Oral Med- ABGD Flashcards

1
Q

What are the parameters for HTN?

A

2017 classification
<120 and 80 = normal
120-129/ and <80 = elevated
Stage 1: 130-139 or 80-89
Stage 2: ≥ 140 or ≥90
Stage 2 Crisis: >180 or >120 (my limit is 110 palliative/urgent care only)
if symptomatic- no care

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2
Q

What are the treatment considerations for each category of HTN?

A

Normal: None
Elevated: let pt know, recommend lifestyle changes, follow up with PCP
Stage 1: routine, referral to PCM
Stage 2: routine, if asymptomatic
dont treat above 180/110

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3
Q

What are the conditions requiring SBE prophy

A

hx of endocarditis
prosthetic heart valve or repair
unrepaired cyanotic defect
repaired cyanotic defect if less than 6 mos
reparied cyanotic defec with prosthetic materials
heart transplant with valvulopathy

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4
Q

Which heart conditions are cyanotic defects?

A

Tetralogy of Fallot.
Transposition of the great vessels.
Pulmonary atresia.
Total anomalous pulmonary venous return.
Truncus arteriosus.
Hypoplastic left heart syndrome.
Tricuspid valve abnormalitie- congenital

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5
Q

What procedures require ABO prophy?

A

anything that disrupts the gingival tissue,apical region, or perforation the mucosa

except: xrays, injections if not infected, removable appliances, ortho brackets/adjustments, shedding of baby teeth or trauma to lips

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6
Q

What oral meds are given for ABO prophy?

A

AMOX 2 gram
Cephalexin (cephalosporin)- 2 gram (do NOT give if there is a IgE rxn to PCN aka anaphylaxis)
Clinda- 600mg
Azith or Clarithromycin- 500mg

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7
Q

What are the IV meds given for ABO prophylaxis?

A

Ampicillin: 2g
Cefazolin, 1g
Clindamycin: 600g

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8
Q

If the ABO Prophy dose can’t be given prior to tx, when should it be given? What about if they are already on ABX?

A

2 hrs after

switch class of drug, or wait 7-10 days between

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9
Q

What is angina and what are the types?

A

Angina- chest pain & a symptom of MI

STABLE: chronic, relieved with rest, relieved in 5 min with NG (if longer than 5 min= MI)

UNSTABLE: new onset, pain at rest, angina after MI, increased frequency, intensity and duration

PRINZMETAL: typically unpredictable, pain at rest, possible coronary artery spasm, vasodilators

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10
Q

What is the dental management with patient with a hx of angina?

A

Early AM appt
increase O2 if needed
decrease stress/anxiety
Have NTG ready
no epi > 0.04mg

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11
Q

What shoudl you do if your pt develops angina if they have a hx of it?

A

STOP procedure
semi sit up
NTG: 0.3-0.5mg sublingual Q3-5min
O2: NC 4-6L/min
monitor VS
call EMS

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12
Q

What is the max dose of epi? Healthy vs cardiac pt

A

Healthy: 0.2mg
Cardiac: 0.04mg

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13
Q

What precautions should be taken for dental treatment on a post-MI pt?

A

Wait 4-6 weeks post MI to allow for adequate re-vascularization
low risk treadmill test
pt likely on plaxix or asa- so have local measure ready for bleeding
likelihood of reinfarcation after non-cardiac sx is low

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14
Q

What are anti-platelet agents and what is the MOA?

A

ASA- COX inhibitor
Clopidogrel (Plavix): inhibits binding of ADP to PLT receptor
Ticagrelor (Brilinta):ADP receptor blocker (reversible)
Aggrenox (ASA/Dipyrimadole) Cox inhibitor and ADP blocker
PLT Glycoprotient IIb/IIIa inhibitors

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15
Q

What are the signs of CHF?

A

pulmonary edema (left side)
peripheral edema (R side)

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16
Q

Dental management for after stroke?

A

Risk of 2nd decreases over time
pallitive only during 1st 6 months
normal care after 6 months
meds may increase bleeding and risk should be considered with future sx

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17
Q

What the phases of hemostasis?

A

Primary-
vascular (immediate)
PLT phase: 1-2 secs
Secondary:
coagulation phase (10-20secs)
fibrin formation (1-3 min)

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18
Q

Do medication induced PLT disorders affect the quality or quantity of PLTs?

A

Quality

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19
Q

What lab tests would be prolonged in a patient with von Willebrand’s disease?

A

BT
PTT- partial prothromibin time = intristic pathway
Normal PT- prothrombin time = extrinsic and common pathways

PTT normal time ranges by lab ~25-30 secs
PT of 11 to 13.5 seconds.
INR of 0.8 to 1.1

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20
Q

Why might a patient be on anticoagulation meds?

A

mechanical valves,
hx of atrial fib
h of thromboembolic stroke, TIA,

Anti platelet: hx of DVT or pulm embolism

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21
Q

What are some examples of anticoagulation drugs- whats the MOA?

A

Coumadin- inhibits Vit K, factors II, VII, IX, and X
Heparin: IV, inhibits intrinsic pathway
Lovenox: Sq, inhibits intrinsic pathway
Lepirudin: IV direct thrombin inhibitor
Arixtr: SQ direct thrombin inhibitor
Pradaxa: PO direct thrombin inhibitor
Xarelto/eliquid: PO, activated Factor X inhibitor

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22
Q

What is DM? and what the are classifications?

A

most common endocrine disorder, #1 cause of ESRD
Type 1: immune mediated or idiopathic
Type 2: hindered
Gestational: 2-10% of pregnancies, which increase 35-60% risk of developing DM2 in 10-20 years

eat= sugar. sugar=glucose. glucose in blood asks the pancreas to release insulin which helps glucose get into cells for energy.

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23
Q

How do you dx DM?

A

Measure glycated hemoglobin (HbA1C) - 3 month average (RBC lifespan is 4 mo)
Normal: <5.7%
Pre-diabetic: 5.7-6.4%
Diabetic: ≥6.5%

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24
Q

What meds are used for DM1?

A

insulin
RAPID: aspart, lispro (Onset: 15min, Peak 30min, Dur 4-5hr)
SHORT: Regular (O: 30-60min, P: 50-120min, D: 58Hr)
INTERMEDIATE: NPH ( O:1-3hr, P:8hr, D:30 hr)
LONG: Glargine: (O: 1hr, P: n/a, D: 24hr)

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25
Q

What meds are used for DM2?

A

Biguanides( Metformin)-
decreased hepatic glucose production. decreased insulin resistance and decreased glucose adsorption

alpha glucosidase inhibitors (arcarbose)-
delays digestion of carbs and adsorption glucose

Thiazolidinediones (Rosiglitazone) -
decreased IR, decrease HGP, increased glucose disposal

DPP-4 Inhibitors (Januvia)
inhibits enzymatic breakdown of GLP1 and GIP, these are incretin hormones that stmulate the release of insulin

SGTL2 inhibitor(Jardiance)

Oraly Hypoglycemia agents
- Sulfonylureas (Glyburide, Glipizide)
increased pancreatic insulin secretion, chronicly

Meglitinides (repaglinide)
increased pancreatic insulin secretion, acutely

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26
Q

What is ozempic and what is it used for

A

semulglide incretin mimetics, also for weight loss

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27
Q

How would you manage
diabetic patients in a dental
setting?

A

-minimize stress: short, mid-morning appts
*higher insulin activity in afternoon
*increased risk of hypoglycemia
-patients should take all usual meds
-continue usual diet: post procedure dietary intake
-may need to alter insulin regimen:
*increased release of EPI and corticosteroids induces hyperglycemia
-consider antibiotics if poorly controlled (>8% HbA1c)
-pre-op/post-op finger stick
-F/U
-consult with PCM

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28
Q

What are the medical comorbidities of DM?

A

Cardiovascular
-CAD (coronary artery disease)
-CHF
-functional mets = 4
HTN
Decreased renal function
-NSAIDs
-Dialysis

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29
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia?

A

Initial State
-weakness, trembling, hunger, sweating, tachycardia, anxiety, confusion
Moderate State
-combative, incoherent
Severe State
-unconsciousness, hypotension, hypothermia

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30
Q

How would you manage a patient who is experiencing hypoglycemia in your chair?

A

-GLUCOSE
-soda (not diet), fruit juice
*beware of aspiration risk if forced
-IV glucose
-glucagon auto injector
-cake frosting under tongue

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31
Q

In a radiated mandible, why can ORN occur after tooth ext?

A

Radiation makes the mandible:
Hypoxic
Hypocellular
Hypovascular

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31
Q

What are the dental side effects of radiation therapy?

A

xerostomia
mucositis
muscle fibrosis

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32
Q

What is the rule of 2s for corticosteriods?

A

20mg of cortisol equivalent daily for 2 weeks or longer within last two years.
Not widely used anymore

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33
Q

What is current corticosteroid recommendations?

A

Routine dentistry- no supplementation
If primary adrenal insufficiency
Minor sx: : 25mg hydrocortisone equivalent, preop on DOS
Moderate sx: 50-75mg on DOS, and 1 day after
Major sx stress: 100-150mg/ day for 2-3 days
THEN IV 50mg Q8H after initail dose for 48-72 hrs after sx

IF there is 2ndary adrenal insufficiency, then no change to daily therapeutic dose

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34
Q

what dz is a primary adrenal insufficiency

A

addisons’ disease

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35
Q

what are hte corisol equivalent doses?
20mg = endogenous cortisol release

A

Hydrocortisone: 20mg
Prednisone: 5mg
Dexamethasone: 0.75mg
Cortisol: 25mg

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36
Q

Patient indicates a history of asthma…what questions do you ask?

A

When diagnosed. What cuases
What emds, how often?
Ever hospitalized?
What type?

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37
Q

What are the three types of asthma?

A

Extrinsic (most common) form of allergen

Intrinsic: later onset, often ASA induced

Exercise induced: hyperventilation triggers mast cell medication release, more common on cold, dry climates

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38
Q

How do you dentally manage asthmatics

A

determine severity
bring inhaler to all appts
consider use of B2 agonist inhaler pre-op

AVOID: ASA meds, demerol

Asthma attack: wheezing, coughing, dyspnea- prevention with known triggers

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39
Q

What does a RANKL inhibitor do? What is an example?

A

Denosumab (Xgeva)
human monoclonal antibody to RANKL and during pre-clincial trials was first used to treat post menopausal pt with osteoporosis

decreased bone turnover
reduces fractures
increase one mineral density

good for breast nd prostate cancer bone loss too

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40
Q

If there was a total hip replacement 1 year ago- do you premed?

A

no, unless PCM wants it…and it depends if they are severely immunocompromised and or uncontrolled diabetes.

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41
Q

What is your comfort zone for INR range for EXT with anticoag pts.

A

most dentistry up to 3.5 with local measures.
FMX: prefer to stop at 2,
Really extensive sx: 1.5-2

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42
Q

Why do you have ot give a lower concentration of O2 to COPD pts?

A

CO2 related respiratory drive. They have become adapted to a high CO2 level (higher bicarb level)
this adjusts the central chemoreceptors sensitivity to O. high O2 can decrease respiratory drive

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43
Q

For a patient with a reduced glomerular filtration rate, what dental consideration would you take?

A

Consult PCM/Nephrology to determine meds, severity of disease, dialysis and progression
suspect HTN, DM, bleeding issures

AVOID: NSAIDS and cephalosporin

do not do sx on dialysis days, dont use arm that the fistula is placed in for BP

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44
Q

What is the TMN tumor classification?

A

T= tumor size— Tx-T4
M= metastases— Mx-M1
N: node involvement —-N0-N3

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45
Q

Stages of Cancer?

A

Stage 1: T1, N0, M0
Stage 2: T2, N0, M0
Stage 3: T3, N0,M0,
Any T, N1, M0
Stage 4A: T4, N0, M0
T4, N1, M0
Any T, N2, M0
Stage 4B: Any T, N3, M0
Stage 4C: Any T, Any N, M1

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46
Q

Which lymph nodes shoudl be inspected during a head and neck screening

A

anterior and post cervical
submand
subment
Preauricular
tonsilar
Supraclavicular

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47
Q

What are dental considerations for a pregnant patient?

A

no NSAIDS
no Nitrous in 1st trimester
routine exam/prophy good
2nd trimester is safest
emergency tx always good
consult OB if needed

Class B = good in animals only unk in humans
Lido, Amox, APAP

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48
Q

OSA risk factors/screening tool

A

STOP BANG
Snoring
Tired
Observed stop breathing
High BP
BMI >35
Age >50
Neck (>16 men, 17 for women)
Gender male

Epworth sleepiness scale- 0-3 sleepiness in normal activities

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49
Q

how is OSA dx

A

sleep study - resulting in AHI (hypopnea Apnea Index)
Mild: 5-15
Moderate: 15-30
Severe: 30+

apnea= 10 secs without breathing

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50
Q

how does dental help with OSA?

A

eval and screen
make oral appliances. open the pharyngeal airway space for pts who cannot tolerate CPAP or need a device for travel

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51
Q

What would you prescribe for apthous stomatitis, and licehen planus- or concerns for pemphigoid/gus?

A

Topical steriod. Fluocinonide 0.05% gel, 30-60gm tube, apply to affected area 2-3x/day,
for lichen ABX: doxy 20mg, BID, disp 50

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52
Q

What would you prescribe for herpetic gingivostomatitis?

A

acyclovir 500mg, 5x/day, for 5-7 days.
Valacyclovis, 2gram STAT, then 2gm 12 hrs later. , repeat 5-7 days for severe cases

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53
Q

How might you treat burning mouth?

A

elimination of nutritional deficiency, neuro disorders, masses
send to neurology, pain management, mental health.

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54
Q

What kind of med is Amlodipine?

A

CCB - decreased cardiac load
for HTN

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55
Q

Hydrochlorthiazide

A

HTN,CHF thiazide diuretic

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56
Q

lisinopril

A

ace inhibitor

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57
Q

metoprolol

A

beta blocker (reduce HR and cardiac force)

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58
Q

-startan

A

angiotension II receptor blocker

59
Q

What are the implications of CCBs in dental?

A

gingival hyperplasia
dizziness, hypotension
tachycardia

60
Q

-statin (atorvastatin, lovastatin, simvastatin)

A

HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor
lipid management

61
Q

Apixiban, aka? MoA? for?

A

eliquis
Direct inhibitor of factor Xa (common pathway)
A fib, DVT management

62
Q

rivaroxiban aka? MoA? for?

A

xarelto
Direct inhibitor of factor Xa (common pathway)
A fib, DVT management

63
Q

dabigatran aka? MoA? for?

A

pradaxa
direct thrombin inhibitor (common pathway)
A fib, DVT management

64
Q

aspirin?

A

TxA2 inhibitor- antiplatlet

65
Q

Clopidogrel aka? MoA? for?

A

ADP receptor blocker (antiplatelet)

66
Q

Ticafrelor aka? MoA? for?

A

ADP receptor blocker (antiplatelet)

67
Q

What are people often prescribed after an MI?

A

Statin, Angiotension II receptor blocker, beta blocker

Aspirin and ADP blockers in first 12 month after MI

68
Q

Furosemide

A

Lasix- Loop diuretic for CHF

69
Q

bumetanide

A

bumex- Loop diuretic for CHF

70
Q

torsemide

A

Demadex- Loop diuretic for CHF

71
Q

chlorothiazide

A

Thiazide diuretic
Diuril

72
Q

When working on someone who has angina or suspected MI what do you need to do?

A

nitroglycerin avail
O2 avail
stop procedure
call EMS- is suspect MI or stroke
BLS/ACLS
consider sedation or anxiolysis
Consider reduction in vasoconstrictor (limit to 0.04mg) (but keep stress low, because they procedures 300x if stressed)

73
Q

When do you do dental care on someone with an MI?

A

elective tx- defer by 6 wks. EF >50-55%, treadmill (6-8METS+)

74
Q

When do you tx someone who had a stroke?

A

defer for 6 mo

75
Q

what are two categories kind of bronchodilators?

A

beta 2 agonists
anticholinergics

they relax smooth muscle

76
Q

What kind of meds are people who have COPD on?

A

steroids and brochodilators

77
Q

What is albuterol?

A

beta 2 agonist
bronchodilator

78
Q

What is singular?

A

monelukast
leukotriene modifer

79
Q

Things to consider in dental with a pt with COPD

A

avoid high flow o2, avoid postions that will stress the airway
steriods- pt may be immunosuppresed
asthma- have things availible like inhaler. determine is stable or unstable.

80
Q

What ios cetirizine?

A

zyrtex- antihistamine

81
Q

What is fexofenadine

A

allegrea, antihistamine

82
Q

what is loratadine

A

claritin antihistamine

83
Q

What rescue meds shoudl you have for allergies

A

Epi
pseudoephedine - be careuful with meth use

84
Q

What is carbamazepine(tegretol) used for?

A

antiseizure

85
Q

phenytoin (dilantin)

A

antiseizure

86
Q

valproic acid (Depakote)

A

antiseizure

87
Q

What is pregabalin and what is the brand name?

A

lyrica, reduces synaptic NT release

88
Q

What are three SNRI?

A

Cymbalta (Duloxetine_
Effexor (venlaxafine
Desvenlaxafine (Pristiq)

89
Q

How do NSAIDS work?

A

Cyclooxygenase inhibition, reduces pain mediators

90
Q

What is sumatriptan?

A

For migraines
Imitrex
SSR agonist- narrows intracranial vessels, reduce pain signaling

91
Q

What is Rizatriptan?

A

For migraines
maxalt
SSR agonist- narrows intracranial vessels, reduce pain signaling

92
Q

What is Lasmitidan

A

For migraines
SSR agonist- narrows intracranial vessels, reduce pain signaling

93
Q

What is Ubrelvy (ubrogepant)

A

calcitonin gene related peptide receptor agonist

94
Q

What are dental implications in patients with seizures?

A

may be hypersensitive to local
rescue meds- benzo
may need O2
consider IV access, anxiolysis, concious sedation

95
Q

What are dental implications for patients with diabetic neuropathy

A

consider these poorly controlled DM- immunosuppressed, prone to glycemic (hyper/hypo)
medication may sedate, make xerostomia, oral pigmentation

96
Q

what blood thinner are iHD on?

A

heprin during dialysis

97
Q

What is isoniazid used for?

A

TB prevention in a transplant patient

98
Q

What is azathioprine?

A

immunosuppressant

99
Q

What is prednisolone

A

immunosuppressant, steroid

100
Q

What is cyclophosphamide

A

immunosuppressant

101
Q

What is cyclosporine

A

immunosuppressant, T cell inhibitor

102
Q

What meds should you avoid in someone with CKD?

A

antifungals
antibiotics
antibirals
NSAIDS
antacids
statins
DM meds

103
Q

What does the kidney also procedure and why may it be an issue?

A

erythropoietin (anemic)
vit D ( lead to parathyroid hyperfunction)
renin-angiotensin-aldosterone regulation (poor BP control)

104
Q

What is cimetidine?

A

Tagemet - antihistamine H2 blocker

105
Q

What is Famotifdine

A

pepcid antihistamine H2 blocker

106
Q

What is nexium/ esomeprazole
and Prevacid lansopazole
and omepazole (prilosec)
and pantoprazole (protoniz)

A

PPI- proton pump inhibitor

107
Q

What does the ending of “-mab” mean?

A

monoclonal antibody (immunosuppresant)

108
Q

What does insulin do?

A

improves cellular GIc absorption

109
Q

What does metformin do

A

inhibits hepatic gluconeogenesis (hypoglycemic agent)

110
Q

Saxagliptin and sitagliptin? what side effects may you look for?

A

DM meds, DPP4 inhibtor- insulin release, and glucagon decrease….skin rashes or oral ulcerative dx

111
Q

-flozin (jardiance)

A

SGLT2 inhibitor, reduce renal glucose absorption

112
Q

aldendronate (foasamax), how often

A

weekly, osteoclas inhibitor

113
Q

risendronate (actonel) how often

A

weekly or monthly, osteoclast inhibitor

114
Q

ibandronate (boniva) how often

A

PO monthly, IV quarterly, osteoclast inhibitor

115
Q

zoledronic acid (reclast) how often

A

IV yearly, osteoclast inhibitor

116
Q

denosumabo (xgevia, prolia) how often

A

SQ every 6 months. monoclonal antibiody, RANK ligand, osteoclast inhibitor

117
Q

-dronate

A

osteoclast inhibitor

118
Q

How long do bisphosphonates last in bone?

A

> 10 years

119
Q

What is the risk level for denosumab regarding MRONJ?

A

intermediate-shorter half life.

120
Q

What things might cause tumor hypercalcemias?

A

breast or prostate cancer- present as mixed radiodensities in jaw
metastatic adenocarcinomas- often low density
myeloma
osteosarcoma and chondrosarcoma

121
Q

Hydroxychloroquine and chloroquine- waht are they used for, what do they do?

A

antiinflammatory/immunosuppersant for antoimmue and rheumatologic dz.

122
Q

What is systemic lupus a disease of?

A

collagen- may need anticoag or SBE prophy due to valvulopathy
skin rash

123
Q

what is celexa - citaprolam

A

ssri

124
Q

what is escitalopram- lexapro

A

ssri

125
Q

what is fluoxetine prozac

A

ssri

126
Q

what is paroxetine-paxil

A

ssri

127
Q

what is sertraline- zoloft

A

ssri

128
Q

dental side effects of ssri?

A

xerostomia, bruxism

129
Q

what is alprazolam?

A

xanax- benzo

130
Q

clonazepam?

A

klonipin, benzo

131
Q

diazepam

A

valium, benzo

132
Q

lorazepam

A

atavan, benzo

133
Q

What is the rescue drug for benzos?

A

Flumazenil injection

134
Q

What are tobacco cessation drugs?

A

varenicline (chantix)
wellbutrin - buproprion HCL
nicotine replacement

135
Q

What can antipsycotics cause?

A

gingival pigmentation

136
Q

Is it cidal or static? how does it work? class
amox

A

cidal, inhibits wall synthesis, PCN

137
Q

Is it cidal or static? how does it work? class
azith

A

both, inhibits protein synthesis vis ribosome, macrolide

138
Q

Is it cidal or static? how does it work? class
clinda

A

both, protein synthesis via ribosome, macrolide

139
Q

how does it work?, class
metronidazole

A

inhibits protien synthesis vis DNA breakage

140
Q

Is it cidal or static? how does it work? class
doxy

A

static, protiene synthesis, tetracycline

141
Q

Is it cidal or static? how does it work? class?
minocycline

A

static, protien synthesis, tetracycline

142
Q

Is it cidal or static? how does it work? class?
ciprofoxacin

A

cidal, inhibit cell division, fluoroguinolone

143
Q

Is it cidal or static? how does it work? class?
cephalexin

A

cidal, inhibits wall synthesis cephalosporin

144
Q
A