Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Commutair 145 NOV2020 > Oral Exam Guide > Flashcards

Oral Exam Guide Flashcards

1
Q

Engine Abort Start Criteria

A

No light off (10 sec after fuel flow)

Rapid rise in ITT close to limit

Hot Start

Hung Start

Unusual noise/vibe

Abnormal engine indications

Oil pressure doesn’t reach 34psi after stabilized

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

When may a Thruflight Setup Check be performed in lieu of a full Setup Check?

A
  • Crew keeps the same aircraft
  • Flight crewmembers remain the same, provided one flight crewmember remains on board
  • Aircraft remains energized
  • No maintenance action has been taken
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

When must a Terminating Check be accomplished?

A

When the aircraft is to be completely powered down or left unattended

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

When is the After Start Check accomplished?

A

After completion of the second engine start

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What limitations exist for using the ALT/TO thrust mode for takeoff?

A
  • Anti-skid must be operative
  • ALT/TO may be used on wet runways, provided wet runway performance data is used
  • Prohibited on slippery (wet ice) runways
  • Prohibited if warnings of windshear or downdrafts are reported
  • Prohibited when no ALT/TO performance data is provided for a runway with a Special Departure Procedure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the requirements for a low-RVR takeoff?

A

Whenever the airport of departure meets takeoff minimums, but not PIC landing minimums, a takeoff alternate is required.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the proper response to windshear on takeoff?

A
  • Apply maximum available thrust
  • Disengage the autopilot, press the TO/GA buttons to activate the windshear escape mode and rotate smoothly at a normal rate to the command bar.
  • Adjust pitch attitude smoothly an in small increments to control vertical speed and altitude. Flight Crewmembers should be aware that speed may decay below reference speeds and that stick forces necessary to maintain increased pitch attitude may be well above normal.
  • Maintain present configuration (gear and flaps) until terrain contact is no longer a factor
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Where is the APU located?

A

In the tailcone of the aircraft, just aft of a titanium firewall.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How does the APU receive its fuel?

A

Normally, the APU receives fuel from tank #2. However, if the opposite side electric pump on the fuel panel is turned ON, the APU can draw fuel from tank #1 if the crossfeed switch is selected to the LOW 2 position.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What controls the starting and normal operation of the APU?

A

The APU operates under the full authority if its own FADEC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What does turning APU master knob to the ON position do?

A

Turning the APU master knob to the ON position energizes the FADEC, commands the fuel shutoff valve in the belly of the aircraft to open, and enables APU indication and alarms on the EICAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which electrical busses can the APU energize as the sole source of electrical power?

A

In flight:
All of the busses, minus the shed busses
On the ground:
All of the busses, assuming the shed bus switch is in the OVRD position

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How is a fire detected by the APU?

A

By its own dedicated fire loop

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How is a fire extinguished in the APU?

A

By its own dedicated extinguishing bottle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the primary component of the avionics integration system?

A

The E145 is equipped with a variety of highly integrated computers and displays so as to reduce pilot’s workload while providing high reliability and redundancy. This feature is achieved by providing different paths to each type of data. While there are numerous computers and displays, arguably the most important of them are the two IC-600 Symbol Generators (SGs). The SGs interface work with many of the aircraft systems; they receive data from multiple inputs and send the appropriate information to the 5 CRT screens in the cockpit.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

The #1 Data Acquisition Unit (DAU) provides data for which engine and airplane systems

A

DAU 1 is dedicated to collect data from the forward airplane systems and #1 engine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

The #2 DAU provides data for which engine and airplane systems?

A

DAU is dedicated to collect data from the aft airplane systems and #2 engine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the primary and secondary channels of the DAU, and what is their function?

A

Each DAU is a dual-channel unit, with a primary (A) and backup (B) channel, which are pilot-selectable through the DAU reversionary button. In the event of a primary channel failure, an EICAS message will be generated (DAU 1(2) A FAIL), and some engine information and system data will be missing from the EICAS. Per the QRH, the channel B will be selected through the DAU reversionary button, and some (not all) information will be recovered

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which unit can be used as a backup display to the main display panels?

A

The Radio Management Units (RMUs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How many system pages can be displayed on the MFD

A

5

  • Fuel
  • Electrical
  • Environmental and Ice Protection
  • Hydraulic and Brakes
  • Takeoff (Doors)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the maximum number of messages that can be displayed at one time on the EICAS?

A

The EICAS, without using the EICAS scroll bezel, can hold 15 messages.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What information is displayed on the EICAS screens?

A

EICAS stands for Engine Indication and Crew Alert System. It is responsible for presenting analog engine indications and some systems parameters like flaps, landing gear, spoilers and trim positions, total fuel quantity, APU and environmental information. In the upper right corner of the screen, the display presents crew awareness messages (warnings, cautions and advisories).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the takeoff and landing inhibition logic, and when does it become effective

A

Hides non critical eicas messages.

T/O- V1-15kts to RA above 400ft, after 1 minute or CAS less than 60 KTS (abort TO)

LND- 200RA to plane on ground over 3 secs or after 1 minute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How many channels does the Aural Warning Unit have (AWU)? How is the system powered?

A

There are two channels for the AWU, A (primary) and B (backup). The system is powered by two busses – Essential and DC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What configurations will get an unsatisfactory takeoff warning test?

A
  • Flaps are not in a takeoff configuration (9, 18, 22)
  • Parking brake is set
  • Pitch trim is out of the green range
  • Any spoiler panel is deployed
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What 2 critical items does takeoff config not check?

A

Gust lock and engines running

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What does the EGPWS provide?

A

Terrain Clearance Floor, Terrain Look Ahead Alerting and Terrain Awareness Display

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

How are stalls detected?

A

SPS system. One computer box with 2 independent channels. 2 AOA sensors and airspeed to detect. 2 Shaker/Actuators. PLI populates. and on speed band amber shaker/red pusher

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Does the stick shaker still work if an SPS channel fails? Does the stick pusher still work?

A

The SPS needs two functioning channels to activate the stick pusher, but only one for the stick shaker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Can the stick pusher be overridden? how does the system push the yoke forward?

A

Yes. The pusher can be overridden by pressing the red quick disconnect button on either pilots yoke.

via the stick pusher actuator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are the main DC and AC power Sources

A
  • Four independent engine-driven generators
  • One APU starter-generator
  • Two Ni-Cad batteries
  • One lead-acid backup battery
  • External power receptacle
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

How is ac power supplied and what runs off ac power?

A

AC inverter 115VAC. TCAS, EGPWS, Windshear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Assuming a cold, dark airplane to begin with, what happens when the battery switches are turned to AUTO?

A

Battery contactors 1 and 2 close, and the Electrical Distribution Logic configures the system so that all busses (minus the shed busses) are energized

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Describe normal operation system configuration?

A 
Rule of 5
5- two systems
4- two systems
3- one system
2- one system lose sheds
1- one system lose sheds
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

how are shed buses supplied power on the ground?

A

GPU
3 Gens online
1 Gen online and override

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Between the APU and GPU - Which power source has priority?

A

Whenever the Ground Power Unit is selected by the pilots as the electrical power source for the aircraft, it has priority over all internal sources of power.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Which Generators are on which engines?

A

ENG 1 = GEN 1/3

ENG 2= GEN 2/4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

When is GEN OVLD displayed?

A

Over 400A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What can the APU power?

A

in flight- everything except sheds

on ground- everything including sheds (if in OVRD)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Can the batteries be charged by the APU?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Can the batteries be charged by the GPU?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Which battery starts the APU?

A

Battery 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

How long can the aircraft batteries provide backup power for the electrical system?

A

In Flight 40 mins in essential.

On ground 10-15 minutes because aircraft isnt in essential mode.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

When do the engine-driven generators come online?

A

Roughly 56.4% N2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Where can all generator information be found?

A

On the electrical page of either pilot’s MFD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What critical items are on the hot busses?

A

Engine fire bottles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is the purpose of the OVRD function of the Shed bus switch?

A

To allow the shed busses to be energized when less than 3 generators are online

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

If a bus fault occurs, what will happen?

A

If a bus failure produces an over current, the GCU isolates the system networks by opening the bus tie contactors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Stabilized approach criteria

A 
1000ft
Landing configuration 
Glide path with 1000 or less vs
On track
Above idle thrust trending to approach speed

At 500ft
Speed +10 -0 from approach speed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

How does the APU provide power for the electrical system?

A

Once the APU is started, the generator is able to provide power for the entire electrical system on the ground with the Shed bus switch in the OVRD position. In flight, it is able to supplement generators or replace an off-line generator. Regardless of being in flight or on the ground, the APU line-contactor is what connects or disconnects the APU to/from the electrical system. The APU line contactor operators under the authority of the EDL, or can be manually manipulated by selecting or de-selecting the APU generator push-button

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What do inverters do?

A

They convert DC to AC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What systems do the inverters provide power to?

A

TCAS, GPWS and Windshear Computer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What, in general, does the fire protection system consist of?

A

The system consists of fire/overheat detection and extinguishing for the engines and APU. The baggage compartment is also provided with a smoke detection system and extinguishing system. In addition, the lavatory compartment is equipped with a dedicated smoke detection system, and a lavatory waste container fire extinguishing system. All in all, there are 6 fire extinguishing bottles. In addition to the internal fire detection and extinguishing systems, there are 2 portable halon fire extinguishers installed at the front and rear of the airplane that can be used to extinguish small fires in the cockpit or main cabin area. A single water fire extinguisher also exists.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

How is an engine fire detected?

A

Through a dedicated fire loop. Inside the fire loop contains a fixed volume of inert gas (Helium) and a gas-impregnated (Hydrogen) core material. This gas is responsible for sensing an over-heat condition. When an over-heat is detected, a pressure switch sends a fire (alarm) signal, which generates indications in the cockpit. When a fire is detected, the respective engine’s T-handle illuminates, an EICAS warning is generated (ENG1 (2) FIRE) and an aural warning is generated. The visual warnings of a fire remain activated as long as the fire signal exists. The aural warning may be cancelled by pressing the master warning light.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

How is a fire in the baggage compartment detected and extinguished?

A

Fire in the baggage compartment is detected through a smoke detection system. The system consists of two smoke detection modules installed on the compartment ceiling. Whenever smoke is detected, an EICAS warning is presented (BAGG SMOKE). The message disappears when smoke is no longer present. Two fire extinguishing bottles are installed in the rear electronic compartment for baggage compartment fire protection. One of the bottles is an instantaneous, one-time discharge, while the other provides a metered discharge of the fire extinguishing agent. The latter fire extinguishing bottle provides a discharge for approximately 50 minutes. Discharge of both of these fire bottles is controlled by one button in the cockpit, labeled BAGG, which is located on the center portion of the overhead panel.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What actions occur when a T-handle is pulled?

A

H-ENG Driven HYD SOV
A- ENG Bleed Air valve
L- ENG Lip Air Valve
F- Fuel SOV (Belly)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

How is an engine fire extinguished?

A

An engine fire can be extinguished two ways. The first way is to simply pull the respective engine’s T-handle. By pulling the associated T-handle, the fire is isolated from elements that could allow the fire to grow, or flame out the fire in its entirety. The second way is to rotate the T-handle, which discharges one of the two engine fire bottles (A or B) into the associated engine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

How is an APU fire extinguished?

A

By a dedicated fire bottle. When the APU fire extinguishing button is pressed, the APU fuel shutoff valve closes, an APU shutdown is initiated and the fire extinguishing bottle is discharged into the APU.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

How many fire bottles exist?

A

Six fire bottles exist. There are:

  • Two for the engines
  • One for the APU
  • Two for the baggage compartment
  • One for the lavatory waste compartment
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

How does the pilot know that a component of the fire detection system has failed?

A

An integrity switch inside the fire loops constantly monitor the loop’s integrity. In the event of a tear or break in the fire loop, the pressure inside the loop drops, which triggers the pressure switch inside the loop to send a fire-detect fail signal to the EICAS.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

How many smoke detectors are in the lavatory? Can the pilots control the lavatory waste container extinguishing bottle?

A

There is one smoke detector in the lavatory. A single fire extinguishing bottle is installed in the lavatory waste compartment. Discharge of this bottle is not accomplished by the pilots, but by sensitive heads that melt under high temperatures, which open an outlet passage on the extinguishing bottle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

How many smoke detectors are installed in the baggage compartment

A

There are 2 smoke detectors located on the compartment ceiling.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What occurs following a baggage compartment smoke detector detecting a fire?

A

A signal is sent to deactivate the baggage compartment fan and illuminate the baggage fire extinguisher button on the Fire Detection/Extinguishing panel. When smoke is no longer present, the baggage compartment fan is reactivated and the baggage fire extinguisher button light turns off

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

How is a fire detection test accomplished, and what are the indications that the test was passed?

A

Press Fidex button at least 2 seconds but no more than 10 seconds (10 secs will shut down the apu) if test done incorrectly wait 6 seconds before reattempting the following should be noted:

  • Both Master Warning and Caution are illuminated
  • Both fire handles are illuminated
  • BAGG EXT button is illuminated
  • EICAS Warnings – ENG 1(2) FIRE, APU FIRE, BAGG SMOKE
  • EICAS Cautions – ENG 1(2) FIREDET FAIL, APU FIREDET FAIL
  • Aural warning buzzer generates
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Is there a cockpit indication for lavatory smoke?

A

Yes. When lavatory smoke is detected, a LAV SMOKE Warning is generated on the EICAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Is it possible to discharge the engine fire bottles on a cold, dark airplane?

A

Yes. The electrical element of the engine fire protection system is powered via a Hot bus, meaning it is possible to discharge one of the fire extinguishing bottles on a completely powered down airplane.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

How can the pilots tell when an engine or APU fire extinguishing bottle has been used?

A
  • E1 (2) EXTBTLA INOP
  • E1 (2) EXTBTLB INOP
  • APU EXTBTL INOP
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What are the powered flight control surfaces?

A

The only flight controls that receive hydraulic assistance are the rudder and ailerons - They are mechanically actuated with hydraulic assistance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

How can the elevator pitch trim be operated, and where is this indicated?

A

Elevator pitch trim can be operated electronically by two split switches on each pilot’s control column (main channel). These switches, when moved, send a signal to an electric motor to position the entire horizontal stabilizer, thereby reducing control column forces. In the event of a main channel failure, pitch trim can be operated on a backup channel by an additional split switch on the aft portion of the center pedestal. Indications of pitch trim position are on the EICAS, and are represented by a numerical system and green band.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What does the elevator disconnect device handle do?

A

It mechanically disconnects the two elevators (left and right) from one another via the torque tube, and allows the free elevator to resume pitch control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

How are the ailerons, rudder, spoilers and speed brakes actuated? How do the rudder and ailerons operate in the event of a hydraulic failure?

A

The ailerons, rudder, spoilers and speed brakes are actuated hydraulically. In the event of a total hydraulic failure, the rudder and ailerons are mechanically actuated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Can hydraulic assistance to the ailerons and rudder be shut off? If so, how

A

Yes, via 4 push buttons on the hydraulic section of the overhead panel. There are two aileron shutoff buttons, which are normally selected to allow hydraulic assistance to the aileron systems. There are also two rudder shutoff push buttons, which are also normally selected to allow hydraulic assistance to the rudder system. When pressed (released), the associated control actuator is disabled and hydraulic assistance is removed from that particular system.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What does the EICAS message RUDDER OVERBOOST mean, and when would that message be displayed?

A

The message means that both rudder system hydraulic actuators are pressurized above 135 knots.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What three conditions must occur to activate rudder hardover protection?

A
  • Rudder deflected above 5 degrees +/- 1 degree
  • Force above 130 lbs. on the pedal to counteract rudder deflection
  • Both engines running above 56% N2
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What is the gust lock system, and how does it lock the elevator?

A

The system acts directly on the elevator panels and prevents them from moving. When engaged, locking pins, driven by an electro-mechanical actuator (commanded by the gust lock lever) place the locking pins in place, preventing elevator movement.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

How are the flaps actuated?

A

By two electric flap motors. The flap lever provides 5 detent settings (0, 9, 18, 22 and 45). When the flap lever is moved, a signal is transmitted to the Flap Electronic Control Unit (FECU) to move the flaps to the commanded setting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What is the purpose of the flap velocity sensors? what condition causes these to fail?

A

They are responsible for monitoring the speed of the flap motors. In the event that flap panel asymmetry is detected, the flap system is disabled.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What conditions must be met for ground (inboard) spoilers to open?

A
  • Airplane on ground
  • Main landing gear wheel speed greater than 25 knots
  • Both engine thrust lever angles set to below 30 degrees or both engines N2 below 56%
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What conditions must be met for the speed brakes (outboard spoilers) to open?

A
  • Speed brake lever set to OPEN
  • Thrust lever angle of both engines set to below 50 degrees
  • Flaps at 0 or 9 degrees
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Under what conditions is the stick pusher inhibited?

A
  • On the ground (except during SPS test)
  • Below 0.5 Gs
  • If the quick disconnect button is pressed
  • Below 200 ft. AGL (if RA is failed, this condition reverts to a 10 second delay after takeoff)
  • If any SPS cutout buttons are released
  • Above 200 KIAS
  • If one SPS channel is inoperative
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What are the travel limits of the rudder?

A

+/-15 degrees on the ground and in flight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

How many rudder actuators are there?

A

The rudder PCU is a dual hydraulic unit, simultaneously powered by both hydraulic systems. Each PCU hydraulic circuit controls the hydraulic power to one respective rudder actuator. Because of this, the rudder system is divided into Rudder System 1 and Rudder System 2.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What would happen to the rudder if the hydraulic system lost power?

A

Both rudder systems would lose hydraulic assistance, and the rudder would operate purely mechanically.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Describe some of the main system components of the fuel system

A

The fuel system, in general, is divided into two separate systems, and is separated by a cross-feed valve, which is controllable by the pilots. Fuel is fed by gravity into a collector box in each main wing tank. From there, the collector boxes in each side of the wing stub keeps the electrical pump inlets submerged. To prevent pump cavitation, ejector pumps and flap valves ensure enough fuel is in the collector boxes at all times. Inside each main wing tank there are 3 electric pumps which send fuel to the engines. One pump is capable of supplying fuel for both engines and APU under all flight phases, except for takeoff and go around. The pumps are assisted by engine driven fuel pumps (1 for each engine) that are capable of suction feeding the engines up to FL250 in the event that no electric fuel pumps are available. The ventral tank has a collector box in its front center with two electrical pumps inside. When ventral fuel transfer occurs, fuel goes from the ventral tank to each main wing tank.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What provides high pressure fuel to the engines?

A

The Fuel Pump and Metering Unit (FPMU) controls and supplies fuel to the engine nozzles at correct pressure and flow rate for engine start, correct engine operation, and engine stop. There is one FPMU for each engine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What is another function of the FPMUs?

A

On top of providing high pressure fuel to the engines, the FPMUs are responsible for controlling the compressor variable geometry vanes (CVG).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

How are the main tanks divided?

A

By a cross-feed valve

By manipulating the cross-feed valve via the cross-feed switch, pilots can de-energize the currently selected electric fuel pump in either wing tank. This allows fuel from one side of the fuel system to feed the opposite side engine or APU. Said another way: Under normal circumstances, pilots cannot transfer fuel between main wing tanks, but instead use fuel from one side of the fuel system to feed both sides.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

How is the aircraft fueled?

A

By either pressure or gravity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What are the magna-sticks, and how are they used?

A

Three measuring sticks under each wing allow the pilots to verify fuel quantity prior to departure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What does the FUELING DOOR OPN EICAS caution message mean?

A

That the refueling panel door is open

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

What does the E1 (2) FUEL LO PRESS EICAS message mean?

A

That fuel pressure has dropped below 6.5 psi.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Can the cross-feed valve be open during the takeoff or go-around phases of flight?

A

No.
It is important to know this because as of right now, there isn’t a dedicated checklist item that states the cross-feed valve must be closed. Prior to departure and before landing, it is the pilot’s responsibility to check the EICAS for the FUEL XFEED OPEN advisory and place the crossfeed knob to the OFF position at the appropriate time.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What is MIN/TO fuel?

A

The minimum fuel which must be onboard prior to becoming airborne, which allows the flight to operate as released. This is calculated by adding the Burn, Holding, Alternate Burn, Reserve, and Missed Approach fuel totals.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

When does a destination alternate need to be listed on the flight plan?

A

16VITSUBK

there’s an exemption for international

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

How far away can a takeoff alternate airport be from the departure point?

A

250 NM.

1 ENG still air cruise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

What are the weather minimums required for the destination airport?

A

A flight may not be released or operated under IFR unless appropriate weather reports or forecasts, or any combination thereof, indicate that the weather conditions will be at or above the authorized IFR landing minimums at the ETA.

97
Q

Exemption 17347

A

WWAC worst weather always controlling. Exemption 17347 is relief from conditional statements in TAF. 2 alts required. 50/50/100 rule. Uses derived minimums. 200 and 1/2 or 400/1

98
Q

When are two alternate airports required?

A

17347 or marginal at dest and first alternate. marginal is 100-1/2 above landing minimums

99
Q

Are circle-to-land procedures authorized?

A

Yes, although there are limitations. CommutAir is authorized to fly circle-to-land approaches to visual approach minimums only, e.g., 1000 feet HAA or MDA, whichever is higher, and 3 miles visibility.

100
Q

What are the LAHSO requirements?

A
  • Available landing distance to the hold-short point of 6,000 feet
  • Dry runway
  • Flaps 45 must be used
  • No tailwind component
  • No windshear reports on ATIS or pilot-reported in the previous 20 minutes
  • Vertical guidance – Electronic (ILS) or visual (VASI or PAPI only)
  • Compliance with the rejected landing procedure (RLP) if required. This information will be disseminated by FDC NOTAMS
  • Night LAHSO will be conducted only where approved FAA Lighting Configuration for LAHSO is installed and operational
101
Q

Are we authorized to do ferry flights under FAR Part 91? What about positioning flights?

A

Yes, and yes.

102
Q

when is a release amendment required.

A
103
Q

Can we ever exceed a holdover time?

A

The short answer is: no. The expanded answer is: If a holdover time of the anti-icing fluid will be exceeded prior to crossing the hold-short line, and icing conditions exist, a pre-takeoff contamination check of the aircraft must be performed to ensure that all critical surfaces of the aircraft are free from contamination. Currently, there are no company employees or vendors that are trained to accomplish this check outside of the aircraft – Because of this, a pre-takeoff contamination check is currently not authorized.

104
Q

What is the clean aircraft concept?

A

FAR’s state that no person may takeoff an aircraft when frost, ice or snow is adhering to the wings, control surfaces, propellers, engine inlets or other critical surfaces of the aircraft.

105
Q

What are the critical surfaces of the EMB-145

A

wings, flaps, ailerons, stabilizer, rudder, engine inlets, vents, drains, probes

106
Q

What are special airports, and what are the PIC’s responsibilities when operating to them?

A

The FAA has designated certain airports for operations as “special airports” due to surrounding terrain, obstructions or complex approach or departure procedures. No person may act as PIC to or from such an airport unless within the preceding 12 calendar months: flown into, other pilot flown into or pictorially trained

107
Q

What must occur if a checklist has been interrupted for more than 1 minute

A

The checklist must be re-started from the beginning

108
Q

what is a MEL, CDL, NEF

A

MEL- mx deferral
CDL- deferral for missing
NEF- non essential furnishing

109
Q

Regarding MEL procedures, can pilots accomplish maintenance (M) procedures?

A

The (M) symbol indicates a requirement for a specific maintenance procedure which must be accomplished prior to operation with the listed item inoperative. Normally, these procedures are accomplished by maintenance personnel; however, other personnel (such as the pilots) may be qualified and authorized to perform certain functions under the supervision of maintenance (over the phone, for instance). Procedures requiring special knowledge or skill, or requiring the use of tools or test equipment, should be accomplished by maintenance personnel

110
Q

What is sterile cockpit, and how is the flight attendant made aware of it being in effect?

A

no talking, distractions unrelated to safe flight operations in all critical phases. This includes taxi up to 10k and reversed on the way down unless cruise phase is below 10k

111
Q

How many systems are there?

A

There are 2 independent hydraulic systems

112
Q

What items are located on the #1 system? What about the number 2 system?

A

Everything on each system is labeled on the Hydraulic section of the overhead panel. However, landing gear operation is unique to system 1, while the emergency/parking brake operation is unique to system 2.

113
Q

What is the minimum fluid quantity required for dispatch?

A

1 liter

114
Q

What is the priority valve, and what does it do?

A

If the # 1 hydraulic system is powered by the # 1 electric pump and the landing gear is commanded to retract, the valve will provide minimum flow to the landing gear system and give priority to the flight control surfaces. In this case, the landing gear will operate through stored accumulator pressure

115
Q

When do the standby pumps operate?

A

The pumps normally operate in the AUTO mode, turning on whenever associated hydraulic pressure drops below 1600 PSI, or when N2 drops below 56.4%.

116
Q

If an engine fails on takeoff, will the hydraulic systems be affected in any way?

A

Assuming the electric standby pumps are in the AUTO mode, neither of the hydraulic systems will be lost, and normal operation will be possible.

117
Q

How are the main pumps driven

A

By the N2 via the tower shaft. The engine-driven pumps are a part of the accessory gear box on each engine

118
Q

Prior to conducting the hydraulic test, what EICAS message should be present?

A

STEER INOP

119
Q

How can the pneumatic anti-icing system be enabled?

A

The pneumatic anti-ice system is fully automatic. Under icing conditions in flight, the entire system protection is activated. On the ground, there is a system protection built in which inhibits the wing and stabilizer anti-ice valves from opening whenever wheel speed is below 25 knots. This inhibition can only be overridden when performing a test of the pneumatic anti-ice system. In the event fails to automatically engage in icing conditions, per the QRH, the ice detection override knob may be set to ALL to engage the system.

120
Q

What surfaces does the thermal (pneumatic) anti-icing system cover?

A
  • Engine nacelle (lips)
  • Wing leading edges
  • Horizontal stabilizer leading edges
121
Q

What are the electrically heated areas

A
  • Windshields
  • Pitot tubes, pitot-static tube, AOA sensors, TAT probes and pressurization static ports
  • Lavatory water drain and water service nipples
122
Q

When do the electrically heated areas receive heat?

A

Any time an engine is running, all the electrically heated elements receive heat, with the exception of the TAT probes, which only receive heat when the engine lips are receiving pneumatic heat.

123
Q

How does the system automatically detect icing conditions? How will the crew know if the system is functioning properly?

A

There are 2 ice detectors installed at the left and right nose section of the aircraft. They are designed to pick up ice quickly, and once ice is being detected, a signal is transmitted to activate the pneumatic anti-ice system. During icing encounters, the icing signal remains valid for 60 seconds, and an advisory (ICE CONDITION) is displayed on the EICAS. Simultaneously, an internal ice detector is heated to de-ice the unit and probe. When the probe is de-iced, its natural frequency is recovered and heating of the probe ceases. With the natural frequency of the probe restored, the probe is cool enough to once more monitor ice buildup. This cycle then repeats itself until icing conditions no longer exist.

124
Q

Can thermal anti-icing be provided by the APU?

A

No, it cannot. While the engines have multiple stages of compression, the APU only has one, and is not able to provide dense/hot enough air to run the thermal anti-ice system.

125
Q

Where does anti-ice bleed air for the horizontal stabilizer come from

A

Normally from engine bleed number 1 (left side of the pneumatic system). However, limited anti-ice capability can be provided by a single engine bleed up to 15,000 feet

126
Q

How is ground and in-flight icing defined?

A

in flight TAT less than 10 and visible moisture

on ground less than 10 OAT and visible moisture below 1700AGL

127
Q

How is engine lip anti-icing provided? Can it be manually selected?

A

The engine anti-ice valves open automatically as a function of system logic. They will receive an electrical input to open when the ice detection override knob is set to AUTO and any ice detector is activated. The valves can be manually commanded to open by placing the ice detection override knob to ALL or ENG, or by testing the ice protection system per AOM procedures.

128
Q

When are the horizontal stabilizer and win anti-icing systems inhibited?

A

On the ground, with a wheel speed of less than 25 knots. This is to prevent structural damage caused by surface heating.

129
Q

How is minimum compressor speed (N2) maintained during low thrust settings in icing conditions?

A

The FADEC for each engine provides an automatic logic to ensure a minimum available thrust during icing conditions, even during low thrust settings to compensate for increased bleed air consumption. This is done automatically with no pilot intervention, any time the aircraft is in flight and icing conditions are detected.

130
Q

What is the desired holding configuration of the aircraft when holding in icing conditions?

A

gear up
flaps up
min 200KIAS

131
Q

What is the nosewheel turning range with rudder pedals alone?

A

5 degrees

132
Q

What is the nosewheel turning range with full tiller deflection and rudder pedals?

A

76 degrees

133
Q

Do you need a fully operating nosewheel steering system in order to steer the aircraft with the rudder pedals?

A

No, although in the event the steering system has been disengaged, turning ability through the rudder pedals alone is a function of rudder authority (airspeed).

134
Q

How does the landing gear operate?

A

The landing gear is electronically commanded, hydraulically actuated and mechanically locked. When the landing gear lever is placed to the UP or DOWN position, a signal is transmitted to the Landing Gear Electronic Unit (LGEU) which subsequently allows hydraulic fluid to either extend or retract the landing gear. Landing gear extension and retraction is provided by hydraulic system 1. The main gear retracts inboard, while the nose gear retracts forward. Each main gear leg is mechanically linked to its respective door, which remains open when the gear is down. The doors close automatically when the main landing gear is retracted. The nose gear landing doors are hydraulically actuated and operate in sequence with the nose gear.

135
Q

What is the minimum parking brake pressure?

A

Although parking brake pressure is not monitored directly by the pilots, a caution message, EMRG BRK LO PRES, is displayed on the EICAS in case of low pressure inside the #2 accumulator.

136
Q

What are the two methods of alternate gear extension, and how do they work

A

free fall actuator

electrical override

137
Q

Can the gear be pumped up?

A

no

138
Q

What are the weight on wheel sensors, and what is their purpose?

A

The Air/Ground indication logic is relatively simple. A series of transmitters relay shock-absorber compression, and send that information to various aircraft systems. The system consists of 5 weight-on-wheels proximity switches. There are 2 on each main landing gear, and one on the nose landing gear leg. Certain system logic is enforced depending on whether or not the system determines an AIR or GROUND signal. For example, on the ground, clicking the TO/GA buttons engages T/O sub-mode on the Flight Mode Annunciator (FMA), when, in the air, clicking the TO/GA buttons engages GA sub-mode on the FMA. While the main landing gear proximity switches send signals to multiple systems, the nose landing gear proximity switch signal is sent only to the thrust reverser logic and nosewheel steering control.

139
Q

Under what conditions do you get the gear warning annunciation?

A

There are multiple answers to this question. In general, the landing gear warning logic operations as a function of RA value and flap setting. The pilots will receive a gear warning when one of the three following scenarios occur with the gear not in the down and locked position:
0,9,18 can be cancelled
-RA value below 1200, low thrust lever angle
-RA value below 1200, flaps selector between 22 and 45 and low thrust lever angle
-Flaps lever selected at 45

140
Q

What receiver modules are displayed on the integrated navigation unit?

A

The Integrated Navigation Unit is a complete self-contained navigation system. The system consists of the VOR, localizer, glide slope and marker beacon receiver modules, the ADF module, a six-channel scanning DME module, and audio digitizers. The system also incorporates two L-Band antenna (optional), two ADF antenna (optional), two MB antenna, two VOR/ILS antenna and one GS dual antenna.

141
Q

If increasing performance windshear is detected, what happens? What about decreasing performance windshear?

A

For increasing performance windshear:
Amber Windshear message
“caution windshear”

For decreasing winshear:
Red windshear message
“Windshear x3”

142
Q

What is the appropriate response if windshear is encountered

A
  • Apply maximum available thrust
  • Disengage the autopilot, press the TO/GA buttons to activate windshear escape mode and rotate smoothly at a normal rate to the command bars
  • Adjust pitch attitude smoothly and in small increments to control vertical speed and altitude
  • Maintain present configuration (gear and flaps) until terrain contact is no longer a factor
143
Q

What is the Tuning Backup Control Head (TBCH), and what is its primary function?

A

The TBCH is a unit that provides an alternative means of tuning NAV 2 and COM 2, should the normal means (RMU) fail.

144
Q

How does a pilot know that the RMU has been cross-tuned

A

Any frequency change that has been made remotely via cross-tune will be displayed in yellow

145
Q

What does the TCS button do?

A

TCS stands for touch control steering. It allows for manual maneuvering of the airplane without disengaging the autopilot.

146
Q

The ISIS provides standby indications of the following

A
  • Attitude (pitch and roll)
  • Barometric altitude
  • Indicated airspeed
  • Indicated mach number
  • VMO
  • Skid/slip indication
  • Magnetic heading
147
Q

How many oxygen systems are there, and how do they work?

A

2 systems
crew uses oxygen cylinder supplied via masks. lasts 2 hours

pax use a series of oxygen generators. chemical reaction and lasts 15 minutes

148
Q

How much oxygen is left when the EICAS message “OXYGEN LO PRESS” is displayed

A

Approximately 12 minutes for the pilot, copilot and observer

149
Q

What is the minimum crew oxygen pressure for dispatch?

A

1100 or 1500psi

1500 for the ACM

150
Q

What powers the Emergency Lights?

A

4 independent batteries which provide power for 15 minutes. charged off ess bus when not active.

151
Q

What emergency equipment is located in the cockpit?

A 
4 1's 2 2's 3 3's 
PBE
Crash Axe
Gloves
Fire extinguisher
2 flashlights
2 escape ropes
3 life vests
3 oxygen masks
3 smoke goggles
152
Q

What are the QNH limits?**

A

On the TLR Planned Section, a planned QNH (PQNH) reads the altimeter setting at which the TLR was generated. The TLR is valid if the actual altimeter setting at the time of departure is no greater than .1 less than the PQNH. For example, if the planned QNH is 29.92, the actual QNH may be no less than 29.82 without generating a new TLR. No action is required when the actual altimeter setting is greater than the PQNH, although payload carrying capability may be greater.

153
Q

What happens if the temperature is greater than the POAT for takeoff?

A

There isn’t any specific protocol to follow regarding the POAT. However, when the final takeoff performance numbers are being set, there is a maximum temperature column (MT) next to the MTOW that applies for the runway, takeoff weight and runway condition that is selected for takeoff. This number represented in degrees Celsius. For a given weight and set of conditions, the MT number may not be exceeded. If such is the case for a given weight, a new thrust rating (T/O, E/TO) may yield a lower MT – A new TLR may have to be generated to accommodate this scenario.

154
Q

How would a tailwind be taken into account for landing?

A

Regarding the Maximum Runway Landing Weight, the Tailwind adjustment must be subtracted from the MRLW any time landing will be attempted with a tailwind. Regarding the Minimum Field Length, wind adjustments are in terms of distance per knot of wind. For example, with a TW/KT of 92 – a 10 knot tailwind landing would require an additional 920 feet of available landing distance.

155
Q

What kind of Engine Failure Path (EFP/Turn Procedure) is used for runway 22R in Newark

A

look it up

156
Q

What is the difference between a Standard and Simple-Special turn procedure?

A

Simple Special EFPs are provided when Standard EFPs cannot be used due to obstacle requirements. There are several things that make a particular EFP a Simple-Special instead of Standard, such as:

  • A turn required before reaching 1,000 ft. above field elevation
  • A non-standard acceleration altitude
  • Multiple turns
157
Q

How can a Simple-Special EFP be identified on the TLR?

A

Simple-Special EFPs are listed as SPECIAL on the Takeoff Report

158
Q

When can all-engines-operating turns be made below 1,000 ft. above field elevation?

A

Turns can be made below 1,000 ft. above field elevation when one of the following parameters are met:

  • When required by a Special Departure Procedure
  • When required by a Departure Procedure/SID
  • Prevailing weather conditions are equal to or better than 1000 ft. ceiling and 3SM visibility
  • By request from ATC after radar contact is established
159
Q

Are penalties for landing cumulative?

A

Yes, penalties are cumulative.

160
Q

What is factored landing distance?

A

Simply put, the factored landing distance as listed on the Landing section of the TLR, gives the minimum runway length that complies with FAR 121.195. Compliance with this is required for the flight to be dispatched legally. If unable to comply with this rule, an alternate airport must be designated on the release that does

161
Q

What are the three possible sources for bleed air?

A
  • Engine compression stages (9th or 14th stage)
  • APU
  • Ground pneumatic source
162
Q

What systems use bleed air

A

Engine starting, air conditioning, pressurization and anti-ice.

163
Q

Where does engine bleed air come from, and what uses it?

A

Engine bleed air comes from the 9th and 14th stages. The 9th stage is low pressure bleed air, and the 14th stage is high pressure bleed air.

164
Q

What happens when the engine bleeds are selected (pushed in)

A

It depends. If the engines are running, pushing the engine bleed push-buttons in will open the engine bleed valves. If the engines aren’t running, pushing the bleed push-buttons in won’t do anything.

165
Q

What is the high stage valve (HSV), and how does it open/close?

A

The HSV is responsible for cycling between 9th stage low pressure engine bleed air and 14th stage high pressure engine bleed air. It is electrically commanded and pneumatically actuated (electro-pneumatic). It operates under the authority of a pressure switch, which automatically opens the valve during low engine thrust operations, cross-bleed engine starts and pneumatic anti-ice system activation to allow 14th stage bleed air to run the system. As thrust increases, the HSV closes and the 9th stage bleed air check valve opens, supplying 9th stage low pressure engine bleed air to the system.

166
Q

When does the #1 Pack automatically close?

A

The #1 Pack valve automatically closes whenever the pneumatic anti-ice system is operating and the aircraft is below 24,600 ft.

167
Q

Pack Shutoff Logic

A 
One Pack:
Loss of bleed
Iicing (24600)
Pack OVHT
Pack OVLD
Both Packs:
Eng Start
Essential Power
Go Around
One Engine INOP
168
Q

How is the cabin ventilated if the ECUs fail?

A

By two ram air inlets. In the event both ECUs fail, the ram air inlets open, which allow the cabin to be supplied with fresh air.

169
Q

What are the outflow valves? How many are there, and what are they responsible for?

A

There are two outflow valves located in the rear of the aircraft. Under normal operation, the two outflow valves work in unison to control the outflow of cabin air to maintain a desired cabin altitude. The main outflow valve is automatic and is electronically commanded and pneumatically actuated. The backup (manual) outflow valve is essentially the same thing, but is normally slaved to the main outflow valve when the system is operating in the automatic mode. In the event of a main outflow valve (automatic mode) failure, the backup outflow valve can be controlled by a rotary knob in the cockpit, allowing the crew to maintain desired cabin pressure

170
Q

When does the takeoff sequence for pressurization end?

A

The takeoff sequence lasts until the theoretical cabin altitude becomes greater than the actual cabin altitude, or until 15 minutes have elapsed since the sequence initiation (thrust set), whichever occurs first.

171
Q

When can the APU supply bleed air for pressurization and temperature control?

A

Whenever the APU is running, the APU bleed valve push button is selected (pushed in) and neither engine is supplying bleed air to the left side of the pneumatic system.

172
Q

Which side of the pneumatic system is the APU bleed air connected to?

A

The left side of the pneumatic system

173
Q

How is the APU bleed valve actuated, and when does the APU bleed valve close?

A

The APU bleed valve is electronically commanded and pneumatically actuated (electro-pneumatic). It will close:

  • Whenever it is contesting an engine bleed valve to supply air for either side of the pneumatic system
  • Whenever the APU shuts down
  • Whenever the APU bleed valve push button is de-selected (pushed out)
174
Q

How can the pilots tell that the APU bleed valve is open?

A

By noting an OPEN inscription on the APU bleed valve push button

175
Q

Where are the ECUs located?

A

The ECUs are installed forward of the wing root, inside the wing-to-fuselage fairing. The #1 ECU is on the left side of the aircraft, while the #2 ECU is on the right side of the aircraft.

176
Q

What are the cabin recirculation fans? How are they controlled?

A

The cabin recirculation subsystem consists of two recirculation fans. These fans are controlled by the pilots by a push-button on the overhead panel, and must be pushed out (turned off) in the event there is smoke in the cabin. They are responsible for re-circulating fresh air throughout the cabin.

177
Q

When are some of the malfunctions that will cause the ECUs to automatically shut down without pilot intervention

A

PACK OVLD

PACK OVHT

178
Q

What two stages are bleed air tapped from?

A

9th stage

14th stage

179
Q

How is the Accessory Gear Box powered?

A

The accessory gear box is powered via a tower shaft that is connected to the high-pressure turbine (N2)

180
Q

What components are located on the accessory gear box?

A 
Hyd pump
Oil pump
Fuel pump
Generators
ATS
PMA
181
Q

What are the three sources of air for engine start?

A

APU bleed air
Cross-bleed air
External air

182
Q

What is the preferred source of air for engine start?

A

APU bleed air

183
Q

What is the FPMU and what does it do? What operates it?

A

The FPMU controls and supplies fuel to the engine nozzles at correct pressure and flow rate for engine start, correct engine operation, engine stop, and also controls the compressor variable geometry vanes. The FPMU for each engine operates under the full authority of the FADECS.

184
Q

How does the fuel shutoff valve work?

A

The fuel shutoff valves in the belly are only activated (fuel cutoff) by pulling either of the T-handles. For each engine, there is a separate latching shutoff valve (controlled by the pilot via the Start/Stop selector switch) that shuts off fuel immediately prior to the engine, should the Start/Stop selector be placed to the stop position.

185
Q

What is the FCOC and what is its function?

A

FCOC stands for Fuel-Cooled Oil-Cooler. In the most basic sense, it is a heat exchanger that cools oil by allowing it to come to close contact with much cooler fuel

186
Q

What page of the MFD displays the engine oil level, and engine oil pressure

A

Either pilot’s MFD T/O page will display each engine’s oil level. The main place that the oil pressure is read is off the EICAS

187
Q

What is the minimum oil level for dispatch?

A

8 quarts
7 for eng start
6 for takeoff

188
Q

When does the engine oil quantity text turn amber?

A

below 6 quarts

189
Q

What is the primary source for engine control and ignition? How is this driven? When does it provide sufficient power to drive the ignition system and the FADECs?

A
  • Each engine operates under the full authority of its respective FADEC
  • PMAs are the engine’s ignition source
  • PMAs are driven by the N2 via the tower shaft
  • At around 10% N2, there is enough rotation for the PMAs to power the igniters in each engine
  • Above 50% N2, the PMAs are responsible for powering the FADECs
  • Below 50% N2, the FADECs are powered by the aircraft’s essential busses
190
Q

How many igniters are there in each engine? What is AUTO mode and how many igniters are used and when?

A

2 igniters in each engine
-AUTO mode allows the FADEC to control how many igniters are responsible for engine start
o In AUTO mode:
-1 igniter is used on the ground for normal engine start
-2 igniters are used for auto-relight (ground or flight)

191
Q

What is the thrust lever detent

A

The detent is a notch that the thrust levers sit in whenever full thrust is requested for a given thrust mode. There is room to advance the thrust levers beyond the detent to request max available thrust regardless of the respective pilot-selected engine mode, however, this is only done in the event of wind-shear or an ATTCS failure.

192
Q

Where is the FADEC in command displayed?

A

On the EICAS

193
Q

What happens when there is an inadvertent thrust reverser deployment in flight?

A

The FADEC in command automatically brings the thrust in the respective engine to idle, regardless of thrust lever angle

194
Q

How is the maximum available thrust for each selected takeoff thrust rating calculated?

A

By the FADEC, with input from the pilot on the MFD T/O page. Using the T/O data store button, the pilot selects the thrust mode, temperature (as reported by the ATIS) and the anti-ice mode. After the engines are started, the FADEC either accepts or rejects the T/O data. If accepted, the N1 target is displayed on the EICAS in cyan lettering.

195
Q

What happens in the thrust lever is forward of the idle position and the start/stop selectors are placed in the stop position?

A

The respective engine will not shut down.

196
Q

When can CLB and CRZ modes be selected?

A

Operationally speaking, CLB thrust mode can be selected when the PF calls “Climb thrust” on the takeoff profile. CRZ thrust mode can be selected when the PF calls for the Cruise Check

197
Q

What must be entered by the pilot for the takeoff data setting?

A
  • Thrust mode (driven by the TLR)
  • ATIS temperature
  • Anti-ice on/off
198
Q

What is the purpose of the ATTCS?

A

ATTCS = Automatic Takeoff Thrust Control System. In layman’s terms – Whenever an engine fails, the system automatically (without pilot input) increases thrust on the operating engine to increase single-engine performance.

199
Q

When will the FADEC select T/O RSV mode? T/O mode?

A

In layman’s terms, whenever the ATTCS system receives an engine-out signal, ATTCS is activated

200
Q

How would you know that the takeoff data was not accepted by the FADECS?

A

“ENG NO T/O DATA” would be displayed on the EICAS

201
Q

How are the thrust reversers actuated? Activated? Locked?

A
  • Electrically acommanded
  • Hydraulically actuated
  • Mechanically and hydraulically locked
202
Q

What is the Maximum Allowable Takeoff Weight (MATOW)?

A

Based on performance and flight limitations, it is the lowest of:

  • AFM Maximum Allowable Structural Takeoff Weight (53131)
  • Planned Maximum Runway Takeoff Weight (PMRTW from TLR)
  • Planned Maximum Enroute Weight (TLR)
  • Maximum Structural Landing Weight (44092 + Fuel Burn)
  • Maximum Zero Fuel Weight (40785) + Fuel on Board – Taxi Fuel
  • Planned Maximum Runway Landing Weight (From TLR) + Fuel Burn
203
Q
  • Where did the Performance Limit come from?
A

This comes from the TLR and is labeled as the PMRTW (Planned Maximum Runway Takeoff Weight). This number is computed by CommutAir’s performance vendor – AeroData, and takes into account various things for any given runway such as:

  • Accelerate-stop distance
  • Takeoff distance
  • Obstacle clearance
  • Takeoff climb
204
Q

What is the result if two passengers move to a difference section?

A

On top of making sure that the MATOW isn’t exceeded, the pilots must make sure that the C.G is within acceptable tolerances. This means that weight shifts (passenger movement) may be required from time to time. If a weight shift is necessary, accomplish the following procedure using the SeeGee Calculator:

205
Q

How are children accounted for on the LM4?

A

Children are accounted for as adults, and then 100 lbs. is subtracted for each child on board and recorded onto the LM4 worksheet under the CORRECTIONS/ADJUSTMENT section.

206
Q

How much does a lap child weigh?

A

Lap children are not taken into account on the LM4 worksheet

207
Q

What is the maximum occupancy

A

Not taking into account lap children, crew or jumpseaters, the maximum occupancy is 50 passengers.

208
Q

What does it mean when a check mark is placed in the shaded index area next to the actual zero fuel weight and landing weight on the LM4 worksheet

A

Both checks ensure that the numbers are below the associated max allowable limit, and that the loading is within envelope limits.

209
Q

What do the caution areas indicate on the SeeGee calculator

A

If the final index falls in a Caution Zone, it is required that passengers be seated according to instructions in that zone. The instructions for each zone are as follows:

forward caution zone requires pax to sit in aft portion of their sections and reversed for aft caution zone.

210
Q

How are flightdeck jumpseaters accounted for?

A

Jumpseaters are accounted for on the LM4 by a dedicated slot (labeled ACM) under the WEIGHT AND BALANCE section. Regardless of the time of year, jumpseaters are accounted for by adding 190 lbs. to the ACM section. On the SeeGee calculator, on the right hand side, an ACM line and dedicated index exists to account for a flightdeck jumpseater.

211
Q

How much does a passenger weigh in the Summer? How about the Winter? When do these changes go into effect?

A

184lbs/189lbs. heavier in winter

212
Q

What is Min/TO fuel

A 
All fuel required from Takeoff to destination
Burn
Hold
Alternate
Reserve
Missed
213
Q

what is divert fuel

A

fuel to fly from destination to furthest alternate with an additional 45 minutes reserve fuel

214
Q

what is final divert fuel

A

fuel to fly from destination to furthest alternate plus 30 minutes of emergency fuel

215
Q

reserve fuel

A

45 minutes roughly 1800lbs

216
Q

oxygen low pressure eicas

A

12 minutes for both pilots/acm. 400psi

217
Q

when are the emergency lights on?

A

when turned on or automatically in electrical emergency

218
Q

which 3 doors have eicas CAUTIONS

A

fuel door
bagg door
access doors

219
Q

which readings are specified on the isis

A 
hdg via ahrs 1
attitude
airspeed
altitude
skid
220
Q

which reciever modes are displayed on the integrated navigation unit?

A

loc, gs, vor, dme, adf, audio digitizer

221
Q

what happens if the stick pusher actuators pressurize in flight

A

pushes nose down and disconnects the autopilot

222
Q

what is the primary component of the avionics integration system?

A

two ic600 computers aka the symbol generators

223
Q

how many systems pages can be displayed on pfd

A 
5 pages
to page
ecs
electric page 
fuel 
hydraulic
224
Q

where are the fire extinguishers located

A

baggage bottles in rear avionics bay
(in pressurized location)
the eng/apu bottles are in the rear equipment bay
(unpressurized area)

225
Q

after detection of ice by ice detectors how long does icing signal remain active?

A

During icing encounters, the icing signal remains valid for 60 seconds,

226
Q

in an electrical emergency the only heated sensors are?***

A

s

227
Q

What powers the rudder pcu?

A

dual hydraulic unit powered by both systems. system 1 comes off in flight above 135kts to prevent rudder overboost

228
Q

how many flap panels per wing?

A

2 per wing

229
Q

when performing a test of the stall protection system what must be disengaged?

A

gust lock

230
Q

how many spoilers are there?

A
  1. 2 inboard 2 outboard. outboard is speed brakes. in board are ground spoilers. all 4 actuate on landing roll.
231
Q

what is the priority valve?

A

on system 1. when powered by ele pump, landing gear is separated from flight controls to prioritize flight controls. gear retraction accomplished by accumulator pressure with minimal flow from system 1

232
Q

what happens if the fpmu fails?***

A

i believe the engine will shutdown

233
Q

how does the fpmu interface with the fuel system?

A

it operates under fadec authority and provides fuel supply to the engine nozzles at correct pressure/flow rate. it also controls cvg’s

234
Q

how is fuel provided to the main pump?

A

the fuel pump sits inside a collector tank submerged in fuel to prevent cavitation.

235
Q

how does fuel get transferred between tank bays?

A

fuel is moved into the collector box via flap valves and a ejector pump

236
Q

what does FUELING ON caution tell you?***

A

s

237
Q

Why cant fuel be transferred when FUELING ON caution is illuminated?***

A

s

238
Q

Paperwork on plane

A 
Logbook
Registration 
Airworthiness 
FCC license
Air operator certificate 
Liquor license 
Noise level cert
Qrh
Qrc

Commutair 145 NOV2020 (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions