Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Systems Pathology II Midterm > Oral Cavity > Flashcards

Oral Cavity Flashcards

1
Q

What are the clinical terms used for a canker sore?

A

Aphthous ulcer, recurrent aphthous stomatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Canker sores affect what percent of the population?

A

40%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Describe the appearance of a canker sore?

A

Shallow ulceration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How long does it take for a canker sore to heal on its own?

A

7-10 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Are aphthous ulcers contagious?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the age and gender bias for recurrent aphthous stomatitis?

A

Females less than 20 years old

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are risk factors for canker sores?

A

Genetics, IBD (celiac disease), Behçet disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What things can be triggers for canker sores?

A

Smoking, stress, trauma, fever, certain foods

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the treatment for a canker sore?

A

Avoid causative agents, NSAIDs, corticosteroids, vitamin B12 (cobalamin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the term for the development of oral lesions due to the herpes simplex virus (HSV)?

A

Herpetic stomatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

At what age is one more likely to have the initial infection of herpetic stomatitis?

A

2-4 years (young children)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Is herpetic stomatitis largely symptomatic or asymptomatic?

A

Asymptomatic (80%)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What percentage of those with herpetic stomatitis go on to develop acute herpetic gingivostomatitis?

A

10-20%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Why are most adults carriers for the herpes simplex virus?

A

Latent infection that lies dormant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Where does the herpes simplex I virus lie dormant?

A

Trigeminal ganglion (C.N. V)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the most common locations for oral herpetic lesions?

A

Labial, nasal, buccal, gingival, hard palate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Does every HSV-1 infection affect only the orofacial region, and does every HSV-2 infection affect only the genital region?

A

NO (may infect either location)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the clinical term for the infection presented in the genital region by the herpes simplex 2 virus?

A

Herpes genitalis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What kinds of things can provoke a herpes simplex infection to recur?

A

UV light, pyrexia, cold, trauma, URTI, pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How long does it take for the vesicles of a herpes simplex infection to heal on its own?

A

7-10 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Is there a cure for herpes simplex?

A

No (antivirals used to reduce replication)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

In what condition can a herpes simplex infection become life-threatening?

A

Herpesviral encephalitis (when spread to the brain)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Herpesviral encephalitis most commonly develops from which herpes virus?

A

HSV-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the name of the antiviral used to treat herpes simplex infections?

A

Valtrex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the most common oral fungal infection?

A

Oral candidiasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What pathogen is responsible for oral candidiasis?

A

Candida albicans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the clinical name for thrush?

A

Pseudomembranous candidiasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What color is thrush?

A

Gray-to-white (erythema underneath when scraped off)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are risk factors for developing thrush?

A

Immunodeficiency, broad-spectrum antibiotics, diabetics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Pseudomembranous candidiasis is largely associated with what major disease of immunodeficiency?

A

AIDS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What conditions are on the differential diagnosis list for oral candidiasis?

A

Leukoplakia, candidemia, oral cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Thrush affects what percent of newborns in the U.S.?

A

37%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the most common location for oral proliferative lesions?

A

Along bite line

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is an oral fibroma?

A

Reactive nodular mass resulting from chronic irritation that led to hyperplasia and fibrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What are the two forms of oral proliferative lesions?

A

1 Fibroma

2 Pyogenic granuloma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What part of the oral cavity is affected by pyogenic granulomas?

A

Gingiva

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is a pyogenic granuloma?

A

Red-to-purple vascular mass affecting the gingiva

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Pyogenic granulomas are seen among what populations?

A

Pregnant women and also children

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What type of oral proliferative lesion is influenced by hormonal factors?

A

Pyogenic granulomas

40
Q

What is the treatment for oral proliferative lesions?

A

Excision or removal of the irritant

41
Q

What is the appearance of leukoplakia?

A

Raised white patch that cannot be scraped off

42
Q

What are the cellular changes seen with leukoplakia?

A

Dysplasia

Epithelial hyperplasia and keratosis

43
Q

Leukoplakia affects what percent of the population?

A

3%

44
Q

What are the risks for leukoplakia?

A

Inflammation due to tobacco, alcohol, and/or candidiasis

45
Q

What is the age and gender bias for leukoplakia?

A

Males (2X) ages 40-70

46
Q

25% of leukoplakia cases are pre-cancerous and develop into what form of cancer?

A

Oral squamous cell carcinoma (SCC)

47
Q

What are the three “leukoplakia-like” conditions?

A

1 Erythroplakia
2 Hairy leukoplakia
3 Verrucous leukoplakia

48
Q

Which leukoplakia-like condition presents as a red, velvety area with irregular borders?

A

Erythroplakia

49
Q

What is the risk for erythroplakia?

A

Tobacco use

50
Q

Why is erythroplakia especially dangerous?

A

> 50% likely to progress into cancer

51
Q

Which leukoplakia-like condition is associated with a combination of an EBV infection and immunosuppression like AIDS?

A

Hairy leukoplakia

52
Q

What kind of infection can lead to verrucous leukoplakia?

A

HPV

53
Q

What kind of leukoplakia-like condition presents with hyperkeratosis and a warty appearance?

A

Verrucous leukoplakia

54
Q

Which leukoplakia-like condition commonly progresses into squamous cell carcinoma?

A

Verrucous leukoplakia

55
Q

What kind of genetic mutation is associated with oral cancer?

A

TP53

56
Q

What is the common treatment for oral cancer?

A

Excision

57
Q

What type of cancer makes up 95% of oral cancer cases?

A

Squamous cell carcinomas

58
Q

What is the prognosis for oral squamous cell carcinoma?

A

Poor

59
Q

What are risk factors for oral squamous cell carcinoma?

A

Alcohol, tobacco, over 30 years old, HPV-16

60
Q

What kind of pain/dysfunction is associated with oral squamous cell carcinoma?

A

Oropharyngeal

61
Q

What are the possible locations for OSCC?

A

Ventral (inferior) tongue, floor of mouth, lower lip, soft palate, gingiva

62
Q

What is the most common location of metastasis for OSCC?

A

Cervical nodes (also mediastinal nodes, lungs and liver)

63
Q

Why does HPV-associated oral cavity cancer have a more favorable prognosis?

A

Fewer genetic mutations

64
Q

What locations are associated with OSCC caused by HPV-16?

A

Base of tongue

Tonsillar crypts

65
Q

What is the most common primary salivary gland disease?

A

Of the parotid gland

66
Q

Are primary salivary gland diseases common?

A

RARE

67
Q

What are the possible locations for primary salivary gland disease?

A

Parotid (MC)
Sublingual
Submandibular
Minor salivary glands

68
Q

What family of antibodies is formed in the salivary glands and excreted in saliva?

A

IgA

69
Q

What is the clinical term for dry mouth?

A

Xerostomia

70
Q

What are common causes for xerosomia?

A

Aging (>70 years), ADRs, irradiation

71
Q

Xerostomia is largely associated with what condition?

A

Sjögren syndrome

72
Q

What causes xerostomia?

A

Decreased saliva production

73
Q

What is the most common viral cause of sialadenitis and what gland does it involve?

A

Mumps (paramyxovirus); parotid gland

74
Q

What is sialadenitis?

A

Inflammation and enlargement of the salivary glands

75
Q

What bacteria is the most common cause of sialadenitis?

A

Staph. aureus

76
Q

What accompanying inflammatory issues are associated with adult onset mumps?

A

Pancreatitis and orchitis

77
Q

A mumps infection is self-limiting among what population?

A

Pediatrics

78
Q

What is a mucocele?

A

Blockage or rupture of a glandular duct

79
Q

What are other names for a mucocele?

A

Mucous cyst, ranula

80
Q

What age groups are more likely to develop mucoceles?

A

Children and elderly

81
Q

What is the common location for mucoceles?

A

Lower lip

82
Q

Salivary gland neoplasms most commonly affect what age group?

A

Elderly

83
Q

What is the age and gender bias for salivary gland neoplasms?

A

Females, 60-80 years

84
Q

Which salivary gland is most likely to develop a neoplasm?

A

Parotid (65-80%)

85
Q

What is the relationship between size and risk of malignancy with salivary gland neoplasms?

A

Increased size means a decreased risk (and vice versa)

86
Q

Neoplasms of which salivary glands are the least common but most likely to be malignant?

A

Sublingual and minor salivary glands

87
Q

Salivary gland neoplasms of which gland are most likely to not be malignant?

A

Parotid (but most common overall)

88
Q

What kind of parotid tumor makes up 60% of all tumors?

A

Pleomorphic adenoma

89
Q

What is an adenoma?

A

Benign glandular tumor

90
Q

What makes a pleomorphic adenoma a mixed tumor?

A

Made of epithelial and mesenchymal tissue

91
Q

What cancer develops in 2-10% of pleomorphic adenoma cases?

A

Carcinoma ex pleomorphic adenoma

92
Q

Is a pleomorphic adenoma malignant?

A

NO (adenoma = benign)

93
Q

Is a pleomorphic adenoma painful?

A

NO (painless)

94
Q

What makes the histological appearance of a pleomorphic adenoma heterogenous in nature?

A

Mixture of cartilage and bone

95
Q

What characteristic of a pleomorphic adenoma makes it highly mobile?

A

Encapsulated

Systems Pathology II Midterm (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions