Oral Cavity Flashcards

1
Q

What are the clinical terms used for a canker sore?

A

Aphthous ulcer, recurrent aphthous stomatitis

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2
Q

Canker sores affect what percent of the population?

A

40%

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3
Q

Describe the appearance of a canker sore?

A

Shallow ulceration

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4
Q

How long does it take for a canker sore to heal on its own?

A

7-10 days

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5
Q

Are aphthous ulcers contagious?

A

No

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6
Q

What is the age and gender bias for recurrent aphthous stomatitis?

A

Females less than 20 years old

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7
Q

What are risk factors for canker sores?

A

Genetics, IBD (celiac disease), Behçet disease

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8
Q

What things can be triggers for canker sores?

A

Smoking, stress, trauma, fever, certain foods

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9
Q

What is the treatment for a canker sore?

A

Avoid causative agents, NSAIDs, corticosteroids, vitamin B12 (cobalamin)

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10
Q

What is the term for the development of oral lesions due to the herpes simplex virus (HSV)?

A

Herpetic stomatitis

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11
Q

At what age is one more likely to have the initial infection of herpetic stomatitis?

A

2-4 years (young children)

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12
Q

Is herpetic stomatitis largely symptomatic or asymptomatic?

A

Asymptomatic (80%)

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13
Q

What percentage of those with herpetic stomatitis go on to develop acute herpetic gingivostomatitis?

A

10-20%

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14
Q

Why are most adults carriers for the herpes simplex virus?

A

Latent infection that lies dormant

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15
Q

Where does the herpes simplex I virus lie dormant?

A

Trigeminal ganglion (C.N. V)

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16
Q

What are the most common locations for oral herpetic lesions?

A

Labial, nasal, buccal, gingival, hard palate

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17
Q

Does every HSV-1 infection affect only the orofacial region, and does every HSV-2 infection affect only the genital region?

A

NO (may infect either location)

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18
Q

What is the clinical term for the infection presented in the genital region by the herpes simplex 2 virus?

A

Herpes genitalis

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19
Q

What kinds of things can provoke a herpes simplex infection to recur?

A

UV light, pyrexia, cold, trauma, URTI, pregnancy

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20
Q

How long does it take for the vesicles of a herpes simplex infection to heal on its own?

A

7-10 days

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21
Q

Is there a cure for herpes simplex?

A

No (antivirals used to reduce replication)

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22
Q

In what condition can a herpes simplex infection become life-threatening?

A

Herpesviral encephalitis (when spread to the brain)

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23
Q

Herpesviral encephalitis most commonly develops from which herpes virus?

A

HSV-1

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24
Q

What is the name of the antiviral used to treat herpes simplex infections?

A

Valtrex

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25
What is the most common oral fungal infection?
Oral candidiasis
26
What pathogen is responsible for oral candidiasis?
Candida albicans
27
What is the clinical name for thrush?
Pseudomembranous candidiasis
28
What color is thrush?
Gray-to-white (erythema underneath when scraped off)
29
What are risk factors for developing thrush?
Immunodeficiency, broad-spectrum antibiotics, diabetics
30
Pseudomembranous candidiasis is largely associated with what major disease of immunodeficiency?
AIDS
31
What conditions are on the differential diagnosis list for oral candidiasis?
Leukoplakia, candidemia, oral cancer
32
Thrush affects what percent of newborns in the U.S.?
37%
33
What is the most common location for oral proliferative lesions?
Along bite line
34
What is an oral fibroma?
Reactive nodular mass resulting from chronic irritation that led to hyperplasia and fibrosis
35
What are the two forms of oral proliferative lesions?
1 Fibroma | 2 Pyogenic granuloma
36
What part of the oral cavity is affected by pyogenic granulomas?
Gingiva
37
What is a pyogenic granuloma?
Red-to-purple vascular mass affecting the gingiva
38
Pyogenic granulomas are seen among what populations?
Pregnant women and also children
39
What type of oral proliferative lesion is influenced by hormonal factors?
Pyogenic granulomas
40
What is the treatment for oral proliferative lesions?
Excision or removal of the irritant
41
What is the appearance of leukoplakia?
Raised white patch that cannot be scraped off
42
What are the cellular changes seen with leukoplakia?
Dysplasia | Epithelial hyperplasia and keratosis
43
Leukoplakia affects what percent of the population?
3%
44
What are the risks for leukoplakia?
Inflammation due to tobacco, alcohol, and/or candidiasis
45
What is the age and gender bias for leukoplakia?
Males (2X) ages 40-70
46
25% of leukoplakia cases are pre-cancerous and develop into what form of cancer?
Oral squamous cell carcinoma (SCC)
47
What are the three "leukoplakia-like" conditions?
1 Erythroplakia 2 Hairy leukoplakia 3 Verrucous leukoplakia
48
Which leukoplakia-like condition presents as a red, velvety area with irregular borders?
Erythroplakia
49
What is the risk for erythroplakia?
Tobacco use
50
Why is erythroplakia especially dangerous?
>50% likely to progress into cancer
51
Which leukoplakia-like condition is associated with a combination of an EBV infection and immunosuppression like AIDS?
Hairy leukoplakia
52
What kind of infection can lead to verrucous leukoplakia?
HPV
53
What kind of leukoplakia-like condition presents with hyperkeratosis and a warty appearance?
Verrucous leukoplakia
54
Which leukoplakia-like condition commonly progresses into squamous cell carcinoma?
Verrucous leukoplakia
55
What kind of genetic mutation is associated with oral cancer?
TP53
56
What is the common treatment for oral cancer?
Excision
57
What type of cancer makes up 95% of oral cancer cases?
Squamous cell carcinomas
58
What is the prognosis for oral squamous cell carcinoma?
Poor
59
What are risk factors for oral squamous cell carcinoma?
Alcohol, tobacco, over 30 years old, HPV-16
60
What kind of pain/dysfunction is associated with oral squamous cell carcinoma?
Oropharyngeal
61
What are the possible locations for OSCC?
Ventral (inferior) tongue, floor of mouth, lower lip, soft palate, gingiva
62
What is the most common location of metastasis for OSCC?
Cervical nodes (also mediastinal nodes, lungs and liver)
63
Why does HPV-associated oral cavity cancer have a more favorable prognosis?
Fewer genetic mutations
64
What locations are associated with OSCC caused by HPV-16?
Base of tongue | Tonsillar crypts
65
What is the most common primary salivary gland disease?
Of the parotid gland
66
Are primary salivary gland diseases common?
RARE
67
What are the possible locations for primary salivary gland disease?
Parotid (MC) Sublingual Submandibular Minor salivary glands
68
What family of antibodies is formed in the salivary glands and excreted in saliva?
IgA
69
What is the clinical term for dry mouth?
Xerostomia
70
What are common causes for xerosomia?
Aging (>70 years), ADRs, irradiation
71
Xerostomia is largely associated with what condition?
Sjögren syndrome
72
What causes xerostomia?
Decreased saliva production
73
What is the most common viral cause of sialadenitis and what gland does it involve?
Mumps (paramyxovirus); parotid gland
74
What is sialadenitis?
Inflammation and enlargement of the salivary glands
75
What bacteria is the most common cause of sialadenitis?
Staph. aureus
76
What accompanying inflammatory issues are associated with adult onset mumps?
Pancreatitis and orchitis
77
A mumps infection is self-limiting among what population?
Pediatrics
78
What is a mucocele?
Blockage or rupture of a glandular duct
79
What are other names for a mucocele?
Mucous cyst, ranula
80
What age groups are more likely to develop mucoceles?
Children and elderly
81
What is the common location for mucoceles?
Lower lip
82
Salivary gland neoplasms most commonly affect what age group?
Elderly
83
What is the age and gender bias for salivary gland neoplasms?
Females, 60-80 years
84
Which salivary gland is most likely to develop a neoplasm?
Parotid (65-80%)
85
What is the relationship between size and risk of malignancy with salivary gland neoplasms?
Increased size means a decreased risk (and vice versa)
86
Neoplasms of which salivary glands are the least common but most likely to be malignant?
Sublingual and minor salivary glands
87
Salivary gland neoplasms of which gland are most likely to not be malignant?
Parotid (but most common overall)
88
What kind of parotid tumor makes up 60% of all tumors?
Pleomorphic adenoma
89
What is an adenoma?
Benign glandular tumor
90
What makes a pleomorphic adenoma a mixed tumor?
Made of epithelial and mesenchymal tissue
91
What cancer develops in 2-10% of pleomorphic adenoma cases?
Carcinoma ex pleomorphic adenoma
92
Is a pleomorphic adenoma malignant?
NO (adenoma = benign)
93
Is a pleomorphic adenoma painful?
NO (painless)
94
What makes the histological appearance of a pleomorphic adenoma heterogenous in nature?
Mixture of cartilage and bone
95
What characteristic of a pleomorphic adenoma makes it highly mobile?
Encapsulated