Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Systems Pathology II Midterm > Intestines 2 > Flashcards

Intestines 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What general condition is a major global health problem killing 12,000 children each day due to an acquired infection leading to abdominal pain, urgency/incontinence, perianal discomfort, diarrhea, and hemorrhage?

A

Infectious enterocolitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What causes infectious enterocolitis?

A

Viral, bacterial, and protozoal agents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What condition is caused by Virbrio cholerae?

A

Cholera

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How is cholera transmitted?

A

Fecal-oral route (H2O)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Where is cholera seen the most?

A

India/Africa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How is cholera able to affect chloride ion secretion?

A

Secretes cholera toxin and opens CFTR channel releasing massive amounts of chloride ions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What unique stool appearance is associated with cholera?

A

“Rice water” stool

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Does cholera affect tissues?

A

Minimal tissue damage (noninvasive)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the symptoms of cholera?

A

Cramping, hypotension, shock, dehydration, electrolyte imbalances

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the mortality rate for cholera?

A

50-70% lethal without treatment most commonly in 24 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the appearance of Vibrio cholerae and is it a gram negative or gram positive bacteria?

A

Comma-shaped, gram-negative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the treatment for cholera?

A

Fluids, electrolytes, antibiotics, zinc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the pathogen responsible for campylobacter enterocolitis?

A

Campylobacter jejuni

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the most common bacterial enteric pathogen in the U.S.?

A

Campylobacter jejuni

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the most common pathogen that causes traveler’s diarrhea?

A

E. coli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Traveler’s diarrhea is acquired from what kinds of contaminated food?

A

Chicken, water, milk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which is more common: non-invasive or invasive campylobacter enterocolitis?

A

Non-invasive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the results of invasive campylobacter enterocolitis?

A

Enterotoxins lead to dysentery and pyrexia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What other conditions may be initiated by campylobacter enterocolitis?

A

Reactive arthritis (+HLA-B27) or GBS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What kinds of pathogens can be responsible for acute self-limited colitis that lasts for less than month without treatment?

A

Campylobacter, Shigella, E. coli, Salmonella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is another name for antibiotic-associated colitis?

A

Pseudomembranous colitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What causes pseudomembranous colitis?

A

Antibiotics disrupts microbiota

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Due to extreme inflammation, which leukocyte is largely present in pseudomembranous colitis?

A

Neutrophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What pathogen is responsible for pseudomembranous colitis?

A

Clostridium difficile (overgrowth in the colon from natural microbiota)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are the risk factors for pseudomembranous colitis?

A

Hospitalization, older age, decreased immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What kind of diarrhea is associated with antibiotic-associated colitis?

A

Watery and bloody (rare) diarrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the treatment for pseudomembranous colitis?

A

Vancomycin or metronidazole (resistant strains present)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What forms the pseudomembranes seen in antibiotic-associated colitis?

A

Cellular debris and leukocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What KIND of pathogen causes half of all gastroenteritis cases?

A

Viral pathogens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

How is viral gastroenteritis acquired?

A

Direct contact of contaminated food or water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

How does viral gastroenteritis lead to malabsorption?

A

Injury to superficial epithelia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What virus most commonly causes gastroenteritis in children (6 months to 2 years of age)? In adults?

A

Children - Rotavirus

Adults - Norovirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the treatment for viral gastroenteritis?

A

Palliative care, fluid replacement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

How many people worldwide are affected by a parasitic disease?

A

Over 1/2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the most common parasitic infection of the U.S.?

A

Giardiasis “Beaver Fever” (aka duodenalis, intestinalis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What things can be resisted by Giardia lamblia?

A

Cold and chlorine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the non-invasive way in which Giardia lamblia affects the GI tract?

A

Alters SI enzymes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is another name for sigmoid diverticulitis?

A

Colonic diverticulosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are the complications associated with sigmoid diverticulitis?

A

Infection, abscess, possible perforation/hemorrhage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What are the risk factors for sigmoid diverticulitis?

A

Age, refined foods, constipation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Eating what kind of foods can reduce straining and pressure that could lead to sigmoid diverticulitis?

A

Food high in fiber

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is the age bias associated with sigmoid diverticulitis?

A

50% of those over age 60

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What are symptoms of sigmoid diverticulitis?

A

Cramping, left lower abdominal pain, tenesmus, diarrhea

44
Q

What is the treatment for sigmoid diverticulitis?

A

Reduce intraluminal pressure

Increase fiber intake

45
Q

Irritable bowel syndrome most commonly develops at what age?

A

Between 20-40 years

46
Q

What is the gender bias associated with irritable bowel syndrome?

A

Females

47
Q

What intestinal condition is unique because it is not associated with any cellular abnormalities?

A

IBS

48
Q

What is the treatment for IBS?

A

Fiber, decrease in carbs, stress management

49
Q

IBS affects what percent of the U.S.?

A

5-10%

50
Q

What is the gender, age, and ethnic bias associated with inflammatory bowel disease?

A

Females, adolescence, Caucasians

51
Q

What are the two forms of IBD?

A

Crohn’s disease

Ulcerative colitis

52
Q

What is the most common location for Crohn’s disease?

A

Terminal ileum, ileocecal valve, or cecum (but found in the entire GI tract)

53
Q

Which form of IBD is associated with transmural inflammation?

A

Crohn’s disease

54
Q

What are the most common locations for ulcerative colitis?

A 
1 Rectum (where it ALWAYS starts)
2 Distal colon
55
Q

Which form of IBD affects both the mucosa and submucosa?

A

Ulcerative colitis

56
Q

What is the hypothesis for the cause of Crohn’s disease?

A

T cell autoimmune reaction

57
Q

Which form of IBD involves skip lesions, granulomas, ulcerations, and strictures?

A

Crohn’s disease

58
Q

What kind of feces are associated with Crohn’s disease?

A

Melana (with mild diarrhea)

59
Q

What other symptoms/conditions can arise from Crohn’s disease?

A

Skin reaction, arthritis, AS, eye irritation, fatigue

60
Q

What is the treatment for Crohn’s disease?

A

No cure but treatment includes probiotics and immunosuppressive meds

61
Q

Crohn’s disease presents a risk for what kind of cancer?

A

G.I. adenocarcinoma

62
Q

When does a GI adenocarcinoma tend to develop in a patient with Crohn’s disease?

A

8-10 years after diagnosis

63
Q

Creeping mesenteric fat can be seen accumulating in individuals with what condition?

A

Crohn’s disease

64
Q

Pain is felt in which quadrant with Crohn’s disease?

A

Right lower quadrant

65
Q

What condition presents as superficial mucosal ulcerations of the intestines?

A

Ulcerative colitis

66
Q

What is the age bias for U.C.?

A

20-25 years old

67
Q

What drug has been shown to be inhibitory toward ulcerative colitis?

A

Nicotine (smoking)

68
Q

Which form of IBD does not have granulomas or skip lesions?

A

Ulcerative colitis

69
Q

What is the appearance of the stool with ulcerative colitis?

A

Grossly bloody and mucoid (stringy)

70
Q

What type of cancer is seen to develop in patients with ulcerative colitis abut 8-10 years after diagnosis?

A

Adenocarcinoma

71
Q

What preventative treatment can be done in patients with ulcerative colitis who are at a high risk for developing cancer?

A

Prophylactic colectomy

72
Q

Pseudopolyps are associated with which inflammatory intestinal condition?

A

Ulcerative colitis

73
Q

Which IBD is not malabsorptive?

A

Ulcerative colitis

74
Q

Which IBD presents with fibrosis?

A

Crohn’s disease

75
Q

What types of colon polyps present with minimal risk?

A

Inflammatory

Harmatomas

76
Q

What type of colon polyp resemble dysplasia but is actually well-differentiated?

A

Hyperplastic

77
Q

What type of colon polyp is a neoplastic mass that is considered “pre-malignant”?

A

Adenomatous

78
Q

What is the most common age group to develop hyper plastic colon polyps?

A

Elderly (50-60 years)

79
Q

How common are intestinal adenomas in the U.S.?

A

50% of all adults over 50

80
Q

What is the age of onset for intestinal adenomas?

A

Over 40 years old

81
Q

What presents as a great risk for developing intestinal adenomas?

A

Familial history (4X)

82
Q

What are some signs of intestinal adenomas?

A

Occult bleeding, anemia

83
Q

What is the relationship between size of an adenoma and malignancy?

A

Larger adenoma = greater cancer risk

84
Q

What is the age of onset for familial adenomatous polyposis?

A

Teenage years

85
Q

What gene in mutated in familial adenomatous polyposis?

A

APC gene, chromosome 5

86
Q

What is the likelihood that someone with familial adenomatous polyposis will develop cancer?

A

100%

87
Q

Most patients with familial adenomatous polyposis will develop cancer by what age?

A

30

88
Q

What is the treatment for familial adenomatous polyposis?

A

Prophylactic colectomy

89
Q

How many polyps must be present for a diagnosis of familial adenomatous polyposis?

A

100 or more

90
Q

What is the most common amount of polyps present in an individual with familial adenomatous polyposis?

A

500-2,500

91
Q

What is the most common type of colon tumor that arises from epithelial tissue?

A

Carcinoma

92
Q

What percent of the country develops colorectal cancer?

A

5%

93
Q

What is the mortality rate for colorectal cancer?

A

40%

94
Q

What are the types of colon tumors?

A

Adenocarcinomas

Carcinoid tumors

95
Q

What is the most common malignancy of the GI tract?

A

Colorectal adenocarcinoma

96
Q

Colorectal adenocarcinomas are most commonly diagnosed in what age range?

A

50-70

97
Q

What are the risk factors for colorectal adenocarcinoma?

A

Male, IBD, developed nations (due to diet)

98
Q

What type of diet is directly associated with a 30X increased risk of colorectal adenocarcinoma development?

A

Highly processed diet

99
Q

What country has the highest rates of colorectal adenocarcinomas?

A

USA

100
Q

What drug has been shown to be somewhat protective against colorectal adenocarcinoma?

A

Aspirin

101
Q

What is the most common location for colorectal adenocarcinoma?

A 
Ascending colon (30%)
Sigmoid colon (25%)
102
Q

What types of foods present a higher risk for colorectal adenocarcinomas?

A

1 low vegetable fiber
2 high refined carbs
3 high fat
4 decreased antioxidants

103
Q

When an elderly patient presents with anemia, what overlying condition must be rule out first?

A

Colorectal cancer

104
Q

What is the most common location of colorectal adenocarcinoma metastasis?

A

Liver (but can also go to lymph nodes, lungs, and bone marrow)

105
Q

Which are more common: neoplasms of the small or large intestine?

A

Large

Systems Pathology II Midterm (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions