Oral and Esophageal Pathology Flashcards

1
Q

Define oral cavity canker sore

A

an apthous ulcer….a very common shallow superficial mucosal ulceration usually painful and recurrent

etiology uncertain but probably stress, celiacs or IBS

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2
Q

What is a mucosal fibroma

A

Also called an irritation fibroma…it’s a reactive proliferation of squamous mucosa and underlygin subepithelial fibrous tissue

typically secondary to chronic irritation

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3
Q

What is a squamous papilloma

A

It’s an exophytic papillary proliferation of squamous mucosa with a fibrovascular core

some associated with HPV, others associated with trauma/irritation

note that some can undergo malignant transofmraiton to in-situ and invasive SCC

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4
Q

What is a pyogenic granuloma

A

a polypoid red lesion composed of lobular reactive proliferation of capillaries

basically an eruptive hemangioma in the oral cavity

usually occurs on the giniva in chidlrne, young adults and pregnant women

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5
Q

What is glossitis

A

Two definitions:

  1. inflammation of the tongue
  2. used to describe the beefy-red appearance of the tongue encountered in certain deficiency states - red is secondary to atrophy of the papillae and thinning of mucosa revealing blood vessels
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6
Q

What is geographic tongue?

A

also called benign migratory glossitis

it’s a mgratory “map-like” appearance of the tongue due to focal loss of the papillae.

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7
Q

What is fordyce’s granules?

A

it’s heterotopic colections of sebaceous glands in the oral cavity

they’re not supposed to be there

show up as yellow granules

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8
Q

Describe the appearance of hairy leukoplakia

A

It’s a white, confluent patch of fluffy hyperkeratosis on the LATERAL side of the tongue - won’t scrape off

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9
Q

What is the clinical significance of hairy leukoplakia?

A

It occurs in immunocompromised individuals with EBV infection

(can be the first presenting sign of HIV infection, although it’s the EBV that’s causing it directly)

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10
Q

Describe the appearance of leukoplakia?

A

a white patch or plaque in the oral cavity that cannot be scraped off and cannot be characterized clinically or pathologically as any other disease

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11
Q

Descibe the appearance of erythroplakia?

A

a red, velvety patch in the oral cavity

may be flat or slightly eroded

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12
Q

What’s the clinical significance of leukoplakia and erythroplakia?

A

5-25% of leukoplakia and even more erythroplakia demonstrate precancerous squamous dysplasia in addition to squamous hyperplasia and hyperkeratosis

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13
Q

Describe actinic cheilitis.

A

It’s a leukoplakic lesion of the lower lip with loss of the vermillion border…it’s basically actinic keratosis of the lip

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14
Q

What can actinic cheilitis develop into?

A

Like actinic keratosis it can be a precursor to squamous cell carcinoma of the lip

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15
Q

What are the key risk factors for the development of oral, oropharyngeal, hypopharyngeal and laryngeal squamous cell carcinoma

A
smoking
tobacco
both is worse!
HPV
sunlight for the SCC of lower lip
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16
Q

What ‘s the key risk factor for nasopharyngeal squamous cell carcinoma?

A

EBV infection

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17
Q

Explain why inverted sinonasal papillomas are more likely to recur than other sinonasal papillomas

A

Instead of growing outward, it grows inward, so it’s harder to resect all of it out and is more likely to recur

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18
Q

Teenage boy with recurrent nasal obstruction and epistaxis…what do you think of?

A

nasopharyngeal angiofibroma

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19
Q

Describe the most common site of metastases for oral cavity and pharyngeal squamous cell carcinoma

A

cervical lymph nodes

distant mets to the mediastinal LNs, lungs, liver, and bone

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20
Q

Define xerostomia

A

dry mouth due to decrease in production of saliva

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21
Q

Define sialadentis

A

defined as inflammation fo the salivary glands

22
Q

What is a common cause of sialadentis

A

many causes - trauma, bacterial or viral infections (mumps) and autoimmune disease (sjogrens). Also from sialolithiasis which causes obstruction and secondary bacterial infections with staph aureus

23
Q

What is LESA?

A

Lymphoepithelial sialadenitis or Mikulicz disease

It’s an autoimmune disease involving the salivary glands with xerostomia and keratoconjuncitivit sicca

you get polyclonal lymphoid inflammation of the salivary gland leading to gland enlargment and a characteristic lymphoepithelial lesions

24
Q

What is the more common causes of xerostomia?

A

sjogren’s syndrome
previous radiation therapy
drug side effect

25
Q

Describe the cause and appearance of a mucocele

A

results from either blockage or traumatic injury to a MINOR salivary gland with leakage of contents into the surrounding CT

presents as a fluid-filled mucosal nodule with varying degrees of inflammation

note - ranula is the term for damage to the sublingual duct specifically

26
Q

What’s the most common neoplasm of the salivary glands? Benign or malignant?

A

pleomorphic adenoma - benign

27
Q

Second most common? Benign or malignant?

A

Warthin tumor

28
Q

Most common malignant?

A

Mucoepidermoid carcinoma

29
Q

What is the microscopic appearance and key clinical features of pleomorphic adenoma?

A

mix of proliferating epithelial cells with a mesenchymal matrix of myxoid, hyaline and chrondoid tissue

usually present as painless discrete masses that are seemingly well circumscribed but with small extensions that make recurrent rate of 25%

30
Q

What is the microscopic appearance and key clinical features of a warthin tumor?

A

well-encapsulated
distinct papillary, cystic lesion with a DUAL LAYER of bland, neoplastic eosinophilic epithelium associated with a reactive lymphoid stroma

31
Q

What is the microscopic appearance and key clinical features of a mucoepidermoid carcinoma?

A

variable mixture of squamous cells, mucus-secreting cells and intermediate cells

grossly appear encapsulated, but htey infiltrate at margins microscopically

32
Q

What is the microscopic appearance and key clinical features of an adenoid cystic carcinoma

A

It’s a slow-growing often relentless salivary gland carcinoma with predilection for neural invasion

note that half occur in the minor salivary glands

half disseminate to other organs decades after removal

33
Q

What salivary gland is most often involved by salivary gland neoplasms?

A

parotid

34
Q

Define esophageal atresia

A

esophagus that ends in a blind end - usually associated with tracheoesophageal fistulas

35
Q

Define esophageal stenosis

A

narrowing of the esophagus

36
Q

What are common causes of esophageal stenosis?

A

can be congenital, but it’s usually due to injury and inflammation from chronic GERD, irradiation or caustic injury

37
Q

Describe the difference between esophageal mucosal webs and schatzki rings?

A

Webs are protrusions of mucosa into the lumen that can cause obstruction - usually upper esophagus

Schatzki rings are webs but thicker and CIRCUMFERENTIAL in the lower esophagus

38
Q

Define zenker’s diverticulum? Where is it located?

A

an outpouching of mucosa and submucosa thorugh a weakened posterior cricopharyngeus muscle

located above the upper esophageal sphincter

39
Q

Define mallory-weiss syndrome.

A

A longitudinal mucosal laceration in the distal esophagus and proximal stomach, usually associated with severe retching or vomitign from heavy alcohol use

presents with hematemesis

can progress to Boerhaave syndrome if it tears all the way into the mediatinum - air gets in and travels up under the skin

40
Q

Define hiatal hernia. What’s the most common type?

A

separation of diaphragatic crura with protrusion of the stomach into the thorax

most are acquired and sliding type

41
Q

List the three most common types of infectious esophagitis that occur in immunocompromised patients.

A

candida
herpes simplex
CMV

42
Q

Describe the suspected pathogenic mechanism of eosinophilic esophagitis>

A

probably a food allergy triggering eosinophilia

43
Q

Describe the microscopic appearnce of eosinophilic esophagitis

A

over 20 eosinophils per high power field in biopsy

gross appearance has rings and white sloughing - feline ringing

44
Q

What’s the clinical presentation of eosinophilic esophagitis?

A

person with hx of allergies and asthma with persistent difficulty swallowing

45
Q

What’s the major complication of GERD?

A

Barrett’s esophagus - conversion of normal squamous mucosa to metaplastic olumnar epithelium with goblet cells - makes it look like the intestine

46
Q

What is the major complication of Barrett’s esophagus?

A

risk of esophageal landular dysplasia and adenocarcinoma

47
Q

What are the risk factors for esophageal adenocarcinoma?

A

95% arise from barret’s and GERD

48
Q

What are the risk factors for esophageal squamous cell carcinoma?

A
alcohol and tobacco
caustic injury
achalasia
tylosis
plummer-vinson
hot tea
HPV
49
Q

What’s the most common cause of esophageal squamous papillomas?

A

it’s a benign squamous neoplasm with an association with HPV

50
Q

What’s the most common benign mesenchymal tumor of the esophagus?

A

Leiomyoma

51
Q

What combination makes Plummer-Vinson syndrome?

A

iron deficiency anemia
glossitis
esophageal webs with dysphagia