OPP stuff Flashcards by Joseph Barbato

Chapman point for sinuses

Below proximal 1/3 clavicle

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Chapman point for ears

Above proximal 1/3 clavicle

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Chapman point for pharynx

Below 1st rib/manubrium junction

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Chapman point for pylorus

Sternum

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Chapman point for stomach acid

Left 5th ICS and left T5-6 intertransverse space (ITS)

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Chapman point for liver

Right 5th ICS and left T5-6 ITS

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Chapman point for stomach peristalsis

Left 6th ICS at costal cartilage and left T6-7 ITS

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Chapman point for liver/GB

Right 6th ICS at costal cartilage and left T6-7 ITS

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Chapman point for spleen

Left 7th ICS at costal cartilage and left T7-8 ITS

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Chapman point for pancreas

Right 7th ICS at costal cartilage and right T7-8 ITS

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Chapman point for small intestines

7-9th ICS of ribs bilateral (could be 8-10 too, I dunno)

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Chapman point for intestinal peristalsis

b/w the iliac crest and greater trochanter

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Chapman point for bronchus/esophagus/thyroid gland

2nd ICS at sternal border and over T2 transverse process

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Chapman point for heart

2nd ICS at sternal border and T2-3 ITS

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Chapman point for the upper lung

3rd ICS at sternal border and T3-4 ITS

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Chapman point for the lower lung

4th ICS at sternal border and T4-5 ITS

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Chapman point for adrenals

1” lateral and 2” superior to umbilicus anterior and T11-12 ITS posterior

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Chapman point for kidneys

1” lateral and 1” superior to the umbilicus anterior and T12-L1 ITS posterior

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Chapman point for appendix

Tip right 12th rib anterior and T11 transverse process posterior

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Chapman point for colon

Iliotibial band is a mirror image of colon layout; cecum at the right hip, transverse 1/3 at the right knee, transverse 2/3 at left knee, sigmoid at left hip

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Chapman point for bladder

Periumbilical anterior and upper edge of L2 transverse process posterior

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Chapman point for prostate, broad ligament

Iliotibial band posterior margin anterior and b/w the PSIS and L5 spinous process posterior

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Spinal cord levels for head and neck

T1-4

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Spinal cord levels for heart

T1-5(6)

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Spinal cord levels for respiratory system

T2-7(8)

Spinal cord levels for esophagus

T2-8

Spinal cord levels for upper GI

T5-9

What does the "upper GI tract" contain?

Stomach, liver, GB, spleen, portions of the pancreas and duodedum

Spinal cord levels for middle GI tract

T10-11

What does the "middle GI tract" contain

Portions of pancreas/duodenum, jejunum, ileum, ascending colon and proximal 2/3 of the transverse colon ("right" colon)

Spinal cord levels for lower GI tract

T12-L2

What does the "lower GI tract" contain?

Distal 1/3 of transverse colon, descending colon, sigmoid colon, rectum

Upper GI tract supplied by what nerve and ganglion

Greater splanchnic nerve and celiac ganglion

Middle GI tract supplied by what nerve and ganglion

Lesser splanchnic nerve and SM ganglion

Lower GI tract supplied by what nerve and ganglion

Least splanchnic nerve and IM ganglion

Spinal cord levels for appendix

T12

Spinal cord levels for kidneys

T10-11

Spinal cord levels for adrenal medulla

T10

Spinal cord levels for upper ureters

T10-11

Spinal cord levels for lower ureters

T12-L1

Spinal cord levels for bladder

T11-L2

Spinal cord levels for gonads

T10-11

Spinal cord levels for uterus and cervix

T10-L2

Spinal cord levels for erectile tissue of penis and clitoris

T11-L2

Spinal cord levels for prostate

T12-L2

Spinal cord levels for arms

T2-8

Spinal cord levels for legs

T11-L2

Possible treatments for irritable bowel syndrome

Superior mesenteric ganglion release, techniques to the lumbosacral junction, techniques to the iliotibial band, and associated chapman points.

What is counternutation?

Backwards movement of the sacrum

When is counternutaton seen in craniosacral motion

In flexion

What is nutation?

Anterior or forward movement of the sacrum (Nutation=nod forward)

When is nutation seen in craniosacral motion

Cranial extension

In cranial flexion, what happens to the paired bones

Externally rotate

In cranial flexion, what happens to the diameters of the skull

AP diameter decreases and transverse diameter increases

What motions occur about the superior transverse axis of the sacrum

Respiratory and craniosacral motion

Motions occur about the middle transverse axis of the sacrum

Postural motion

Motion that occurs about the inferior transverse axis of the sacrum

Innominate rotation

What divides the greater and lesser sciatic foramen

Sacrospinous ligament

Purpose of Spurling's test

Examine narrowing of the cervical foramina

How to perform Spurling's test

Extend the patients head, sidebend it toward the side of dysfunction, and apply downward compression

Pes planus (flat-foot) often leads to what?

Excessive pronation of the foot which then leads to lateral subluxation on the patella

Describe the Q-angle

Intersection of the line from the ASIS to the middle of the patella and the line through the tibial tubercle and the patella

What is a normal Q-angle?

10-12 degrees

What is a decreased Q-angle referred to as

Genu varum aka bowlegs

What is an increased Q-angle known as?

Genu valgum aka knock-knees

What lies directly posterior to the proximal fibular head

Common fibular (peroneal) nerve

What is the angle of inclination

The angle b/w the axis of the shaft of the femur and the axis of the femoral neck

What is a normal angle of inclination

120-135 degrees

What is coxa valga

Angle of inclination >135

What is coxa varum

Angle of inclination <120

What should you use to treat acute psoas syndrome?

Reciprocal inhibition

Muscle spasm, restricted motion, joint restriction, vasospasm causing edema and skin changes, rapid hair growth, and severe, BURNING pain at the site of injury

Complex regional pain syndrome

Difference b/w complete regional pain syndrome type 1 and 2

Type II has associated nerve injury

Patients who are at high risk for adhesive capsulitis

Females, pts with diabetes mellitus or thyroid disease

To which side should a heel lift be place in a short leg

Side of the short leg

Heel lift should be what length

1/2 to 3/4 the measured length discrepancy

In "fragile" patients with a short leg, what length should the heel-lift be?

1/16" and increase 1/16" every 2 weeks

Flexible patient heel lift

1/8" and increase 1/8" every 2 weeks

What is the maximum length a heel lift may be applied INSIDE the shoe?

1/4"

What is the maximal heel length possible

1/2"

If someone's coronal suture is fucked, what's a good technique to use

V-spread (heh)

When is parietal lift an appropriate technique

When the squamous suture is fucked

What type of techniques should you do for acute somatic dysfunctions

INdirect

When should you consider bracing for someone with scoliosis?

When the Cobb angle is >20 degrees

When do organs start to be in danger in a patient with scoliosis

When the Cobb angle is >45 degrees

Pain and tightness in the hip/thigh, snapping with flexion of the hip, tenderpoint medial to the ASIS

Psoas syndrome

WHat is the cause of "hip snapping" in psoas syndrome

Iliospoas tendon catching the hip during flexion.

Index fingers move superiorly and 5th fingers move inferiorly in this CS motion

Inferior vertical strain

Index fingers move inferiorly and 5th fingers move superiorly in this CS motion

Superior vertical strain

Poor suck is caused by...

Occipital condylar compression (aka OA compression)

When you do compression of the 4th ventricle, what should you encourage and discourage

You should encourage extension while discouraging flexion

A positive what test indicates thoracic outlet syndrome

Adsons test

How do you perform Adson's test

Extend the arm at the elbow, extend the shoulder, externally rotate, and slightly abduct the patients arm. Then have the patient taking a deep breath and turn their head toward their ipsilateral arm

Physician sidebends and extends the patients head and then pushes down to apply compression; test is positive if pain radiates to the ipsilateral arm

Spurling test

What does the spurling test test for?

Cervical foramina narrowing

Physician flexes the head for 10 seconds then extends the neck for 10 seconds

Wallenburg test

What does the Wallenburg test test for?

Vertebral artery insufficiency

Hyperabducting the arm above the head with some extension is what test?

Wright's test (aka arm hyperextension test)

When is Wright's test positive

Severely decreased or absent radial pulse

What does Wright test test for?

Compression of the neurovascular bundle underneath the pec minor at the coracoid process

Physician palpates the radial pulse while depressing and extending the patients shoulder

Military posture test

What does the military posture test test for?

Neurovascular bundle compresion b/w the clavicle and first rib

What does Yergason's test test for?

Stability of the biceps tendon in the bicipital groove

What is the purpose of the hip-drop test

Evaluate sidebending of the lumbar spine

The straight leg raise test evaluates what?

Compression of the sciatic nerve

Ober's test evaluates what

Tight tensor fascia lata and iliotibial band

Patrick's (FABER) test evaluates what?

Sacroiliac or hip dysfunction

Apley's compression and distraction tests evaluate what?

Ligamentous structures by the knee