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Things I suck at (BOARDS) > OPP stuff > Flashcards

OPP stuff Flashcards

1
Q

Chapman point for sinuses

A

Below proximal 1/3 clavicle

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2
Q

Chapman point for ears

A

Above proximal 1/3 clavicle

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3
Q

Chapman point for pharynx

A

Below 1st rib/manubrium junction

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4
Q

Chapman point for pylorus

A

Sternum

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5
Q

Chapman point for stomach acid

A

Left 5th ICS and left T5-6 intertransverse space (ITS)

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6
Q

Chapman point for liver

A

Right 5th ICS and left T5-6 ITS

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7
Q

Chapman point for stomach peristalsis

A

Left 6th ICS at costal cartilage and left T6-7 ITS

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8
Q

Chapman point for liver/GB

A

Right 6th ICS at costal cartilage and left T6-7 ITS

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9
Q

Chapman point for spleen

A

Left 7th ICS at costal cartilage and left T7-8 ITS

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10
Q

Chapman point for pancreas

A

Right 7th ICS at costal cartilage and right T7-8 ITS

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11
Q

Chapman point for small intestines

A

7-9th ICS of ribs bilateral (could be 8-10 too, I dunno)

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12
Q

Chapman point for intestinal peristalsis

A

b/w the iliac crest and greater trochanter

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13
Q

Chapman point for bronchus/esophagus/thyroid gland

A

2nd ICS at sternal border and over T2 transverse process

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14
Q

Chapman point for heart

A

2nd ICS at sternal border and T2-3 ITS

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15
Q

Chapman point for the upper lung

A

3rd ICS at sternal border and T3-4 ITS

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16
Q

Chapman point for the lower lung

A

4th ICS at sternal border and T4-5 ITS

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17
Q

Chapman point for adrenals

A

1” lateral and 2” superior to umbilicus anterior and T11-12 ITS posterior

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18
Q

Chapman point for kidneys

A

1” lateral and 1” superior to the umbilicus anterior and T12-L1 ITS posterior

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19
Q

Chapman point for appendix

A

Tip right 12th rib anterior and T11 transverse process posterior

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20
Q

Chapman point for colon

A

Iliotibial band is a mirror image of colon layout; cecum at the right hip, transverse 1/3 at the right knee, transverse 2/3 at left knee, sigmoid at left hip

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21
Q

Chapman point for bladder

A

Periumbilical anterior and upper edge of L2 transverse process posterior

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22
Q

Chapman point for prostate, broad ligament

A

Iliotibial band posterior margin anterior and b/w the PSIS and L5 spinous process posterior

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23
Q

Spinal cord levels for head and neck

A

T1-4

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24
Q

Spinal cord levels for heart

A

T1-5(6)

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25
Q

Spinal cord levels for respiratory system

A

T2-7(8)

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26
Q

Spinal cord levels for esophagus

A

T2-8

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27
Q

Spinal cord levels for upper GI

A

T5-9

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28
Q

What does the “upper GI tract” contain?

A

Stomach, liver, GB, spleen, portions of the pancreas and duodedum

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29
Q

Spinal cord levels for middle GI tract

A

T10-11

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30
Q

What does the “middle GI tract” contain

A

Portions of pancreas/duodenum, jejunum, ileum, ascending colon and proximal 2/3 of the transverse colon (“right” colon)

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31
Q

Spinal cord levels for lower GI tract

A

T12-L2

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32
Q

What does the “lower GI tract” contain?

A

Distal 1/3 of transverse colon, descending colon, sigmoid colon, rectum

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33
Q

Upper GI tract supplied by what nerve and ganglion

A

Greater splanchnic nerve and celiac ganglion

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34
Q

Middle GI tract supplied by what nerve and ganglion

A

Lesser splanchnic nerve and SM ganglion

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35
Q

Lower GI tract supplied by what nerve and ganglion

A

Least splanchnic nerve and IM ganglion

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36
Q

Spinal cord levels for appendix

A

T12

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37
Q

Spinal cord levels for kidneys

A

T10-11

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38
Q

Spinal cord levels for adrenal medulla

A

T10

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39
Q

Spinal cord levels for upper ureters

A

T10-11

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40
Q

Spinal cord levels for lower ureters

A

T12-L1

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41
Q

Spinal cord levels for bladder

A

T11-L2

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42
Q

Spinal cord levels for gonads

A

T10-11

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43
Q

Spinal cord levels for uterus and cervix

A

T10-L2

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44
Q

Spinal cord levels for erectile tissue of penis and clitoris

A

T11-L2

45
Q

Spinal cord levels for prostate

A

T12-L2

46
Q

Spinal cord levels for arms

A

T2-8

47
Q

Spinal cord levels for legs

A

T11-L2

48
Q

Possible treatments for irritable bowel syndrome

A

Superior mesenteric ganglion release, techniques to the lumbosacral junction, techniques to the iliotibial band, and associated chapman points.

49
Q

What is counternutation?

A

Backwards movement of the sacrum

50
Q

When is counternutaton seen in craniosacral motion

A

In flexion

51
Q

What is nutation?

A

Anterior or forward movement of the sacrum (Nutation=nod forward)

52
Q

When is nutation seen in craniosacral motion

A

Cranial extension

53
Q

In cranial flexion, what happens to the paired bones

A

Externally rotate

54
Q

In cranial flexion, what happens to the diameters of the skull

A

AP diameter decreases and transverse diameter increases

55
Q

What motions occur about the superior transverse axis of the sacrum

A

Respiratory and craniosacral motion

56
Q

Motions occur about the middle transverse axis of the sacrum

A

Postural motion

57
Q

Motion that occurs about the inferior transverse axis of the sacrum

A

Innominate rotation

58
Q

What divides the greater and lesser sciatic foramen

A

Sacrospinous ligament

59
Q

Purpose of Spurling’s test

A

Examine narrowing of the cervical foramina

60
Q

How to perform Spurling’s test

A

Extend the patients head, sidebend it toward the side of dysfunction, and apply downward compression

61
Q

Pes planus (flat-foot) often leads to what?

A

Excessive pronation of the foot which then leads to lateral subluxation on the patella

62
Q

Describe the Q-angle

A

Intersection of the line from the ASIS to the middle of the patella and the line through the tibial tubercle and the patella

63
Q

What is a normal Q-angle?

A

10-12 degrees

64
Q

What is a decreased Q-angle referred to as

A

Genu varum aka bowlegs

65
Q

What is an increased Q-angle known as?

A

Genu valgum aka knock-knees

66
Q

What lies directly posterior to the proximal fibular head

A

Common fibular (peroneal) nerve

67
Q

What is the angle of inclination

A

The angle b/w the axis of the shaft of the femur and the axis of the femoral neck

68
Q

What is a normal angle of inclination

A

120-135 degrees

69
Q

What is coxa valga

A

Angle of inclination >135

70
Q

What is coxa varum

A

Angle of inclination <120

71
Q

What should you use to treat acute psoas syndrome?

A

Reciprocal inhibition

72
Q

Muscle spasm, restricted motion, joint restriction, vasospasm causing edema and skin changes, rapid hair growth, and severe, BURNING pain at the site of injury

A

Complex regional pain syndrome

73
Q

Difference b/w complete regional pain syndrome type 1 and 2

A

Type II has associated nerve injury

74
Q

Patients who are at high risk for adhesive capsulitis

A

Females, pts with diabetes mellitus or thyroid disease

75
Q

To which side should a heel lift be place in a short leg

A

Side of the short leg

76
Q

Heel lift should be what length

A

1/2 to 3/4 the measured length discrepancy

77
Q

In “fragile” patients with a short leg, what length should the heel-lift be?

A

1/16” and increase 1/16” every 2 weeks

78
Q

Flexible patient heel lift

A

1/8” and increase 1/8” every 2 weeks

79
Q

What is the maximum length a heel lift may be applied INSIDE the shoe?

A

1/4”

80
Q

What is the maximal heel length possible

A

1/2”

81
Q

If someone’s coronal suture is fucked, what’s a good technique to use

A

V-spread (heh)

82
Q

When is parietal lift an appropriate technique

A

When the squamous suture is fucked

83
Q

What type of techniques should you do for acute somatic dysfunctions

A

INdirect

84
Q

When should you consider bracing for someone with scoliosis?

A

When the Cobb angle is >20 degrees

85
Q

When do organs start to be in danger in a patient with scoliosis

A

When the Cobb angle is >45 degrees

86
Q

Pain and tightness in the hip/thigh, snapping with flexion of the hip, tenderpoint medial to the ASIS

A

Psoas syndrome

87
Q

WHat is the cause of “hip snapping” in psoas syndrome

A

Iliospoas tendon catching the hip during flexion.

88
Q

Index fingers move superiorly and 5th fingers move inferiorly in this CS motion

A

Inferior vertical strain

89
Q

Index fingers move inferiorly and 5th fingers move superiorly in this CS motion

A

Superior vertical strain

90
Q

Poor suck is caused by…

A

Occipital condylar compression (aka OA compression)

91
Q

When you do compression of the 4th ventricle, what should you encourage and discourage

A

You should encourage extension while discouraging flexion

92
Q

A positive what test indicates thoracic outlet syndrome

A

Adsons test

93
Q

How do you perform Adson’s test

A

Extend the arm at the elbow, extend the shoulder, externally rotate, and slightly abduct the patients arm. Then have the patient taking a deep breath and turn their head toward their ipsilateral arm

94
Q

Physician sidebends and extends the patients head and then pushes down to apply compression; test is positive if pain radiates to the ipsilateral arm

A

Spurling test

95
Q

What does the spurling test test for?

A

Cervical foramina narrowing

96
Q

Physician flexes the head for 10 seconds then extends the neck for 10 seconds

A

Wallenburg test

97
Q

What does the Wallenburg test test for?

A

Vertebral artery insufficiency

98
Q

Hyperabducting the arm above the head with some extension is what test?

A

Wright’s test (aka arm hyperextension test)

99
Q

When is Wright’s test positive

A

Severely decreased or absent radial pulse

100
Q

What does Wright test test for?

A

Compression of the neurovascular bundle underneath the pec minor at the coracoid process

101
Q

Physician palpates the radial pulse while depressing and extending the patients shoulder

A

Military posture test

102
Q

What does the military posture test test for?

A

Neurovascular bundle compresion b/w the clavicle and first rib

103
Q

What does Yergason’s test test for?

A

Stability of the biceps tendon in the bicipital groove

104
Q

What is the purpose of the hip-drop test

A

Evaluate sidebending of the lumbar spine

105
Q

The straight leg raise test evaluates what?

A

Compression of the sciatic nerve

106
Q

Ober’s test evaluates what

A

Tight tensor fascia lata and iliotibial band

107
Q

Patrick’s (FABER) test evaluates what?

A

Sacroiliac or hip dysfunction

108
Q

Apley’s compression and distraction tests evaluate what?

A

Ligamentous structures by the knee

Things I suck at (BOARDS) (12 decks)

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