OPV (QDL) Flashcards

0
Q

When must an updated NAV log be kept to comply with fuel monitoring and FOM guidance?

A

Whenever the aircraft will enter class II airspace at any time during the flight

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1
Q

Normal reporting time for an ASAP report is 24 hours. What should you do if you are unable to submit the online report within this time frame?

A

Call or email the safety department to let them know that you will be submitting on whichever event you had.

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2
Q

Class II Navigation means operation outside of the usable range of standard navigation facilities. Which of the areas listed below is an example of class II navigation?

A

ALL ANSWERS ARE CORRECT

A. Routes southeast of the Bahamas
B. Gulf of Mexico
C. ARs to Florida and Bahamas

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3
Q

Where can ICAO lost communications procedures be found?

A

In the emergency section of the JEPP Manuals (JAM)

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4
Q

How is MEDLINK contacted during flight?

A

The flight crew should call ARINC from the frequency listed in the JEPPs or the ABG and request a phone patch to MEDLINK

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5
Q

What action is required by the flight crew if the emergency medical kit is opened by an EMT (Authorized by MEDLINK) and used to attend to a seriously ill customer during flight?

A

The aircraft maintenance logbook will require an entry and the crew must fill out a FCIR (flight crew irregularity report)

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6
Q

What is the appropriate crew response during an encounter with volcanic ash?

A

Comply with the volcanic ash encounter QRH

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7
Q

Regarding the fasten seatbelt sign and PA announcements; What would be the correct flight crew member actions if you encounter moderate turbulence while enroute?

A

Turn on Fasten Seatbelt sign, announce “cabin crew take your jumpseats”, followed by a flight deck PA to customers

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8
Q

In the event of an engine failure during the climb out after initiating a turn on the SID (with no turn note or EOSID published), what action should the pilot take?

A

Continue on the published SID

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9
Q

When considering turbulence, what tools would be helpful in the pre departure phase of flight?

A

ALL OF THE ABOVE

A. Sigmets, airmets
B. significant weather program charts
C. PIREPS

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10
Q

While running the ditching QRH, the checklist states “EVACUATION….INITIATE”. At this point

A

The captain should call “easy victor, easy victor”

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11
Q

When trying to determine the need to evacuate following N engine fire indication on the ground,

A

ALL OF THESE ANSWERS ARE CORRECT
A. The FO should focus on running the Appropriate QRC/QRH
B. the captain should get additional information to help asses the situation from ATC or CFR
C. the captain should get additional information to help asses the situation from the cabin team

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12
Q

Strong radar echoes, those with sharply defined edges and or contour indications of heavy precipitation, should be avoided by at least:

A

20 miles

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13
Q

Which of the following conditions (within 15 miles of the airport) constitute a possible reason to review the severe weather/ winds hear aid in the QRH?

A

ALL OF THESE ARE CORRECT
A. PIREP greater than a 15 kt loss/gain
B. lightning
C. Greater than or equal to red return/heavy precip

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14
Q

A microburst alert has been issued for the runway you are being vectored to for approach. What action is required by the flight crew?

A

Do not land until conditions improve

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15
Q

When would you be required to execute the EGPWS escape maneuver during night or IMC conditions

A

When you hear “PULL UP”

16
Q

While holding short of the active runway during SMGCS operations, a position and hold clearance is issued by ATC. What action should be taken if the red stop bar is still illuminated?

A

Continue holding short. Query ATC about the clearance and inform the controller that the stop bar is still illuminated

17
Q

What document should be referenced to ensure full compliance with the DOT 3 hr Tarmac delay rule?

A

FOM

18
Q

If an airport has two standard CAT 1 ILS approaches available (each with mins of 200&1/2) what is the lowest allowable weather forecast which would qualify that airport as a legal alternate?

A

Ceiling 400 & visibility 1 SM

19
Q

During a PRM approach, you receive breakout instructions from ATC. The breakout maneuver must be initially flown with autopilot off.

A

True

20
Q

During the receiving checklist, you check the flight deck emergency equipment. When you check the PBE, what are you looking for to determine its serviceability?

A

The external white tape is intact, or the yellow serviceability indicator is visible through the window.

21
Q

If a fire develops in a laptop computer in flight, the best method for fighting a lithium ion battery fire is:

A

Use a halon fire extinguisher and then pour water on the computer to cool the batteries.

22
Q

Which statement is correct regarding non-essential equipment and furnishing (NEF) items listed on the MX3 logbook and GMM page?

A

NEF ITEMS WILL NOT BE LISTED ON THE RELEASE

23
Q

A crew applied MEL may be performed by the flight crew _____

A

ALL ANSWERS ARE CORRECT
A. under the direction of maintenance control
B. before blocking out at stations with no maintenance on duty
C. At any station after blocking out

24
Q

Minimum fuel and emergency fuel must be declared to ATC when predicted fuel levels at destination (or alternate) are respectively:

A

4,500 and 3,300

25
Q

What serves as the official reference for the specific deice and anti ice information that will be in effect at each airport this winter?

A

Airport briefing guide

26
Q

JetBlue may not operate in

A

Moderate freezing rain

27
Q

To ensure all de/anti ice procedures are followed correctly, we should:

A

Carefully read the QRH and follow the listed steps

28
Q

During operations with ice pellets’ an allowance time _____

A

Replaces a holdover time and can not be extended

29
Q

If landing on a contaminated runway with no directional control concerns, what autobrake and thrust reverser settings are specified by the standard landing configuration guidance?

A

MED autobrake with maximum reverse