocyte DNA, reduces the number and function of macrophages
Because metronidazole decreases the levels of IL-2 and INF gamma produced by T cells and significantly inhibits antibody production by B lymphocytes, this provides a proposed mechanism to control CCUS.
15mg/kg SID

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20
Q

genetic predisposition in the Siamese, Somali, Maine Coon, Persian, and Abyssinian.
occurs around the time of tooth eruption. Susceptibility decreases by around two years of age.

A

Juvenile gingivitis

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21
Q

Eosinophilic granuloma complex in the cat

A

association with various allergies (flea saliva, food proteins and environmental allergens, possibly feline self-allergens to Fel d 1 protein in saliva)
common sites are the dorsal surface of the tongue, the palate, and the mucocutaneous junction of the rostral lips.
lesions are well demarcated, flat or nodular, usually ulcerated, and variable in color from bright pink to yellow.
Classically, “eosinophilic ulcers” are flat, ulcerated lesions and “eosinophilic granulomas” are proliferative.
Young cats 2-8yo

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22
Q

Eosinophilic stomatitis in the dog

A

In dogs, lesions tend to be palatal, with less frequent involvement of the tongue, lips or other mucosal sites. Cavalier King Charles spaniels and Siberian husky breeds are over-represented.
Oral eosinophilic granuloma in Siberian huskies
Believed to be hereditary or familial condition
usually on the tongue, can also be seen on the palatal mucosa
lingual lesions = halitosis and oral discomfort
palatal lesions = no clinical signs.
young animals (1–7 years of age)
70% of asymptomatic dogs resolved without medication.
** see study for further information

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23
Q

Wegnerrs granulomatosis

A

An uncommon canine autoimmune inflammatory disorder affecting the gingiva, oral mucosa, and underlying alveolar bone.
Complement system inhibition with C5a has an important role in Pathogenesis.
Clinically, the gingival lesion can be multifocal, bruised, and erythematous in appearance, expansile, and friable. In all regards, it looks like a neoplasm. Radiographically the lesion is associated with severe alveolar bone loss. The key to a correct diagnosis is in the presence of granulomatous inflammation that is, not secondary to fungal or infectious disease.

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24
Q

Masticatory muscle myositis

A

Immune-mediated syndrome; impacts muscles innervated by the mandibular branch of the trigeminal nerve (masseter, temporalis, pterygoids)2 M fibers

Features:
inability to open the jaws (trismus), jaw pain and masticatory muscle atrophy, with occasional exophthalmos
More chronic presentations will show the atrophy with or without restricted jaw mobility.

Diagnosis:
the gold standard is Type 2M fiber (muscle fiber unique to masticatory muscles) antibody detection, these autoantibodies are more likely to be found in the active phase of the disease

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25
Q

Trigeminal Neuropathy

A

Other names: mandibular neuropraxia

Occurrence: dogs

Cause: idiopathic, based on resolution of clinical signs and lack of long-term neuropathy

Features:
open mouth that can be closed passively with little effort

Treatment:
Recovery in idiopathic cases usually occurs in two to four weeks with rest and conservative support
Use of corticosteroids had no effect on the clinical course of the disease

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26
Q

Osteomyelitis

A

Occurrence: common site in the mandible

Cause:
Usually bacterial infection, but fungi can also be responsible
Bone infections can result from three possible routes of inoculation – hematogenous, implantation, or local extension.
Infectious agents include: Staphylococcus spp., Streptococcus sp., Fusobacterium necrophorum, Truperella pyogenes, Nocardia spp., and several different fungal agents including Coccidioides immitis (cats, and dogs), Cryptococcus neoformans (cats), Aspergillus spp., Candida spp. and occasionally Pythium insidiosum.

The most common form of bacterial inoculation is via local extension from an infection of the tooth or periodontal tissues.

Clinical presentation:
large and firm swelling, often painful on palpation
Radiographically there may be a zone of bony destruction surrounded by a region of increased density or sclerosis.
sequestration may be present
proliferative reaction of the periosteum at the periphery of the lesion with lysis of the associated cortical and alveolar bone.
Endosteal or periosteal scalloping of the cortex, or a moth-eaten pattern of bone destruction is often evident.

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27
Q

Periodontal osteomyelitis

A

Attachment loss exposes the periodontal apparatus to the plaque-associated microflora, resulting in bacterial periodontitis. The presence of microorganisms stimulates osteoblasts and inflammatory cells to produce inflammatory cytokines like TNF alpha, IL1, and IL6. These mediators stimulate osteoclasts, resulting in bone and tooth root resorption.

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28
Q

Osteonecrosis

A

Definitions: exposed necrotic bone in the maxillofacial region that fails to heal after 6 to 8 weeks (up to 44 days before noticing)

Subtypes:
Radiation induced: Predisposed to breakdown and delayed healing. Risk of dehiscence and progressive extension of the osteonecrosis. Difficult to differentiate from recurrent malignant disease. Risk of recurrence is higher. Prognosis is fair to guarded.

Traumatic: treat by localization and surgical removal of the bone sequestrum. Prognosis is excellent.

Non-traumatic (infectious): removal of the bone sequestrum, appropriate bone debridement and long-term appropriate medical therapy.

Idiopathic: A disproportionate number of cocker spaniels have been reported. May recur at the same location or other sites. Prognosis is fair to good.

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29
Q

Hyperparathyroidism

A
  1. Nutritional secondary hyperparathyroidism can occur as a result of diets with a low calcium-to-phosphorous ratio, such as all meat. This leads to a transient hypocalcemia, which stimulates the secretion of parathyroid hormone.
  2. In renal secondary hyperparathyroidism, the reabsorption of phosphate is impaired, which results in hyperphosphatemia. This in turn leads to a lower blood calcium concentration, which stimulates parathyroid gland activity. Concurrent with secondary hyperparathyroidism, the synthesis of 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D in the kidney is also decreased. This leads to a decrease in intestinal calcium absorption and impaired mineralization of osteoid. The combined effect of renal secondary hyperparathyroidism and the decreased 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D is often referred to as renal osteodystrophy.
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30
Q

Features of hyperparathyroidism

A

Features:
The first radiographic sign is loss of the lamina dura, followed by loss of density of mandibular trabecular and cortical bone. Teeth may appear almost unsupported by bone.
most likely to become clinically evident in growing dogs but rarely in cats.
The first bone affected is the mandible, followed by the maxilla, then the other bones of the skull, and finally the long bones.
the bones of the jaws may become swollen and malleable.

Histo: Histologically, bone resorption and replacement with fibrous tissue is seen, which is often referred to as osteitis fibrosa cystica. In addition, osteomalacia, or poorly mineralized osteoid, may be seen.

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31
Q

3 parts of the tongue

A
  1. The root, attached to the basihyoid bones by the extrinsic muscles
  2. The body, the middle portion, attached to the floor of the mouth by the lingual frenulum
  3. The apex, which is the rostral, unattached, and mobile portion of the tongue.
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32
Q

Lesions of the tongue

A

Electrocution: Non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema also possible, must be addressed first. Then, wait till necrosis is over to debride (days to weeks) + same supportive tx as above.
Chewing lesions: sx, may recur
Glossitis 2ndry to plant FB (e.g. burdock plant): Prevention, otherwise anti-inflammatory and pain control, removal of burs if able to visualize
Ranula: Sialoadenectomy, can attempt marsupialization first
Linear FB: Trim + GI sx
Canine eosinophilic granuloma: a rare idiopathic condition that causes plaques or proliferative masses on the lateral or ventral aspects of the tongue.
alcinosis circumscripta: idiopathic deposition of calcium salts into soft tissues. Most commonly found in young, large-breed dogs. Slightly raised, nodular, white-to-grey areas on the lingual and/or buccal tissues. TX: excision
Papilloma virus
Calicivirus
Neoplasia – Melanoma>SSC

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33
Q

Pemphigus Vulgaris

A

Occurrence: rare, middle-aged dogs, severe.

Features: Affect keratinized oral epithelium (hard palate, gingiva, dorsal tongue). The majority of cases have oral involvement (up to 90% of patients, frequently at the mucocutaneous junctions, with some mucous membrane ulceration). Oral lesions occur before skin lesions in about 50 % of cases. Fragile vesicles. Patchy areas of ulceration, crusting and inflammation quickly follow when vesicles rupture and slough.

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34
Q

Ossifying fibroma vs fibrous dysplasia

A

OF: Other names: cementifying fibroma

Features:
local asympotomatic swellings of the jaw generally with distinct margins.
A predilection for the mandible appears to be present in dogs.

FD: Other names: craniofacial FD

Features:
dysplastic rather than neoplastic process
can be locally destructive, generally self-limiting.
May present in the canine zygomatic bone.

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35
Q

Hyperdontia

A

Supernumerary teeth (twinning). Develop from continued proliferation of permanent or deciduous dental lamina to form a third tooth germ or from disturbances during tooth development
More common in permanent teeth, maxilla>mandible. Usually incisors, PMs.
Common in Greyhound, Boxer, Bulldog, Rottie, dolichocephalic breeds.
More than 1/3 Greyhounds had T/SN, usually PM1
Boxer and Bulldogs: supernum incisors

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36
Q

Tooth agenesis

A

Failure to develop

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37
Q

Hypodontia

A

hypodontia: absence of 1-6 teeth

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38
Q

Oligodontia

A

absence of >6 teeth

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39
Q

Anodontia

A

all teeth missing

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40
Q

Common findings with agenesis

A

More common in permanent dentition, however, if deciduous absent, permanent likely to be absent also.
Cats: MxPM2 freq absent (incidence 3-28%)
Dogs: assoc w Kerry Blue, Affenpinscher, hairless dogs, large dolico, small breed, mini poodle

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41
Q

peg tooth

A

crown as abnormal conical shape

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42
Q

Gemination vs fusion vs concerescence

A

Gemination (aka schizodontism)
Single tooth germ attempted to divide into two separate teeth.
Increased frequency in boxers
No tmt required except if grooves extends subgingivally (gingivoplasty, sealant/resin)

Fusion
Clinical appearance similar to germination but one tooth is missing from dental arch

Concrescence
Union of two fully formed teeth by only their cementum (no involvement of dentin/enamel)
From trauma/inflammation. Developmental (trauma/crowding) vs acquired (inflammation-induced HC)

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43
Q
A
43
Q

Dysplasia vs hypoplasia

A

Dysplasia = Congenital. Hypoplasia = Environmental

44
Q

Dentin hypoplasia

A

Often accompanies enamel hypoplasia/dysplasia
Environmental etiology- seen in dogs with distemper and other unknown causes

vitamin D deficiency, phosphorus deficiency
Infectious, traumatic

No tmt necessary if tooth not mobile, monitor for endodontic pathology

45
Q

Dilaceration

A

Sharp bend/curve along the root or crown of a formed tooth (20-90°). Root > crown

46
Q

What teeth are more commonly SN in cats and dogs

A

dogs MxPM2, MxPM3
cats MxPM3

47
Q

Transposition

A

Teeth change spots

48
Q

Convergent roots

A

2 normally shaped roots fused

49
Q

Dentinogenesis imperfecta

A

Hereditary, deciduous and permanent dentitions are affected. Recessive in Border Collies. DSPP gene implicated in humans
C/S: Characterized by a blue/brown discoloration and translucent/opalescent appearance
Enamel can separate from dentin easily, exposing dentin → rapid attrition
Rads: bulbous crowns, thin roots, possible/early obliteration of the root canals and pulp chambers.
Histopath: short misshapen tubules course through an atypical granular dentin matrix

Multiple types of this See MACK PAPER

50
Q

Osteogenesis imperfecta

A

Systemic hereditary disease of bone that can also affect dentin, COL1A1 mutation affecting type 1 collagen production
Changes in dentition are clinically and radiographically similar to DI

51
Q

Dentin dysplasia

A

Rare genetic defect of dentin formation, autosomal dominant inheritance in humans, should be monitored for PA/P.
Fairly normal enamel and primary dentin development, with significantly abnormal development of secondary dentin (conglomeration of disorganized tubular dentin and atubular osteodentin that resembles cementum).
Usually results in tooth discoloration that is described as opalescent or pearlescent, discolored light grey to brown

52
Q

Type 1 dentin dysplasia

A

Shortened roots with pulp cavities completely obliterated by the abnormal secondary dentin, often resulting in periapical granulomas due to nonvitality.

53
Q

Type 2 dentin dysplasia

A

Normal root length with widened coronal pulp cavity (underproduction of primary dentin) with amorphous globules of abnormal secondary dentin within the root. Teeth usually remain vital.

54
Q

Odontodysplasia

A

Tooth or teeth are abnormally shaped, rough surface with yellow to brown discoloration
MX>MN
Permanent teeth, C/I

55
Q

Enamel hypoplasia

A

Disrupted deposition of enamel matrix
Results in normal density or mineralization but enamel is thinner than normal
Can be focal or multifocal
May see yellow-brown dentin underneath (if enamel still in tact), borders regular and smooth (where the enamel has chipped off)
ex; distemper

56
Q

Enamel hypocalcification

A

Inadequate mineralization of enamel matrix
Enamel difficult to distinguish from dentin on radiographs, same radiopacity
Affects several or all teeth
White yellow brown spots in enamel, enamel edges are initially sharp and irregular where the enamel has chipped off (later being smoothed by wear)
Crowns soft and wear faster

57
Q

Focal enamel hypoplasia

A

Most common type of dog abnormality seen by the authors
Clinical tooth defect areas of opaque white, yellow or brown discoloration of visibly abnormal enamel to grossly abnormal tooth morphology
Often only one tooth affected
Environmental factors are responsible (trauma to the dental germ in the 1st 8-10wks of life):
Trauma #1 anecdotally

58
Q

Diffuse enamel hypoplasia

A

nvolvement of much of the dentition; in the author’s experience often present present as areas with circumferential involvement of the entire crown vs pits or lines
Result of systemic diseases
Pyrexia
Canine Distemper Virus: Epitheliotropic nature of the virus causes direct infection and destruction of the ABs, in addition to pyrexia

59
Q

Amelogenesis imperfecta

A

Type of hereditary EH with genetic basis, results from a
disturbance in ectodermal layers of developing teeth
Affects teeth in a more uniform fashion than environmental EH

Italian Greyhound - Hypoplastic type, autosomal recessive ENAM gene1
Samoyed - autosomal recessive SLC24A4 gene2
Standard Poodle - Hypocalcified type, mode of inheritance/gene not investigated3

60
Q

Causes of intrinsic staining

A

Metabolic: Fluorosis
Congenital: Congenital erythropoietic porphyria (deposition of byproducts of hemolysis), AI, dentinogensis imperfecta
Drug-related: Pregnant mothers or young animals given tetracycline, severity
based on dosage and duration of administration, does not cause weakness
Pulpal necrosis and intrapulpal hemorrhage: Grayish black discoloration
Nerve of tooth undergoes necrosis–>tissue disintegration byproducts are released
–>byproducts penetrate dentinal tubules and cause discoloration of surrounding dentin
Trauma to tooth–>intrapulpal hemorrahge–>release iron sulfides into tooth and discolor dentin

61
Q

Dens invaginatus

A

Developmental abnormality that results when the developing tooth crown surface invaginates into the developing tooth pulp before mineralization has occurred

62
Q

3 types of Dens invaginatus

A

Type I: invagination in the crown only, which does not extend beyond the cementoenamel junction
Type II: invagination extends beyond the cementoenamel junction into the root canal and ends as a blind sac
Type III: invagination extends through the root or lateral surface to form an additional opening or foramen but with no direct communication with the existing pulp canal

63
Q

Enamel pearl

A

mall nodules of enamel <4mm located on the root surface of the tooth close to or at the cementoenamel junction, most commonly at the bi/trifurcation of molar (MNM1)

64
Q
A

Molar malformation
Usually bilaterally symmetrical defect in enamel leading to periapical infection, PA/P necessitating extraction in a majority of cases

65
Q

Most commonly DT/P

A

MX canine and MXPM3

66
Q
A

MPO: Non-neoplastic proliferative bone dz of young large-breed dogs (3-5 mo), during MnM1 eruption

Sex/breed predilection: All dogs in this case series were large breed and male

C/S:
Non-painful firm swelling usually centered around M1. May be fluctuant orally.
Usually unilateral (L>R).

Dx:
Rad: Double mandibular cortex

Tx: Usually self-resolving in weeks t

67
Q
A

CMO
AKA Lion jaw, Westie Jaw, Scottie Jaw.
Non-neoplastic, non-inflammatory proliferative bone disease, onset at
3-6mos old and continues until 12mos old (when growth ceases)

Breed/Sex Predilection: West Highland white terriers, Scottish terriers,
and Cairn terriers.

Inheritance:
Terrier breeds: Autosomal dominant, incomplete penetrance. Monogenic mutation in chromosome 5 Gene SLC37A2, a glucose phosphate transporter in osteoclasts.

C/S: PAIN when opening mouth, systemic signs (fever, lymphadenopathy). Masticatory muscle atrophy. TMJ restriction in severe cases. Usually bilaterally symmetric though can be unilateral.
Mandibles and tympanic bullae are most commonly affected.

Tx (Wiggs and Verstraete):
usually self-limiting;

68
Q
A

Calvarial hyperostotic syndrome

CHS: Non-neoplastic proliferative bone disease usually affecting bull mastiffs (+ pitbulls?).
Onset at 5-10mos old and continues until growth ceases. No known causes or associations other than possibly familial predisposition.

In this case report, only MALE bull mastiffs were affected

C/S: PAIN when opening mouth or palpating head, fever, lymphadenopathy
Dx: CT = cortical thickening of the calvarium and frontal sinus w irregular, bony proliferation over the frontal, temporal, and occipital bones, tending to be unilateral
Tx: Self-resolving about 80% of the time, supportive NSAIDs if needed

69
Q

Patellar fracture and dental anomaly syndrome

A

Feline patellar fractures are rare and most commonly occur spontaneously/atraumatically at the mean age of 28 months, and are postulated to be caused from a primary bone disorder. They most commonly occur at the level of the mid to proximal third of the patella. 50% of cats fracture contralateral patella within 3 months of first fracture, and often sustain fractures of other bones.

Persistent deciduous teeth, hypodontia, root resorption, root malformation and unerupted teeth.
Swellings of the jaw (mimicking neoplasia), osteonecoris/myelitis

surgical extraction of persistent deciduous and unerupted permanent teeth, and debridement of proliferative and necrotic bone appear to be necessary for an improved outcome

Generalised increased bone density in some cases supports that the underlying bone disease in these cats is a form of osteopetrosis

70
Q

What cat breed is predisposed to congenital ypothyroidism

A

abyssinian

71
Q

Macroglossia

A

Dogs with true congenital macroglossia: decreased function and ROM, increased susceptibility to lingual trauma

Resection of traumatized tongue = good px

Giant Schnauzers with congenital hypothyroid. All had dwarfism, some had macroglossia and delayed tooth eruption

7 dachshunds with nasopharyngeal dysgenesis (abnormally thickened palatopharyngeal muscles +/- hypertrophic geniohyoid and genioglossus muscles).
Tmt - Surgical removal of excessive soft tissue, however
POOR PX if macroglossia/dysphagia present

72
Q

Microglossia

A

Bird tongue
short narrow pointed upward curled
recessive autosomal
Miniature schnauzers, Basset Hound
Inability to suckle, looks like fading puppy syndrome (poor px)

73
Q

Ankyloglossia

A

Very rare, only reported in Anatolian Shepherd dogs* (Kangal dog)
Most cases no other abnormalities
difficulty suckling, licking, swallowing, vocalizing; difficulty with thermoregulation; difficult prehension, Excessive drooling
Treatment: frenuloplasty (excellent PX)

74
Q

Heterotrphic hair shafts

A

hair on media sulcus of tongue
not treated unless causes glossitis
can remove but will grow back

75
Q

Oral papilloma is caused by

A

PV 1

76
Q

Cutaneous papilloma is caused by

A

CPV-1, -2, -6, -7

77
Q

Most common t/sn in cat

A

MXPM3

78
Q

Most common supernumerary root can

A

MXPM3

79
Q

Most common SN/R dog

A

MX PM2/3

80
Q

Breed affected by enamel lesions

A

Italian Greyhound - Hypoplastic type, autosomal recessive ENAM gene1
Samoyed - autosomal recessive SLC24A4 gene2
Standard Poodle - Hypocalcified type, mode of inheritance/gene not investigated3

81
Q

Breeds affect by hereditary dentin lesions

A

poodle, akitas

82
Q

Mutation of osteogenesis imperfecta

A

Collagen 1
COL1A1 or COL1A2

83
Q

mutation that causes dentinogenesis imperfecta

A

dentin sialophosphoprotein (DSPP) gene
ECM important in the mineralization of predentin into dentin.

84
Q

Lactoferrin works how

A

inhibits bacteria

85
Q

Recombinant feline interferon omega

A

Impedes viral replication

86
Q

CO2 laser

A

removes proliferative tissue and stimulates fibrosis;

87
Q

outcome of surgical extractions for FGS

A

~70% demonstrate substantial improvement or resolution, ~20% of cats benefiting minimally or not at all
No significant difference in response to treatment between PM/M vs. Full mouth extractions

88
Q

Cyclosporine improvement

A

~50% achieved clinical remission, remaining showed 40-77% improvement
45% clinically cured on long-term after >3m

89
Q

Autologous MSC outcome

A

42.8% clinical remission, 28.6% substantial improvement, 28.6% did not response
Arzi 2020- 71% positive response on 6-24m o

90
Q

piroxicam with bovine lactoferrin

A

patients receiving both 77% substantial improvement or clinical remission after 12wks

91
Q

Recombinant feline interferon omega

A

treatment group got 45% substantially improved or clinical remission (10%)

92
Q

Allogenic MSC

A

lower clinical efficacy with 28.6% achieved clinical remission, 28.6% achieved substantial improvement, and 42.8% were nonresponders

93
Q

Retrovirus seropositivity rates in cats with inflammation

A

For all ages, cats with periodontitis and stomatitis had a significantly higher risk than orally healthy cats of being seropositive for FIV. In particular, stomatitis was associated with the highest risk of FIV seropositivity

Inflammatory oral disease was associated with an increased risk of seropositivity for retroviruses in naturally infected cats.

94
Q

What were the findings of
Clinical, pathological, immunohistochemical and molecular characterization of feline chronic gingivostomatitis
Rolim VM, Pavarini SP, Campos FS, et al.
J Feline Med Surg. 2017

A

15% (4/26) of the cases were positive for FIV, and 34.6% (9/26) were positive for FeLV

FCG cases analyzed could not be correlated with FCV. It is possible that FeLV plays a role as a causal agent of lesions in cases where the presence of the virus has been confirmed by immunohistochemistry in epithelial samples.

95
Q

OPG bind to what

A

RANKL

96
Q

Prevalence of TR in cats

A

25-75%

97
Q

Most common tooth with TR

A

307, 407

98
Q

Difference between type 1-3 TR

A

1 - focal or multifocal radiolucency affecting the tooth with normal PDL

2- narrowing or disappearing of the PDL

3- combination of 1 and 2

99
Q

What are the four stages of TR

A
100
Q

External surface resorption

A

Not always visible radiographically
lesions along the latreal margins of the roo and the PDL/lamina dura are not affected
Trauma- self limiting

101
Q

External replacement resorption

A

RAD- gradual disappearance of PDL with progressive replacement of root tissues surround alveolar bone
Leads to necrosis od PDL fibers

102
Q

External inflammatory resorption

A

RAD- loss of dental tissue adjacent to areas of loss of alveolar bone secondary to inflammation (pero/endo diz)
All endodontically compromised teeth are considered to have this

103
Q

Internal surface resorption

A

RAD- oval shaped enlargement located in the apical third of the root canal
From trauma - self limiting

104
Q

Internal replacement resorption

A

RAD - irregular enlargement with a tunnel like appearance adjacent to the root canal
Located on the coronal fragment of root fractures or seen during luxation injury

105
Q

Internal inflammatory resorption

A

RAD - oval shaped enlargement found in the cervical third of the root canal
Inflammatory conditions